SCAI CHAP 9 IVUS Flashcards

(33 cards)

1
Q

Q1: What two factors determine the quality of IVUS images?

Q2: What is *spatial resolution in IVUS?

Q3: What is depth in IVUS imaging?

Q4: What ultrasound frequency range does IVUS use?

Q5: What is the *axial resolution range of standard IVUS?

Q6: What is the *lateral resolution range of IVUS?

Q7: What is the typical tissue penetration depth of IVUS?

Q8: What frequency does high-definition IVUS use?

Q9: What are the two main components of an IVUS system?

Q10: What are the two types of transducer design in IVUS catheters?

A

A1: Spatial resolution and depth

A2: Minimum distance between two adjacent points that can be distinguished

A3: Ability to visualize the far field (tissue penetration)

A4: 20-60 MHz

A5: 20 to 150 µm

A6: 200 to 250 µm ( 0.2 to 0.25 mm )

A7: 6 to 12 mm

A8: 60 MHz

A9: Catheter with miniaturized transducer and console with electronics. IVUS catheters typically range in size from 2.9 to 3.6F (0.96-1.17 mm) and are compatible with 5F or 6F guide catheters.

A10: Mechanically rotated transducers ( usually higher resolution ) and multielement electronic phased-array transducers.

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2
Q
A
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3
Q

Q1: What procedure is the IVUS technique identical to?

Q2: What anticoagulation is given before IVUS catheter insertion?

Q3: Where is the guide wire introduced?

Q4: Over what is the IVUS catheter advanced?

Q5: What type of catheter pullback is performed during IVUS?

Q6: What is the purpose of the catheter pullback?

Q7: What potential risks does intracoronary instrumentation carry?

Q8: What can the imaging transducer transiently occlude?

Q9: What medication is recommended before instrumentation to prevent coronary spasm?

Q10: What is the recommended activated clotting time before catheter insertion?

A

A1: Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) catheter insertion

A2: Heparin anticoagulation

A3: Ostial aortic position

A4: Guidewire

A5: Manual or motorized pullback

A6: To provide longitudinal vessel imaging for quantitation

A7: Intimal injury or acute vessel dissection

A8: Coronary artery

A9: Intracoronary nitroglycerine (50-200 µg)

A10: Greater than 250 or 300 seconds depending on device

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4
Q

Q1: What imaging modality is considered a workhorse in the cath lab?

Q2: What two skills are essential for IVUS use?

Q3: What does IVUS help distinguish between?

Q4: What dimensions does IVUS accurately measure?

Q5: What pattern does flowing blood exhibit on IVUS?

Q6: What does blood echogenicity depend on?

Q7: What happens to the blood echogenicity pattern when blood flow reduces?

Q8: At higher imaging frequencies, what becomes more prominent in blood?

Q9: How is the lumen area determined on IVUS?

Q10: Which three layers of the arterial wall can IVUS visualize?

Q11: How does the intima appear on IVUS?

Q12: How does the media appear on IVUS?

Q13: What cells are present in the media layer?

Q14: How does the adventitia appear on IVUS?

Q15: Why does the adventitia produce the highest gray-level intensity?

A

A1: IVUS (Intravascular Ultrasound)

A2: Performance and interpretation

A3: Different types of plaque

A4: Lumen and plaque

A5: Echogenicity pattern

A6: Blood flow velocity

A7: It becomes higher intensity and coarser in texture

A8: Blood “speckle”

A9: By planimetry of the leading edge of the blood-intima acoustic interface

A10: Intima, media, and adventitia

A11: As an echodense (gray) layer closest to the transducer

A12: As an echolucent (black) ring with weak scattering

A13: Smooth muscle cells

A14: As an echodense connective tissue layer

A15: Due to greater scattering of ultrasound waves

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5
Q

In ultrasound imaging, “speckle” refers to the granular, grainy texture or noise-like pattern that appears in the image. It is caused by the interference of the scattered ultrasound waves from many tiny structures within the tissue, which results in a characteristic “salt-and-pepper” appearance.

A

It is a type of image artifact, not actual anatomical structure.

Speckle arises because ultrasound waves scatter off small tissue microstructures that are smaller than the ultrasound wavelength.

It can reduce image clarity and contrast, making it harder to distinguish fine details.

However, speckle also contains useful information about tissue texture and can be analyzed for diagnostic purposes in advanced imaging techniques.

