Scenarios Flashcards

1
Q

A company wants to migrate a critical application to AWS. The application has a short runtime. The application is invoked by changes in data or by shifts in system state. The company needs a compute solution that maximizes operational efficiency and minimizes the cost of running the application.
Which AWS solution should the company use to meet these requirements?

A

Lambda

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2
Q

A company plans to create a data lake that uses Amazon S3.
Which factor will have the MOST effect on cost?

A

The selection of S3 storage tiers

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3
Q

Which AWS service or feature can a company use to determine which business unit is using specific AWS resources?

A

Cost allocation tags

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4
Q

A company wants to migrate its workloads to AWS, but it lacks expertise in AWS Cloud computing.
Which AWS service or feature will help the company with its migration?

A

AWS Consulting Partners

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5
Q

A company wants to monitor for misconfigured security groups that are allowing unrestricted access to specific ports.
Which AWS service will meet this requirement?

A

AWS Trusted Advisor

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6
Q

A network engineer needs to build a hybrid cloud architecture connecting on-premises networks to the AWS Cloud using AWS Direct Connect. The company has a few VPCs in a single AWS Region and expects to increase the number of VPCs to hundreds over time.
Which AWS service or feature should the engineer use to simplify and scale this connectivity as the VPCs increase in number?

A

AWS Transit Gateway

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7
Q

A developer needs to maintain a development environment infrastructure and a production environment infrastructure in a repeatable fashion.
Which AWS service should the developer use to meet these requirements?

A

AWS CloudFormation

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8
Q

A user wants to review all Amazon S3 buckets with ACLs and S3 bucket policies in the S3 console.
Which AWS service or resource will meet this requirement?

A

Access Analyzer for S3

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9
Q

A company wants to access S3 data stored across multiple regions. What service to use?

A

S3 Multi-Region Access Points

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10
Q

I want to Route the traffic in my public subnet to internet. What should be in my Route table?

A

Destination will be 0.0.0.0/0 and ::/0 and target internet gateway ID which is attached to the VPC

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11
Q

I want to Route the traffic in my private subnet to internet. What should be in my Route table?

A

Destination will be 0.0.0.0/0 and target NAT gateway/NAT Instance which is attached to the VPC

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12
Q

Which responsibility belongs to AWS when a company hosts its databases on Amazon EC2 instances?
A. Database backups
B. Database software patches
C. Operating system patches
D. Operating system installations

A

D. Operating system installations

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13
Q

A developer has been hired by a large company and needs AWS credentials.
Which are security best practices that should be followed? (Choose two.)
A. Grant the developer access to only the AWS resources needed to perform the job.
B. Share the AWS account root user credentials with the developer.
C. Add the developer to the administrator’s group in AWS IAM.
D. Configure a password policy that ensures the developer’s password cannot be changed.
E. Ensure the account password policy requires a minimum length.

A

A and E

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14
Q

A user wants to allow applications running on an Amazon EC2 instance to make calls to other AWS services. The access granted must be secure.
Which AWS service or feature should be used?
A. Security groups
B. AWS Firewall Manager
C. IAM roles
D. IAM user SSH keys

A

A

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15
Q

A company has an uninterruptible application that runs on Amazon EC2 instances. The application constantly processes a backlog of files in an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue. This usage is expected to continue to grow for years.
What is the MOST cost-effective EC2 instance purchasing model to meet these requirements?
A. Spot Instances
B. On-Demand Instances
C. Savings Plans
D. Dedicated Hosts

A

A

Worker tiers of a decoupled application are typically fault-tolerant. So, it is a prime candidate for running on interruptible capacity. Amazon SQS running on Spot Instances allows for more robust, cost-optimized application

Question text clearly indicates multiple EC2 instances for an application - Not a single instance so in a distributed nature there is a chance of implementing High availability

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16
Q

A company needs to perform data processing once a week that typically takes about 5 hours to complete.
Which AWS service should the company use for this workload?
A. AWS Lambda
B. Amazon EC2
C. AWS CodeDeploy
D. AWS Wavelength

A

B.
AWS Lambda max runtime is 15 mins

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17
Q

A company wants to design a centralized storage system to manage the configuration data and passwords for its critical business applications.
Which AWS service or capability will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively?
A. AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
B. AWS Secrets Manager
C. AWS Config
D. Amazon S3

A

A

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18
Q

A company plans to deploy containers on AWS. The company wants full control of the compute resources that host the containers. Which AWS service will meet these requirements?
A. Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)
B. AWS Fargate
C. Amazon EC2
D. Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)

A

C

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19
Q

Which option is a shared responsibility between AWS and its customers under the AWS shared responsibility model?
A. Configuration of Amazon EC2 instance operating systems
B. Application file system server-side encryption
C. Patch management
D. Security of the physical infrastructure

A

C

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20
Q

Which options are AWS Cloud Adoption Framework (AWS CAF) security perspective capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Observability
B. Incident and problem management
C. Incident response
D. Infrastructure protection
E. Availability and continuity

A

C and D
B and E are under Operations in CAF

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21
Q

A company plans to migrate to the AWS Cloud. The company wants to use the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework (AWS CAF) to define and track business outcomes as part of its cloud transformation journey.
Which AWS CAF governance perspective capability will meet these requirements?

A. Benefits management
B. Risk management
C. Application portfolio management
D. Cloud financial management

A

A

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22
Q

A company needs to continuously run an experimental workload on an Amazon EC2 instance and stop the instance after 12 hours.
Which instance purchasing option will meet this requirement MOST cost-effectively?

A. On-Demand Instances
B. Reserved Instances
C. Spot Instances
D. Dedicated Instances

A

A

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23
Q

A company has an application with robust hardware requirements. The application must be accessed by students who are using lightweight, low-cost laptops.

Which AWS service will help the company deploy the application without investing in backend infrastructure or high-end client hardware?

