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Year 3 > SBA DECK 9/05/22 > Flashcards

SBA DECK 9/05/22 Flashcards

(47 cards)

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1
Q

how do you identify ACS?

A

troponin will be positive

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2
Q

when might an AAA cause non acute pain?

A

if its leaking (but not yet ruptured)

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3
Q

what are the rules for giving n acetylcystine in paracetamol overdose?

A

if ingestion >15hrs or the dose was staggered give it straight away without delay
if ingestion <1 hr give activated charcoal
if ingestion < 4hrs wait 4 hrs to take a level then treat based on level
if ingestion 4-15 hrs take immediate level and treat based on level

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4
Q

what is used first line for relapsing remitting multiple sclerosis?

A

injectable beta interferon

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5
Q

what are features of a severe asthma attack? how many need to be present for it to be classed severe?

A 
o2 sats <92%
peak exp flow rate <33% predicted
silent chest
cyanosis
confusion
exhaustion
coma
bradycardia
arrhythmia
poor resp effort
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6
Q

what clinical test (not imaging) can be used to identify cushings disease (pituitary tumor causing cushings syndrome)?

A

low dose dexa test= will fail to surpress cortisol

high dose dexa test= will surpress cortisol

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7
Q

what ix is diagnostic for guillian barre syndrome?

A

lumbar puncture

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8
Q

what is seen on lumbar puncture in guillian barre syndrome?

A

elevated protein

normal WCC

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9
Q

when prescribing a CCB with a beta blocker, what type of CCB do you have to prescribe (give some specific names)?

A

CCB had to be a dihydropyridine eg amlodipine or felodipine

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10
Q

how often should someone with small, medium and large AAA be monitored w ultrasound?

A 
3-4.4cm= once a year
4.5-5.4cm= every 3 months
>5.5cm= do surgery
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11
Q

what condition is carpal tunnel syndrome associated with?

A

hypothyroidism

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12
Q

what is the most common cause of HUS?

A

e coli

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13
Q

when is GTN spray contraindicated for use in STEMI/ACS?

A

when there is hypotension

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14
Q

what cancer does pernicious anaemia predispose someone to?

A

gastric cancer

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15
Q

what should you think when you see intrinsic factor anitbodies?

A

pernicious anaemia/b12 deficiency

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16
Q

how can you distinguish between acute and chronic hep B via serology?

A

acute and chronic both constitute hep b infection (not just immunisation so they would be both HbsAG and HbcAG positive

in chronic infection there will only by anti Hb IgG as IgG persists
in acute infection there will be anti Hb IgG and IgM

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17
Q

what infection does TB predispose you to that doctors should check for?

A

HIV

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18
Q

what dose is high dose statin therapy in secondary prevention of an MI?

A

80 mg daily

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19
Q

what type of pleural effusion do you get in RA?

20
Q

what does squamous cell lung cancer secrete to cause hypercalcaemia?

Study These Flashcards
A

parathyroid hormone related peptide

21
Q

what is the acronym for quadrantopias?

22
Q

what is the acronym for quadrantopias?

Study These Flashcards
A

PITS- parietal inferior, temporal superior

23
Q

what happens to serum copper in wilsons disease? explain

Study These Flashcards
A

it is reduced

this is because the excess copper is deposited in tissues

24
Q

what is target blood pressure in someone with diabetes?

25
how long does rheumatoid arthritis morning stiffness last?
over 30 mins
26
what is first line management for rheumatoid arthritis?
methotrexate and steroids
27
what antibody is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
anti CCP
28
what is treatment for bells palsy vs ramsay hunt syndrome?
bells palsy= oral steroids and eye cover | ramsay hunt syndrome= acyclovir
29
what organism is likely found in a diabetic foot ulcer?
pseudomonas aerunginosa
30
what does a positive pemberton's sign signify?
superior vena cava obstruction
31
what STD can cause septic arthritis (especially in young people)? what will you see?
gonorrhoea
32
what virus is reactivated in shingles and what does this cause?
reactivation of varicella zoster causing chickenpox
33
what is first line for pharmacological treatment of GH excess? include the class of drug and the name of the drug used
somatostatin analogue | name is ocreotide
34
what class of anti emetic is used to combat nausea and vomiting due to chemotherapy?
5HT3 antagonist
35
what surgery is considered best for SAH?
endovascular coiling
36
what happens in terms of management if a patient presents after 4.5hrs of stroke onset?
start aspirin 300mg daily for 2 weeks 24hrs after they present before starting do a repeat CT to exclude any new haemorrhagic stroke
37
how many days before surgery should you stop warfarin? what should target INR before surgery be?
1.5
38
if there is arrhythmia after MI what artery is most likely affected and what type of STEMI will this cause?
II, III and avF ie inferior STEMI | RCA infarct as this supplies the AV node
39
how is adrenaline given in cardiac arrest in shockable v non shockable rhythmns?
shockable= give after 3 cycles of CPR | non shockable= give immediately
40
is pulseless electrical activity shockable or not shockable?
not shockable
41
what test is used to diagnose addisons disease?
short synacthen test
42
what should you think when you see hyponatraemia and hyperkaelmia?
addisons disease
43
what are the most common causes of infective endocarditis?
staph aureus | if <2 months post valve surgery staph epidermis
44
what triad is used for raised ICP?
Cushings: hypertension, bradycardia and irregular breathing (results in wide pulse pressure)
45
what is the most common valve problem with rheumatic heart disease?
mitral stenosis
46
what is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
minimal change disease
47
how is nephrotic syndrome pharmacologically treated?
prednisolone

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