Speckle is more prominent at higher ultrasound frequencies.

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6
Q

Q1: How is the gray-level appearance of plaque constituents defined?

Q2: How does lipid-rich tissue appear on IVUS?

Q3: What color or shade is lipid-rich tissue typically?

Q4: How are the borders of lipid-rich tissue usually described?

Q5: How does a necrotic core usually appear?

Q6: How is fibrous tissue characterized on IVUS?

Q7: What is the echodensity of fibrous tissue relative to adventitia?

Q8: What kind of texture does fibrous tissue have?

Q9: Does fibrous tissue cause an acoustic shadow?

Q10: How does calcified tissue appear on IVUS?

Q11: How does the brightness of calcified tissue compare to adventitia?

Q12: What acoustic phenomenon is associated with calcified tissue?

Q13: How does thrombus appear on IVUS?

Q14: How does **fresh thrombus appear on IVUS?

Q15: How does ***older or organized thrombus appear on IVUS?

A

A1: By brightness relative to adventitia

A2: Homogeneously hypoechoic regions

A3: Black or light gray

A4: Irregular or poorly defined borders

A5: Usually black region

A6: Moderately echodense regions

A7: Similarly bright to adventitia

A8: Heterogeneous texture

A9: ***** No acoustic shadow

A10: Highly echodense (bright white) regions

A11: Brighter than adventitia

A12: Complete distal acoustic shadowing

A13: Luminal mass with variable echogenicity

A14: Echolucent (black)

A15: Heterogeneous echodense (gray)

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7
Q

A, Normal wall; B, Fibroatheroma; C, Thin-cap fibroatheroma; D, Fibrocalcified plaque.

A

.A, Normal wall; B, Fibroatheroma; C, Thin-cap fibroatheroma; D, Fibrocalcified plaque.

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8
Q

EEM outside the Media
IEM inside the Media
“M” like “M”edia

The OUTER green circle in the pictures i think it is the EEM. So always identify the black area corresponding to the Media and draw a green circle at the outer Media border, this would be your EEM.

I think It is very hard to draw IEM because it is often masked by other components like necrotic core, so do not look or plan on localizeing or drawing IEM. It is very hard to recognize it , that is why we do not use it for measurements or sizing. It is very hard to delineate the borders between Media and Intima.

Fibrous cap, lipid pool and necrotic core are ALL part of the INTIMA ( I think ).

A

ORIENTATION

Catheter –> INTIMA ( white ) –> IEM –> Media ( black ) –> EEM –> Adventitia ( white )

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9
Q

Q1: Where is the guide wire positioned relative to the transducer in most IVUS designs?

Q2: What does the wire artifact look like on IVUS?

Q3: What causes shadow artifact in IVUS imaging?

Q4: What effect does shadow artifact have on visualization?

Q5: What is the ringdown artifact caused by?

Q6: What does the ringdown artifact obscure?

Q7: How is the ringdown artifact handled in electronic array catheters?

Q8: What causes reverberation artifact in IVUS?

Q9: What kind of surfaces cause reverberation artifact?

Q10: What happens to IVUS waves during reverberation artifact?

Q11: How does the IVUS transducer interpret reverberated sound waves?

Q12: How do reverberation artifacts appear on the IVUS image?

Q13: What materials can cause reverberation artifacts?

Q14: Is the ringdown artifact present in all medical ultrasound devices?

Q15: Can mechanical systems merge ringdown artifact with any other artifact?

A

A1: External to the transducer

A2: Gray or black shade

A3: High-density structures like calcium or stent struts

A4: Creates dark areas behind the structure, limiting visualization

A5: Acoustic oscillations in the piezoelectric transducer

A6: Near-field imaging ( high amplitude signals that obscure the near field )

A7: Removed largely by mask subtraction

A8: IVUS beam encountering two parallel strong reflecting surfaces

A9: Calcium, metal stents, guide wires, guide catheters

A10: Reflected back and forth repeatedly

A11: As deeper structures

A12: Multiple evenly spaced circumferential layers

A13: Calcium, metal stents, guide wires, guide catheters

A14: Yes

A15: Yes, with imaging sheath artifact

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10
Q

Ringdown artifact in ultrasound refers to a type of imaging artifact caused by
*** prolonged acoustic oscillations within the ultrasound transducer’s piezoelectric material.