A. Amazon AppStream 2.0
B. AWS AppSync
C. Amazon WorkLink
D. AWS Elastic Beanstalk

A

A. Desktop streaming service

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24
Q

A company plans to migrate to the AWS Cloud. The company is gathering information about its on-premises infrastructure and requires information such as the hostname, IP address, and MAC address.

Which AWS service will meet these requirements?

A. AWS DataSync
B. AWS Application Migration Service
C. AWS Application Discovery Service
D. AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)

A

C

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25
Q

Which action will help increase security in the AWS Cloud?

A. Enable programmatic access for all IAM users.
B. Use IAM users instead of IAM roles to delegate permissions.
C. Rotate access keys on a reoccurring basis.
D. Use inline policies instead of customer managed policies.

A

C

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26
Q

Which actions are examples of a company’s effort to rightsize its AWS resources to control cloud costs? (Choose two.)

A. Switch from Amazon RDS to Amazon DynamoDB to accommodate NoSQL datasets.
B. Base the selection of Amazon EC2 instance types on past utilization patterns.
C. Use Amazon S3 Lifecycle policies to move objects that users access infrequently to lower-cost storage tiers.
D. Use Multi-AZ deployments for Amazon RDS.
E. Replace existing Amazon EC2 instances with AWS Elastic Beanstalk.

A

B, C

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27
Q

A company is building an application that requires the ability to send, store, and receive messages between application components. The company has another requirement to process messages in first-in, first-out (FIFO) order.

Which AWS service should the company use?

A. AWS Step Functions
B. Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
C. Amazon Kinesis Data Streams
D. Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)

A

D

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28
Q

A company has a fleet of cargo ships. The cargo ships have sensors that collect data at sea, where there is intermittent or no internet connectivity. The company needs to collect, format, and process the data at sea and move the data to AWS later.

Which AWS service should the company use to meet these requirements?

A. AWS IoT Core
B. Amazon Lightsail
C. AWS Storage Gateway
D. AWS Snowball Edge

A

D

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29
Q

A user has limited knowledge of AWS services, but wants to quickly deploy a scalable Node.js application in the AWS Cloud.

Which service should be used to deploy the application?

A. AWS CloudFormation
B. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
C. Amazon EC2
D. AWS OpsWorks

A

B

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30
Q

A company wants to create Amazon QuickSight dashboards every week by using its billing data.

Which AWS feature or tool can the company use to meet these requirements?

A. AWS Budgets
B. AWS Cost Explorer
C. AWS Cost and Usage Report
D. AWS Cost Anomaly Detection

A

C

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31
Q

A company is planning to move data backups to the AWS Cloud. The company needs to replace on-premises storage with storage that is cloud-based but locally cached.

Which AWS service meets these requirements?

A. AWS Storage Gateway
B. AWS Snowcone
C. AWS Backup
D. Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)

A

A

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32
Q

Which AWS services or features provide high availability and low latency by enabling failover across different AWS Regions? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon Route 53
B. Network Load Balancer
C. Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration
D. AWS Global Accelerator
E. Application Load Balancer

A

A and D

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33
Q

A company wants to migrate its PostgreSQL database to AWS. The company does not use the database frequently.

Which AWS service or resource will meet these requirements with the LEAST management overhead?

A. PostgreSQL on Amazon EC2
B. Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL
C. Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL-Compatible Edition
D. Amazon Aurora Serverless

A

D

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34
Q

A company is using Amazon DynamoDB for its application database.

Which tasks are the responsibility of AWS, according to the AWS shared responsibility model? (Choose two.)

A. Classify data.
B. Configure access permissions.
C. Manage encryption options.
D. Provide public endpoints to store and retrieve data.
E. Manage the infrastructure layer and the operating system.

A

D, E

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35
Q

A company that has AWS Enterprise Support is launching a new version of a popular product in 2 months. The company expects a large increase in traffic to its website. The website is hosted on Amazon EC2 instances.

Which action should the company take to assess its readiness to scale for this launch?

A. Replace the EC2 instances with AWS Lambda functions.
B. Use AWS Infrastructure Event Management (IEM) support.
C. Submit a request on AWS Marketplace to monitor the event.
D. Review the coverage reports in the AWS Cost Management console.

A

B

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36
Q

A company often does not use all of its current Amazon EC2 capacity to run stateless workloads. The company wants to optimize its EC2 costs.

Which EC2 instance type will meet these requirements?

A. Spot Instances
B. Dedicated Instances
C. Reserved Instances
D. On-Demand Instances

A

A
Stateless workloads do not store any past information and start like a blank slate

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37
Q

A company has a physical tape library to store data backups. The tape library is running out of space. The company needs to extend the tape library’s capacity to the AWS Cloud.

Which AWS service should the company use to meet this requirement?

A. Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)
B. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)
C. Amazon S3
D. AWS Storage Gateway

A

D

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38
Q

What is a benefit of using AWS serverless computing?

A. Application deployment and management are not required.
B. Application security will be fully managed by AWS.
C. Monitoring and logging are not needed.
D. Management of infrastructure is offloaded to AWS.

A

D

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39
Q

A company plans to run a compute-intensive workload that uses graphics processing units (GPUs).

Which Amazon EC2 instance type should the company use?

A. Accelerated computing
B. Compute optimized
C. Storage optimized
D. General purpose

A

A

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40
Q

Which options are AWS Cloud Adoption Framework (AWS CAF) security perspective capabilities? (Choose two.)

A. Observability
B. Incident and problem management
C. Incident response
D. Infrastructure protection
E. Availability and continuity

A

C,D

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41
Q

Which of the following statements is the MOST accurate when describing AWS Elastic Beanstalk?
A) IaaS and allows to deploy and scale web applications
B) PaaS and allows to deploy and scale web applications
C) IaaS and model and provision resources for the application
D) PaaS and model and provision resources for the application

A

B

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42
Q

A brand-new startup would like to remove its need to manage the underlying infrastructure and focus on the deployment and management of its applications. Which type of cloud computing does this refer to?