A

Explanation:

When the transducer sends out an ultrasound pulse, it can sometimes continue to vibrate (or “ring”) for a short time after the pulse is sent.
These continued vibrations generate high-amplitude signals that interfere with the imaging of structures very close to the transducer, known as the near-field.
This causes a bright echo or “artifact” that obscures the immediate area near the transducer, making it difficult to visualize structures in that region.
In some ultrasound systems, especially electronic phased-array catheters, this artifact can be reduced or removed by signal processing techniques like mask subtraction.
In mechanical systems, it may blend with other artifacts such as the imaging sheath artifact.

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11
Q

**Reverberation artifact is caused by STRUCTURES around the transducer

***Ringdown artifact is caused by the TRANSDUCER

A
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12
Q

Q1: What causes nonuniform rotational distortion (NURD) in mechanical transducers?

Q2: When is NURD most evident?

Q3: How does NURD appear on IVUS images?

Q4: What is a common cause of mechanical drag leading to NURD?

Q5: What does attenuation artifact refer to in IVUS imaging?

Q6: What effect does attenuation have on ultrasound waves?

Q7: Which types of plaques cause significant attenuation?

Q8: How does attenuation affect image quality?

Q9: What causes geometric distortion in IVUS imaging?

Q10: How does geometric distortion affect the appearance of the lumen?

Q11: In which coronary artery is geometric distortion particularly evident?

Q12: What shape does the lumen appear when geometric distortion occurs?

Q13: What type of imaging plane causes geometric distortion?

Q14: Is NURD a mechanical or electronic artifact?

Q15: What is the relationship between vessel tortuosity and NURD?

A

A1: Variations in rotational speed due to mechanical drag on catheter driveshaft

A2: When the driveshaft is bent into a small radius of curvature by a tortuous vessel

A3: Circumferential stretching of part of the image with compression of the opposite wall

A4: Bending of the catheter in tortuous vessels

A5: Attenuation of sound waves as they pass through certain tissues or materials

A6: Decreases image quality or penetration

A7: Heavily calcified or fibrotic plaques

A8: Reduces image clarity and depth of visualization

A9: Oblique imaging planes

A10: Circular lumen appears elliptical

A11: Left main (LM) coronary artery

A12: Elliptical shape

A13: When the ultrasound beam is not orthogonal to the vessel wall

A14: Mechanical artifact

A15: Increased vessel tortuosity increases likelihood of NURD

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13
Q

Q1: What class recommendation do the 2021 ACC/AHA/SCAI guidelines assign for performing IVUS to define lesion severity and reduce ischemic events ?

Q2: For which types of stenting is IVUS particularly recommended?

Q3: What is the class recommendation for IVUS use to determine the mechanism of stent failure?

Q4: What is the best method to assess hemodynamic severity of ischemia across a stenosis?

Q5: Does IVUS provide direct or indirect information about lesion hemodynamic severity?

Q6: Should physiologic tests be substituted by IVUS for ischemia assessment?

Q7: In ***non-left main (non-LM) lesions, what IVUS measurement best correlates with ischemia?

Q8: What is the recommended minimum lumen area (MLA) cutoff by meta-analyses for non-LM lesions?

Q9: What is the range of MLA cutoffs reported in IVUS studies?

Q10: Does the MLA cutoff have high positive or negative predictive value?

Q11: What does a low positive predictive value of MLA cutoff suggest about its correlation with physiologic studies?

Q12: Should IVUS MLA cutoff alone be used to predict stress-induced ischemia in non-LM lesions?

Q13: Name one other lesion characteristic important in assessing hemodynamic significance besides MLA.

Q14: What is fractional flow reserve (FFR)?

Q15: Why should other lesion characteristics be considered along with MLA in assessing lesion significance?

A

A1: Class IIa

A2: Left main (LM) or complex coronary artery stenting

A3: Class IIa

A4: Physiologic studies

A5: Indirect

A6: No, physiologic tests are gold standard and should not be substituted

A7: ***Minimum lumen area (MLA)

A8: 3.0 mm²

A9: 2.1 to 4.4 mm²

A10: High negative predictive value

A11: Poor correlation between IVUS MLA and physiologic studies for non-LM stenoses ( if MLA below 3 for example, do not supose ffr will be likely abnormal )

A12: No, it should be avoided ( ow MLA does not necessarily predict abnormal ffr or stress induced iscemia )

A13: Lesion length, area stenosis, plaque burden, reference vessel size, or location

A14: A measurement of pressure differences across a coronary lesion to assess ischemia

A15: Because lesion characteristics other than MLA significantly affect hemodynamic significance

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14
Q
A
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15
Q

Q1: Does the LM artery have a high or low correlation between IVUS and FFR?

Q2: What LM MLA value is associated with similar outcomes between deferred and revascularized patients?

Q3: What happens to outcomes in patients with LM MLA < 6.0 mm² who did not undergo revascularization?

Q4: According to current recommendations, when can revascularization be safely deferred in LM lesions?

Q5: At what LM MLA value should revascularization be pursued?

Q6: What should be done for LM lesions with MLA between 4.5 and 6.0 mm²?

Q7: What type of studies should be considered for LM lesions with intermediate MLA values?

Q8: What does MLA stand for?

Q9: What does FFR stand for?

Q10: Is IVUS useful in guiding treatment decisions for LM lesions?

Q11: What is the significance of an LM MLA > 6.0 mm²?

Q12: What is the significance of an LM MLA < 4.5 mm²?

Q13: What patient group had worse outcomes without revascularization?

Q14: What is the recommended approach for LM lesions with MLA < 4.5 mm²?

Q15: Why is further evaluation recommended for LM lesions with MLA between 4.5 and 6.0 mm²?

A

A1: High correlation ( ** unlike non-LM arteries )

A2: LM MLA > 6.0 mm²

A3: Significantly worse outcomes

A4: When MLA > 6.0 mm²

A5: When MLA < 4.5 mm²

A6: Further evaluation with physiologic studies

A7: Invasive or noninvasive physiologic studies

A8: Minimum lumen area

A9: Fractional flow reserve

A10: Yes, it helps guide revascularization decisions

A11: Revascularization can be safely deferred

A12: Revascularization should be pursued

A13: Patients with LM MLA < 6.0 mm² who did not have revascularization

A14: Pursue revascularization

A15: Because MLA is intermediate and hemodynamic significance is uncertain

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16
Q

Q1: What does IVUS provide to guide lesion preparation strategy?

Q2: How are predominantly **lipid-rich plaques treated?

Q3: What type of balloon is used for predilation of **fibrotic or moderately calcified plaques?

Q4: What devices are used for plaque modification in severely calcified plaques?

Q5: What percentage of target lesions contain calcium?

Q6: How sensitive is fluoroscopy or angiography in detecting calcification?

Q7: What procedural risks increase with calcification?

Q8: What postprocedural outcomes worsen with calcified nodules?

Q9: What do calcified nodules tend to cause in stents?

Q10: Why is adequate lesion preparation critical?

Q11: What does IVUS provide about calcification severity?

Q12: What guides lesion preparation strategy according to the passage?

Q13: What types of atherectomy devices are mentioned?

Q14: What is the role of intravascular lithotripsy?

Q15: What is the difference between compliant and noncompliant balloons?

A

A1: Detailed plaque tissue characterization

A2: Predilation with a compliant balloon or direct stenting

A3: Noncompliant, high pressure, or cutting/scoring balloon

A4: Atherectomy devices (rotational, orbital) or intravascular lithotripsy

A5: 75%

A6: Approximately 40% sensitivity

A7: Stent underexpansion, dissection, perforation, acute lumen closure

A8: Worse post-PCI outcomes and in-stent restenosis

A9: Major stent underexpansion and protrusion through stent struts

A10: To reduce procedural risks and improve outcomes

A11: Accurate information based on a scoring system

A12: An algorithm illustrated in Fig. 9.6

A13: Rotational and orbital atherectomy

A14: To modify calcified plaques using shockwave energy

A15: Compliant balloons expand more easily, noncompliant balloons resist expansion and provide higher pressure

17
Q

Q1: What imaging modality offers advantages over angiography for stent sizing?

Q2: What does IVUS help identify for stent sizing?

Q3: Compared to IVUS, does angiography tend to overestimate or underestimate lumen dimensions?

Q4: What effect does IVUS guidance have on stent diameter?

Q5: How does IVUS guidance affect angiographic mean lumen diameter (MLD)?

Q6: What is the impact of IVUS guidance on minimum stent area (MSA)?

Q7: Does IVUS guidance lead to implantation of more or fewer stents compared to angiography?

Q8: Does IVUS guidance tend to result in longer or shorter stents?

Q9: What are two common methods of angiography mentioned for stent sizing?