A) IaaS
B)PaaS
C)IaC
D) SaaS

A

B) PaaS removes the need to manage underlying infrastructure (usually hardware and operating systems) and allows you to focus on the deployment and management of your applications

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43
Q

A company would like to move its infrastructure to AWS Cloud. Which of the following should be included in the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) estimate? (Select TWO)
A) Electronic Quipment at Office
B) Power/Cooling
C) Application Advertising
D) Server Administration
E) Number of end-users

A

B, D

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44
Q

Which of the following AWS Identity and Access Management (AWS IAM) Security Tools allows you to review permissions granted to an IAM user?
A) iAM Policies
B) iAM Access Advisor
C) iAM credentails report
D) MFA

A

B) IAM Access advisor shows the service permissions granted to a user and when those services were last accessed. You can use this information to revise your policies

Credentials report lists all IAM users in your account and the status of their various credentials, including passwords, access keys, and multi-factor authentication (MFA) devices

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45
Q

Which AWS serverless service allows you to prepare data for analytics?
A) AWS EMR
B) AWS Athena
C) AWS Glue
D) AWS Redshift

A

C.AWS Glue - Amazon Athena is used for analytics and not to prepare data for analytics

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46
Q

A start-up would like to quickly deploy a popular technology on AWS. As a Cloud Practitioner, which AWS tool would you use for this task?
A) AWS Whitepapers
B) AWS Partnet solutions (formely Quick Starts)
C) AWS CodeDeploy
D) AWS Forums

A

B) Partnet solutions - Automated reference deployments built by Amazon Web Services (AWS) solutions architects and AWS Partners

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47
Q

Which of the following criteria are used to calculate the charge for Amazon EBS Volumes? (Select Two)

A) Data Type
B) Provisioned IOPS
C) Volume Type
D) Data transfer IN
E) Type of EC2 instance to which its attached

A

B, C

The fundamental charges for EBS volumes are the volume type (based on performance), the storage volume in GB per month provisioned, the number of IOPS provisioned per month, the storage consumed by snapshots, and outbound data transfer

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48
Q

A start-up would like to monitor its cost on the AWS Cloud and would like to choose an optimal Savings Plan. As a Cloud Practitioner, which AWS service would you use?
A) AWS Cost Explorer
B) AWS Pricing Calculator
C) AWS Cost and Usage Report
D) AWS Budgets

A

A - Customers can receive Savings Plan recommendations

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49
Q

A company wants to monitor its workload performance. The company wants to ensure that the cloud services are delivered at a level that meets its business needs.

Which AWS Cloud Adoption Framework (AWS CAF) perspective will meet these requirements?

A. Business
B. Governance
C. Platform
D. Operations

A

D. The Operations perspective helps ensure that your cloud services are delivered at a level that meets the needs of your business

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50
Q

A company wants to migrate its applications to the AWS Cloud. The company plans to identify and prioritize any business transformation opportunities and evaluate its AWS Cloud readiness.

Which AWS service or tool should the company use to meet these requirements?

A. AWS Cloud Adoption Framework (AWS CAF)
B. AWS Managed Services (AMS)
C. AWS Well-Architected Framework
D. AWS Migration Hub

A

A

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51
Q

What is a benefit of using AWS serverless computing?

A. Application deployment and management are not required.
B. Application security will be fully managed by AWS.
C. Monitoring and logging are not needed.
D. Management of infrastructure is offloaded to AWS.

A

D

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52
Q

Which task can a company perform by using security groups in the AWS Cloud?

A. Allow access to an Amazon EC2 instance through only a specific port.
B. Deny access to malicious IP addresses at a subnet level.
C. Protect data that is cached by Amazon CloudFront.
D. Apply a stateless firewall to an Amazon EC2 instance.

A

A

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53
Q

A company needs to run a pre-installed third-party firewall on an Amazon EC2 instance.

Which AWS service or feature can provide this solution?

A. Network ACLs
B. Security groups
C. AWS Marketplace
D. AWS Trusted Advisor

A

C

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54
Q

An ecommerce company wants to use Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling to add and remove EC2 instances based on CPU utilization.

Which AWS service or feature can initiate an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling action to achieve this goal?

A. Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)
B. Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
C. AWS Systems Manager
D. Amazon CloudWatch alarm

A

D

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55
Q

A company is migrating to the AWS Cloud. The company wants to understand and identify potential security misconfigurations or unexpected behaviors. The company wants to prioritize any protective controls it might need.

Which AWS Cloud Adoption Framework (AWS CAF) security perspective capability will meet these requirements?

A. Identity and access management
B. Threat detection
C. Platform engineering
D. Availability and continuity management

A

B

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56
Q

Which AWS services are supported by Savings Plans? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon EC2
B. Amazon RDS
C. Amazon SageMaker
D. Amazon Redshift
E. Amazon DynamoDB

A

A,C
Compute Savings - EC2, Fargate and Lambda
EC2 Savings - EC2
Sagemaker Savings - Sagemaker

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57
Q

Which AWS service or tool can provide rightsizing recommendations for Amazon EC2 resources at no additional cost?

A. AWS Well-Architected Tool
B. Amazon CloudWatch
C. AWS Cost Explorer
D. Amazon S3 analytics

A

C

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58
Q

A company wants a web application to interact with various AWS services.

Which AWS service or resource will meet this requirement?

A. AWS CloudShell
B. AWS Marketplace
C. AWS Management Console
D. AWS CLI

A

C

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59
Q

Which task requires a user to sign in as the AWS account root user?

A. The deletion of IAM users
B. The deletion of an AWS account
C. The creation of an organization in AWS Organizations
D. The deletion of Amazon EC2 instances

A

B

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60
Q

When a user wants to utilize their existing per-socket, per-core, or per-virtual machine software licenses for a Microsoft Windows server running on AWS, which Amazon EC2 instance type is required?

A. Spot Instances
B. Dedicated Instances
C. Dedicated Hosts
D. Reserved Instances

A

C

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61
Q

A company wants to integrate natural language processing (NLP) into business intelligence (BI) dashboards. The company wants to ask questions and receive answers with relevant visualizations.

Which AWS service or tool will meet these requirements?

A. Amazon Macie
B. Amazon Rekognition
C. Amazon QuickSight Q
D. Amazon Lex

A

C. Amazon QuickSight Q uses natural language processing to answer your business questions quickly

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62
Q

Which Amazon S3 feature or storage class uses the AWS backbone network and edge locations to reduce latencies from the end user to Amazon S3?

A. S3 Cross-Region Replication
B. S3 Transfer Acceleration
C. S3 Event Notifications
D. S3 Standard-Infrequent Access (S3 Standard-IA)

A

B

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63
Q

When running applications in the AWS Cloud, which common tasks can AWS manage on behalf of their customers? (Select TWO.)

A. Patching database software
B. Taking a backup of a database
C. Application source code auditing
D. Creating a database schema
E. Application security testing

A

A, B

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64
Q

Which of the following AWS services are compute services? (Select TWO.)

A. AWS CloudTrail
B. AWS Batch
C. Amazon EFS
D. Amazon Inspector
E. AWS Elastic Beanstalk

A

A,E

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65
Q

Which AWS service provides a managed software version control system?

A. Amazon CodeDeploy
B. AWS CodePipeline
C. AWS CodeCommit
D. AWS DataSync

A

C

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66
Q

An individual IAM user must be granted access to an Amazon S3 bucket using a bucket policy. Which element in the S3 bucket policy should be updated to define the user account for which access will be granted?

A. Action
B. Condition
C. Resource
D. Principal

A

D.
Effect : Allow/Deny
Principal : User
Action : API
Resource : ARN of resources

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67
Q

A company is building a serverless workflow that coordinates multiple AWS services into a reliable application. They want a visual workflow that can track the status of each step in the application.

Which AWS service would facilitate creating this kind of workflow?

A. SNS
B. Lambda
C. Step Functions
D. SQS

A

C. AWS Step Functions provides workflow orchestration.

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68
Q

A company runs a batch job on an Amazon EC2 instance and it takes 6 hours to complete. The workload is expected to double in volume each month with a proportional increase in processing time.

What is the most efficient cloud architecture to address the growing workload?

A. Run the batch job on a larger Amazon EC2 instance type with more CPU
B. Change the Amazon EC2 volume type to a Provisioned IOPS SSD volume
C. Run the batch workload in parallel across multiple Amazon EC2 instances
D. Run the application on a bare metal Amazon EC2 instance

A

C.

INCORRECT: “Change the Amazon EC2 volume type to a Provisioned IOPS SSD volume” is incorrect. This will improve the underlying performance of the EBS volume but does not assist with processing (more CPU is needed, i.e. by spreading across instances).

INCORRECT: “Run the application on a bare metal Amazon EC2 instance” is incorrect. Bare metal instances are used for workloads that require access to the hardware feature set (such as Intel VT-x), for applications that need to run in non-virtualized environments for licensing or support requirements, or for customers who wish to use their own hypervisor.

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69
Q

A media company wants to find and subscribe to third-party data sources to enrich their existing datasets with new insights.

Which AWS service would be the best fit for this requirement?

A. AWS Glue
B. AWS Data Pipeline
C. AWS Redshift
D. AWS Data Exchange

A

D. AWS Data Exchange is the correct answer because this service allows customers to find, subscribe to, and use third-party data in the cloud. Companies can subscribe to a diverse selection of data products provided by various data providers. The media company in this scenario can enrich their existing datasets through AWS Data Exchange by easily finding and subscribing to third-party data sources.

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70
Q

A company must provide access to AWS resources for their employees. Which security practices should they follow? (Select TWO.)

A. Create IAM policies based on least privilege principles
B. Disable password policies and management console access
C. Enable multi-factor authentication for users
D. Create IAM users in different AWS Regions
E. Create IAM Roles and apply them to IAM groups

A

A,C

INCORRECT: “Create IAM Roles and apply them to IAM groups” is incorrect. You cannot apply roles to groups, you apply policies to groups.

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71
Q

A company is deploying a new workload and software licensing requirements dictate that the workload must be run on a specific, physical server.

Which Amazon EC2 instance deployment option should be used?

A. Dedicated Instances
B. Dedicated Hosts
C. Spot Instances
D. Reserved Instances

A

B

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72
Q

An Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) can include multiple:

A. AWS Regions
B. Edge locations
C. Availability Zones
D. Internet gateways

A

C.
INCORRECT: “Internet gateways” is incorrect. You can only attach one Internet gateway to each VPC.

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73
Q

What is the best practice for managing AWS IAM access keys?

A. There is no need to manage access keys
B. Customers should rotate access keys regularly
C. AWS rotate access keys on a schedule
D. Never use access keys, always use IAM roles

A

B.
INCORRECT: “AWS rotate access keys on a schedule” is incorrect. AWS do not rotate your access keys.

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74
Q

Which of the following are valid best practices for using the AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) service? (Select TWO.)

A. Embed access keys in application code
B. Use inline policies instead of customer managed policies
C. Grant maximum privileges to IAM users
D. Create individual IAM users
E. Use groups to assign permissions to IAM users

A

D,E

INCORRECT: “Embed access keys in application code” is incorrect. This is not a best practice; you should always try and avoid embedding any secret credentials and access keys in application code. Instead, it is preferable to use IAM roles to delegate permission to applications.

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75
Q

A Cloud Practitioner requires a simple method to identify if unrestricted access to resources has been allowed by security groups. Which service can the Cloud Practitioner use?