Q10: Why is IVUS preferred over angiography for stent sizing?

A

A1: IVUS (Intravascular Ultrasound)

A2: Reference segments and stent sizing

A3: **Underestimate ( that is why they say always add +0.5 mm )

A4: Results in chosing a larger stent diameter

A5: Results in greater MLD

A6: Results in greater MSA

A7: More stents

A8: Longer stents

A9: Eyeballing and quantitative coronary angiography

A10: Because it provides more accurate lumen dimension measurements

18
Q

Q1: What is a major ( most important ) predictor of stent failure and adverse outcome related to lesion coverage?

Q2: How is stent length determined?

Q3: What should be the plaque burden at the proximal and distal landing zones?

Q4: What is the plaque burden expressed as?

Q5: Why should plaque burden be less than 50% at landing zones?

Q6: What should ideally be absent at landing zones to reduce stent edge dissection?

Q7: What should ideally be absent at landing zones to reduce restenosis risk?

Q8: What is the external elastic membrane (EEM) area used for in this context?

Q9: What is meant by “geographical miss”?

Q10: Why is minimizing plaque burden at landing zones important?

A

A1: Incomplete lesion coverage (geographical miss)

A2: Distance between proximal and distal landing zones

A3: Less than 50% plaque burden

A4: Percentage of mean external elastic membrane (EEM) area occupied by plaque

A5: To minimize risk of stent edge complications

A6: Lipid-rich material

A7: Severe calcification

A8: To assess plaque burden

A9: Failure to cover the entire lesion with the stent

A10: To reduce risk of edge dissection and restenosis

19
Q

Q1: What is a powerful predictor of stent thrombosis (ST) and restenosis?

Q2: On what should stent diameter selection be based?

Q3: Where is the distal landing zone typically located?

Q4: What is the conservative approach for selecting stent diameter?

Q5: How is the stent diameter rounded in the conservative approach?

Q6: Give an example of stent sizing using the conservative approach if MLD is 3.6 mm.

Q7: What does the less conservative approach consider for stent diameter?

Q8: How is the stent diameter rounded in the less conservative approach?

Q9: Give an example of stent sizing using the less conservative approach if EEM diameter is 3.9 mm.

Q10: Why is selecting the correct stent diameter critical?

A

A1: Stent underexpansion

A2: Distal landing zone measurement

A3: Site of largest lumen distal to stenosis, ideally within same segment without major branches

A4: Based on minimum lumen diameter (MLD) of distal reference

A5: Rounded *up to the nearest available stent diameter *quarter

A6: For MLD 3.6 mm, select 3.75 mm stent

A7: Considers external elastic membrane (EEM) diameter at distal reference

A8: Rounded *down to nearest available stent diameter *quarter

A9: For EEM diameter 3.9 mm, select 3.75 mm stent

A10: To prevent stent underexpansion and reduce risk of ST and restenosis

21
Q

The term “ringdown artifact” is used because it describes the prolonged ringing or oscillation of the ultrasound transducer material after it emits an ultrasound pulse.

A

Explanation:

When the ultrasound transducer sends out a pulse, the piezoelectric crystal inside continues to vibrate (“ring”) briefly after the pulse.

This continued vibration generates echo signals that “ring down” in amplitude over time, similar to how a bell rings and gradually fades.

These ongoing vibrations produce high-amplitude signals that interfere with imaging, especially close to the transducer (near-field), causing the characteristic artifact.

Hence, the artifact is called “ringdown” because of this ringing and gradual fading of the transducer’s acoustic signal after pulse emission.