A. Amazon CloudWatch
B. AWS Trusted Advisor
C. VPC Flow Logs
D. AWS CloudTrail

A

B

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76
Q

A new e-commerce company is looking for an AWS service to send transactional emails, such as order confirmations and password resets, to their customers.

Which AWS service would be most appropriate for this task?

A. SES (simple email service)
B. SNS
C. SQS
D. EC2

A

A. Amazon SES is specifically designed to help users send transactional emails, marketing messages, and other types of content to their customers.

INCORRECT: “Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)” is incorrect. While Amazon SNS can send notifications via email, it is primarily designed to send messages to a distributed set of recipients and is not optimized for transactional emails.

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77
Q

What can be used to allow an application running on an Amazon EC2 instance to securely store data in an Amazon S3 bucket without using long-term credentials?

A. AWS iAM Role
B. AWS iAM Access keys
C. Amazon Connect
D. AWS Systems Manager

A

A.
An IAM role is an IAM identity that you can create in your account that has specific permissions. An IAM role is similar to an IAM user, in that it is an AWS identity with permission policies that determine what the identity can and cannot do in AWS. However, instead of being uniquely associated with one person, a role is intended to be assumable by anyone who needs it.

Also, a role does not have standard long-term credentials such as a password or access keys associated with it. Instead, when you assume a role, it provides you with temporary security credentials for your role session.

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78
Q

Which AWS dashboard displays relevant and timely information to help users manage events in progress, and provides proactive notifications to help plan for scheduled activities?

A. AWS Personal Health Dashboard
B. AWS Service Health Dashboard
C. AWS Trusted Advisor dashboard
D. Amazon CloudWatch dashboard

A

A

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79
Q

Which of the following is an advantage for a company running workloads in the AWS Cloud vs on-premises? (Select TWO.)

A. Higher acquisition costs to support elastic workloads
B. Lower overall utilization of server and storage systems
C. Increased productivity for application development teams
D. Increased time to market for new application features
E. Less staff time is required to launch new workloads

A

C,E

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80
Q

A corporation with multiple departments each having their own AWS accounts wants to implement a solution to customize billing data to match their specific showback or chargeback business logic. They wish to group accounts with similar financial owners and generate a distinct Cost and Usage Report (CUR) for each group.

Which AWS service should they use to meet these requirements?

A. AWS Cost Explorer
B. AWS Billing and Cost Management
C. AWS Budgets
D. AWS Billing Conductor

A

D.
INCORRECT: “AWS Billing and Cost Management” is incorrect. This answer is incorrect because, while it is a tool to track your AWS usage and expenditures, it doesn’t offer the specialized functionalities for creating billing groups and defining custom billing parameters as provided by AWS Billing Conductor.

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81
Q

Which AWS services facilitate building secure and scalable mobile and web applications, offering features such as real-time updates and offline functionalities? (Select TWO.)

A. AWS Amplify
B. AWS Lambda
C. AWS Appsync
D. Amazon API Gateway
E. AWS CodeDeploy

A

A, C

AWS AppSync and AWS Amplify are the correct answers as both services facilitate the building of secure and scalable mobile and web applications. AWS AppSync enables the creation of flexible APIs, including options for real-time updates and offline functionalities. AWS Amplify is a set of tools and services that can be used to build scalable full-stack apps powered by AWS, also supporting real-time functionalities and offline operations

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82
Q

What is a benefit of moving an on-premises database to Amazon Relational Database Service (RDS)?

A. You can scale vertically without downtime
B. There is no database administration required
C. There is no need to manage operating systems
D. You can run any database engine

A

C.

INCORRECT: “You can scale vertically without downtime” is incorrect. You cannot scale vertically without downtime. When scaling with RDS you must change the instance type, and this requires a short period of downtime while the instances’ operating system reboots.

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83
Q

Which IAM entity can be used for assigning permissions to AWS services?

A. IAM Access key ID and secret key
B. STS
C. IAM Policy
D. IAM Role

A

D.

INCORRECT: “IAM Policy” is incorrect. An IAM policy is a policy document that is used to define permissions that can be applied to users, groups and roles. You don’t apply the policy to the service, you apply it to the role. The role is then used to assign permissions to the AWS service.

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84
Q

Under the AWS shared responsibility model, which actions are the responsibility of AWS? (Select TWO.)

A. Scanning AWS service endpoints for vulnerabilities
B. Enabling encryption on an Amazon S3 bucket
C. Configuring security group rules
D. Encrypting traffic on the AWS backbone between global and regional AWS facilities
E. Enforcing application access restrictions

A

A,D

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85
Q

A company requires a single service which can manage their backup and restore requirements, their data lakes, and archives all in one place.

Which AWS service is suitable for all these use cases?

A. S3
B. EBS
C. EFS
D. FSx for Lustre

A

A.

Amazon S3 is the only service out of the answers which can be used for backup and restore, data lakes and archival solutions. Because S3 is an object storage service, there are lots of different use cases.

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86
Q

Which IAM entity is associated with an access key ID and secret access key?

A. IAM Group
B. IAM User
C. IAM Policy
D. IAM Role

A

B.
An access key ID and secret access key are used to sign programmatic requests to AWS. They are associated with an IAM user.

You cannot associate an access key ID and secret access key with an IAM Group, Role or Policy.

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87
Q

A company currently uses a Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) based application to log in to third-party business applications and would like to have this hosted in AWS using managed services.

Which AWS service will meet this requirement?

A. AWS CLI
B. AWS SSO
C. AWS IAM
D. Amazon Cognito

A

D.

INCORRECT: “AWS Single Sign-On” is incorrect. AWS Single Sign-On (AWS SSO) is where you create, or connect, your workforce identities in AWS once and manage access centrally across your AWS organization and doesn’t use SAML.

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88
Q

Which AWS tools can be used for automation? (Select TWO.)

A. EFS
B. CloudFormation
C. Lambda
D. Elastic Bean Stalk
E. Elastic Load Balancing

A

B, D

INCORRECT: “AWS Lambda” is incorrect. AWS Lambda is a compute service, not an automation service.

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89
Q

Which AWS service supports an in-memory data structure store, compatible with Redis, that delivers sub-millisecond latency for use cases such as caching, session stores, and real-time analytics?

A. Redshift
B. RDS
C. Amazon MemoryDB
D. DynamoDB

A

C.

Amazon MemoryDB for Redis is the correct answer because it is a Redis-compatible, in-memory database service built on Redis architecture, which offers sub-millisecond latency, fulfilling the requirements mentioned in the question.

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90
Q

Which AWS service or feature can be used to restrict the individual API actions that users and roles in each member account can access?

A. Amazon Macie
B. AWS Shield
C. AWS Organization
D. AWS IAM

A

C.

AWS Organizations offers Service control policies (SCPs) which are a type of organization policy that you can use to manage permissions in your organization. SCPs offer central control over the maximum available permissions (API actions) for all accounts in your organization. SCPs help you to ensure your accounts stay within your organization’s access control guidelines. SCPs are available only in an organization that has all features enabled.

INCORRECT: “AWS IAM” is incorrect. AWS IAM is used for assigning permissions but SCPs in AWS Organizations are used to control which API actions are allowed in an account. You need to be granted permission in IAM and have the API allowed to be able to use the API successfully.

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91
Q

How can a user block a suspicious IP address from connecting to an Amazon EC2 instance?

A. Block the IP on the outbound rule of a security group
B. Block the IP on the inbound rule of a security group and network ACL
C. Block the IP on the outbound rule of a security group and network ACL
D. Block the IP on the inbound rule of a network ACL

A

D.

There is only Allow Rule in Security Groups

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92
Q

A company needs to optimize costs and resource usage through monitoring of operational health for all resources running on AWS.

Which AWS service will meet these requirements?

A. Amazon CloudWatch
B. AWS Control Tower
C. AWS CloudTrail
D. AWS Config

A

A.

INCORRECT: “AWS Control Tower” is incorrect. AWS Control Tower is a service that is intended for organizations with multiple accounts and teams who are looking for the easiest way to set up their new multi-account AWS environment and govern at scale

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93
Q

A company has a mission critical Linux-based application. The application must run every Monday from 6 AM until 10pm. As the application is critical, it cannot be interrupted.

Which Amazon EC2 instance purchasing option meets these requirements MOST cost-effectively?

A. Spot Instances
B. Regional Reserved Instances
C. Dedicated Hosts
D. On-Demand Capacity Reservation with Savings Plan

A

D.

INCORRECT: “Regional Reserved Instances” is incorrect because it does not give you the guaranteed capacity availability that On Demand Capacity reservations have, therefore it is wrong.

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94
Q

Which Amazon EC2 pricing model is the most cost-effective for an always-up, right-sized database server running a project that will last 1 year?

A. Convertible Reserved Instances
B. On-Demand Instances
C. Spot Instances
D. Standard Reserved Instances

A

D.

INCORRECT: “Convertible Reserved Instances” is incorrect. You have the flexibility to change families, OS types, and tenancies while benefitting from RI pricing when you use Convertible RIs. However, this is not required for a right-sized server.

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95
Q

A company has been using an AWS managed IAM policy for granting permissions to users but needs to add some permissions.

How can this be achieved?

A. Edit the AWS managed policy
B. Create a custom IAM policy
C. Create a Service Control Policy
D. Create a rule in AWS WAF

A

B.

INCORRECT: “Edit the AWS managed policy” is incorrect. You cannot edit AWS managed policies.

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96
Q

An IT company has deployed its infrastructure on the AWS cloud. There must be a database that supports reads with a latency of under a millisecond for critical applications.

Which AWS service will meet this requirement?

A. AWS Glue
B. AWS RDS
C. AWS EMR
D. Amazon ElastiCache

A

D.

Amazon ElastiCache s is a blazing fast in-memory data store that provides sub-millisecond latency to power internet-scale real-time applications. Built on open-source Redis or Memcached, ElastiCache works seamlessly with Redis or Memcached without any code changes.

INCORRECT: Amazon RDS”” is incorrect. Whilst RDS is a database solution, it cannot handle single millisecond queries.

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97
Q

Which AWS service helps you deploy application configuration changes with features like validation checks and timely deployment while avoiding the need to write additional code or restart application services?

A. AWS CodeStar
B. AWS CodeCommit
C. AWS CloudFormation
D. AWS AppConfig

A

D.
AWS AppConfig is the correct answer because it allows users to deploy application configuration changes quickly and reliably without needing to write additional code or restart services. It supports validation checks to ensure configuration data is syntactically and semantically correct before deployment, avoiding potential outages.

INCORRECT: “AWS CloudFormation” is incorrect because, even though it allows you to use programming languages or a simple text file to model and provision, in an automated and secure manner, all the resources needed for your applications, it doesn’t specialize in deploying application configurations with validation checks as described in the scenario.

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98
Q

Which of the following AWS services support VPC Endpoint Gateway for a private connection from a VPC? (Select two)

A. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2)
B. Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS)
C. Amazon Simple Notification Service (SNS)
D. Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)
E. Amazon DynamoDB

A

D, E

A VPC endpoint enables you to privately connect your VPC to supported AWS services and VPC endpoint services powered by AWS PrivateLink without requiring an internet gateway, NAT device, VPN connection, or AWS Direct Connect connection. Instances in your VPC do not require public IP addresses to communicate with resources in the service. Traffic between your VPC and the other service does not leave the Amazon network.

There are two types of VPC endpoints: interface endpoints and gateway endpoints.