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STENT PLANNING : MLA LM > 6 mm2 : do not treat MLA LM < 4.5 mm2 : treat MLA 4.5 - 6 mm2 : do physiologic studies NON-LM MLA < 3 mm2 : treat
POST STENT LM STENT underexpansion : MSA < 10 mm2 or MSA / distal reference < 80% NON-LM SENT underexpansion : MSA < 5.5 mm2 or MSA/distal reference < 80%
29
Certain findings on IVUS, such as MLA, plaque composition, and plaque burden, can predict restenosis after intervention. Although stent placement abolishees negative remodeling and recoil after angioplasty, it stimulates neointimal hyperplasia, which is the primary mechanism of in-stent restenosis.
The 2021 ACC/AHA/SCAI guidelines for PCI assign a class IIa recommendation for performing IVUS to identify the mechanism of stent restenosis (neointimal hyperplasia or neoatherosclerosis and rarely stent fracture) and guide subsequent therapy.
30
Q1: In which types of PCI is IVUS highly advised? Q2: What does intracoronary imaging help inform during PCI? Q3: What does IVUS help with in stenting strategy? Q4: What is the recommended MSA cutoff to predict restenosis at the left main (LM)? Q5: What is the MSA cutoff for the polygon of confluence stent restenosis? Q6: What is the MSA cutoff for the left anterior descending (LAD) ostium stent restenosis? Q7: What is the MSA cutoff for the left circumflex (LCX) ostium restenosis ?
A1: Both left main (LM) and non-LM bifurcation PCI A2: Complexity and extent of disease A3: Optimize PCI and select stenting strategy A4: <8.0 mm² (or <10-12 mm² in US population) A5: <7.0 mm² A6: <6.0 mm² A7: <5.0 mm² ( 5,6,7,8, rule )
31
Q1: Why is diagnosing cardiac allograft vasculopathy by coronary angiography challenging? Q2: What imaging modality is powerful in detecting rapidly progressive vasculopathy in transplant patients? Q3: What outcomes does rapidly progressive vasculopathy predict in cardiac transplant recipients? Q4: How often do several transplant centers perform IVUS in cardiac transplant recipients? Q5: What year are the ACC/AHA/SCAI guidelines referenced for IVUS use in transplant patients? Q6: What class recommendation is assigned for performing IVUS after cardiac transplantation? Q7: At what time points post-transplantation is IVUS recommended? Q8: What is one purpose of performing IVUS at 4 to 6 weeks after transplantation? Q9: What is one purpose of performing IVUS at 1 year after transplantation? Q10: Besides detection, what other information does IVUS provide in cardiac transplant recipients?
A1: Because of diffuse vessel involvement A2: IVUS (Intravascular Ultrasound) A3: Death and myocardial infarction (MI) A4: Routinely, as part of annual catheterization A5: 2011 A6: Class IIa A7: At 4 to 6 weeks and at 1 year post-transplant A8: To exclude donor coronary artery disease A9: To detect rapidly progressive cardiac allograft vasculopathy ( Rapidly progressive vasculopathy detected by IVUS was found to be a powerful predictor of death and MI in cardiac transplant recipients. ) A10: Prognostic information
32
Q1: What condition is IVUS valuable in diagnosing? Q2: What specific features can IVUS visualize in SCAD? Q3: Is intervention routinely recommended for SCAD? Q4: When intervention is needed, what can IVUS confirm during SCAD treatment? Q5: Why is confirming wire location important in SCAD intervention? Q6: What can happen if the wire is placed in the false lumen? Q7: What is an intramural hematoma? Q8: What is a dissection flap? Q9: What are the two lumens visualized in SCAD? Q10: How does IVUS help prevent complications during SCAD intervention?
A1: Spontaneous coronary artery dissection (SCAD) A2: Dissection flap, intramural hematoma, true and false lumen A3: No, intervention is not routinely recommended A4: Location of the wire in the true lumen A5: To prevent perforation or distal propagation of dissection A6: Perforation or worsening dissection A7: A collection of blood within the vessel wall A8: A flap of vessel wall separated by the dissection A9: True lumen and false lumen A10: By confirming wire position and guiding safe intervention
33
Q1: What did the CTO-IVUS trial show about IVUS-guided PCI? Q2: Compared to angiography-guided PCI, what outcome was reduced with IVUS guidance? Q3: What is one scenario where IVUS helps during CTO PCI? Q4: How does IVUS assist with an ambiguous proximal cap? Q5: What does IVUS help identify regarding wire position in CTO PCI? Q6: How does IVUS facilitate luminal re-entry? Q7: What maneuver is simplified by IVUS during CTO PCI? Q8: What is optimized by IVUS after stent implantation in CTO PCI? Q9: What does CTO stand for? Q10: Why is IVUS useful in CTO PCI procedures?
A1: Reduction in composite of death and myocardial infarction (MI) A2: Death and MI A3: Identification of ambiguous proximal cap and guided penetration A4: By visualizing and guiding wire penetration A5: Identification of subintimal wire position A6: Facilitates re-entry into the true lumen A7: Reverse-controlled antegrade retrograde tracking maneuver A8: PCI result after stent implantation A9: Chronic total occlusion A10: It aids in visualization, guidance, and optimization of PCI