With a gateway endpoint, you can access Amazon S3 or DynamoDB from your VPC

However, gateway endpoints do not allow access from on-premises networks, from peered VPCs in other AWS Regions, or through a transit gateway. For those scenarios, you must use an interface endpoint, which is available for an additional cost

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99
Q

Which AWS services can be used to decouple components of a microservices based application on AWS Cloud? (Select two)

A. Amazon EC2
B. AWS Lambda
C. AWS Step Functions
D. SNS
E. SQS

A

D, E

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100
Q

AWS Web Application Firewall (WAF) offers protection from common web exploits at which layer?

A. Layer 3
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 7
A. Layer 4 and 7

A

C

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101
Q

Which AWS Support plan provides architectural guidance contextual to your specific use-cases?

A. Business
B. Developer
C. Enterprise-On Ramp
D. Enterprise

A

A

For enterprise - This plan supports architectural guidance contextual to your application.

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102
Q

A Project Manager, working on AWS for the first time, is confused about how credits are used in AWS. There are two credits available in the manager’s account. Credit one is for $100, expires July 2022, and can be used for either Amazon S3 or Amazon EC2. Credit two is for $50, expires December 2022, and can be used only for Amazon EC2. The manager’s AWS account has incurred two charges: $1000 for Amazon EC2 and $500 for Amazon S3.

What will be the outcome on the overall bill once the credits are used? (Select two)

A. Credit one is applied, which expires in July, to the Amazon EC2 charge which leaves you with a $900 Amazon EC2 charge and a $500 Amazon S3 charge

B. Credit one is applied, which expires in July, to Amazon S3 usage which leaves you with a $1000 Amazon EC2 charge and a $400 Amazon S3 charge

C. Then, credit two is applied to the remaining $900 of Amazon EC2 usage

D. Only one credit can be used in one billing cycle and the customer has a choice to choose from the available ones

E. Then, credit two is applied to $500 for Amazon S3 usage

A

A, C

Credits are applied in the following order:

Soonest expiring
Least number of applicable products
Oldest credit

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103
Q

A research group wants to use EC2 instances to run a scientific computation application that has a fault tolerant architecture. The application needs high-performance hardware disks that provide fast I/O performance. As a Cloud Practitioner, which of the following storage options would you recommend as the MOST cost-effective solution?

A. Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)
B. Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)
C. S3
D. Instance Store

A

D

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104
Q

Which AWS services can be used to facilitate organizational change management, part of the Reliability pillar of AWS Well-Architected Framework? (Select three)

A. AWS Config
B. Trusted Advisor
C. AWS CloudTrail
D. Amazon Inspector
E. AWS CloudWatch
F. Amazon GuardDuty

A

A,C,E

There are three best practice areas for Reliability in the cloud - Foundations, Change Management, Failure Management. Being aware of how change affects a system (change management) allows you to plan proactively, and monitoring allows you to quickly identify trends that could lead to capacity issues or SLA breaches.

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105
Q

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding removing an AWS account from AWS Organizations?

A. The AWS account must not have any Service Control Policies (SCPs) attached to it. Only then it can be removed from AWS organizations

B. The AWS account must be able to operate as a standalone account. Only then it can be removed from AWS organizations

C. Raise a support ticket with AWS Support to remove the account

D. The AWS account can be removed from AWS Systems Manager

A

B

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106
Q

Which option is a common stakeholder role for the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework (AWS CAF) platform perspective? (Select two)

A. CTO
B. CIO
C. CPO
D. Engineer
E. CDO

A

A,D

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107
Q

According to the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework (AWS CAF), what are two tasks that a company should perform when planning to migrate to the AWS Cloud and aiming to become more responsive to customer inquiries and feedback as part of their organizational transformation? (Select two)

A. Organize your teams around products and value streams
B. Leverage legacy infrastructure for cost efficiencies
C. Create new analytical insights with existing products and services
D. Leverage agile methods to rapidly iterate and evolve
E. Organize your teams around bureaucratic design principles

A

B,D

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108
Q

The DevOps team at an IT company is moving 500 GB of data from an EC2 instance to an S3 bucket in the same region. Which of the following scenario captures the correct charges for this data transfer?

A. The company would only be charged for the outbound data transfer from EC2 instance
B. The company would not be charged for this data transfer
C. The company would only be charged for the inbound data transfer into the S3 bucket
D. The company would be charged for both the outbound data transfer from EC2 instance as well as the inbound data transfer into the S3 bucket

A

B

In most cases, there is no charge for inbound data transfer or data transfer between other AWS services within the same region

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109
Q

A startup wants to migrate its data and applications from the on-premises data center to AWS Cloud. Which of the following options can be used by the startup to help with this migration? (Select two)

A. Raise a support ticket with AWS Support for further assistance
B. Leverage AWS Professional Services to accelerate the infrastructure migration
C. Utilize AWS Partner Network (APN) to build a custom solution for this infrastructure migration
D. Consult moderators on AWS Developer Forums
E. Use AWS Trusted Advisor to automate the infrastructure migration

A

B,C

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110
Q

A company is looking for a guided path to help deploy, configure, and secure its new workloads while ensuring that it is ready for on-going operations in the cloud. Which of the following AWS services/tools can be leveraged for this use case?

A. AWS Trusted Advisor
B. AWS Config
C. Cloud Foundations
D. AWS Shared Responsibility Model

A

C.

Cloud Foundations provides a guided path to help customers deploy, configure, and secure their new workloads while ensuring they are ready for on-going operations in the cloud

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111
Q

A customer is running a comparative study of pricing models of Amazon EFS and Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) that are used with the Amazon EC2 instances that host the application. Which of the following statements are correct regarding this use-case? (Select two)

A. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) data transfer charges will apply for all Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) direct APIs for Snapshots

B. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) Snapshot storage pricing is based on the amount of space your data consumes in Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)

C. You will pay a fee each time you read from or write data stored on the Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) - Infrequent Access storage class

D. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) Snapshots are stored incrementally, which means you are billed only for the changed blocks stored

E. With AWS Backup, you pay only for the amount of Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) backup storage you use in a month, you need not pay for restoring this data

A

C,D

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112
Q

A company is looking for a guided path to help deploy, configure, and secure its new workloads while ensuring that it is ready for on-going operations in the cloud. Which of the following AWS services/tools can be leveraged for this use case?

A. AWS Shared Responsibility Model
B. AWS Config
C. AWS Trusted Advisor
D. Cloud Foundations

A

D.

Cloud Foundations provides a guided path to help customers deploy, configure, and secure their new workloads while ensuring they are ready for on-going operations in the cloud. Cloud Foundations helps customers navigate through the decisions they need to make through curated AWS Services, AWS Solutions, Partner Solutions, and Guidance.

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113
Q

A customer is running a comparative study of pricing models of Amazon EFS and Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) that are used with the Amazon EC2 instances that host the application. Which of the following statements are correct regarding this use-case? (Select two)

A. With AWS Backup, you pay only for the amount of Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) backup storage you use in a month, you need not pay for restoring this data

B. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) Snapshot storage pricing is based on the amount of space your data consumes in Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)

C. You will pay a fee each time you read from or write data stored on the Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) - Infrequent Access storage class

D. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) Snapshots are stored incrementally, which means you are billed only for the changed blocks stored

E. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) data transfer charges will apply for all Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) direct APIs for Snapshots

A

C,D

INCORRECT : Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) data transfer charges will apply for all Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) direct APIs for Snapshots - When using Amazon EBS direct APIs for Snapshots, additional Amazon EC2 data transfer charges will apply only when you use external or cross-region data transfers.

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114
Q

An IT company would like to move its IT resources (including any data and applications) from an AWS Region in the US to another AWS Region in Europe. Which of the following represents the correct solution for this use-case?

A. The company should use AWS CloudFormation to move the resources (including any data and applications) from source AWS Region to destination AWS Region

B. The company should just start creating new resources in the destination AWS Region and then migrate the relevant data and applications into this new AWS Region

C. The company should use AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) to move the resources (including any data and applications) from source AWS Region to destination AWS Region

D. The company should raise a ticket with AWS Support for this resource migration

A

B.

The company needs to create resources in the new AWS Region and then move the relevant data and applications into the new AWS Region. There is no off-the-shelf solution or service that the company can use to facilitate this transition.

Incorrect option:
The company should use AWS CloudFormation to move the resources (including any data and applications) from source AWS Region to destination AWS Region - AWS CloudFormation allows you to use programming languages or a simple text file to model and provision, in an automated and secure manner, all the resources needed for your applications across all regions and accounts. AWS CloudFormation cannot help with moving data and applications into another Region.

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115
Q

Which budget types can be created under AWS Budgets (Select three)?

A. Software Budget
B. Hardware Budget
C. Resource Budget
D. Reservation Budget
E. Cost Budget
F. Usage Budget

A

D,E,F

AWS Budgets - Cost budget, Usage budget, Reservation budget and Savings Plans budget

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116
Q

Which of the following statements are true about Cost Allocation Tags in AWS Billing? (Select two)

A. Tags help in organizing resources and are a mandatory configuration item to run reports

B. For each resource, each tag key must be unique, but can have multiple values

C. For each resource, each tag key must be unique, and each tag key can have only one value

D. You must activate both AWS generated tags and user-defined tags separately before they can appear in Cost Explorer or on a cost allocation report

E. Only user-defined tags need to be activated before they can appear in Cost Explorer or on a cost allocation report

A

C,D

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117
Q

AWS Identity and Access Management (AWS IAM) policies are written as JSON documents. Which of the following are mandatory elements of an IAM policy?

A. Sid, Principal

B. Action, Condition

C. Effect, Sid

D. Effect, Action

A

D.

Sid (Optional) – Include an optional statement ID to differentiate between your statements.

Effect – Use Allow or Deny to indicate whether the policy allows or denies access.

Principal (Required in only some circumstances) – If you create a resource-based policy, you must indicate the account, user, role, or federated user to which you would like to allow or deny access. If you are creating an IAM permissions policy to attach to a user or role, you cannot include this element. The principal is implied as that user or role.

Action – Include a list of actions that the policy allows or denies.

Resource (Required in only some circumstances) – If you create an IAM permissions policy, you must specify a list of resources to which the actions apply. If you create a resource-based policy, this element is optional. If you do not include this element, then the resource to which the action applies is the resource to which the policy is attached.

Condition (Optional) – Specify the circumstances under which the policy grants permission.

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118
Q

Which of the following AWS services have data encryption automatically enabled? (Select two)?

A. AWS EBS
B. Amazon Redshift
C. Amazon S3
D. AWS EFS
E. AWS Storage Gateway

A

C,E

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119
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) storage service?

A. EC2 instances can access files on an Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) file system only in one Availability Zone (AZ)

B. EC2 instances can access files on an Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) file system across many Availability Zones (AZ) but not across VPCs and Regions

C. EC2 instances can access files on an Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) file system across many Availability Zones (AZ) and VPCs but not across Regions

D. EC2 instances can access files on an Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) file system across many Availability Zones (AZ), Regions and VPCs

A

D.

Amazon EFS is a regional service storing data within and across multiple Availability Zones (AZs) for high availability and durability. Amazon EC2 instances can access your file system across AZs, regions, and VPCs, while on-premises servers can access using AWS Direct Connect or AWS VPN.

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120
Q

Amazon CloudWatch billing metric data is stored in which AWS Region?

A. In the AWS Region where the AWS account is created

B. In the AWS Region where the AWS resource is provisioned

C. US West (N. California) - us-west-1

D. US East (N. Virginia) - us-east-1

A

D.

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121
Q

Which AWS services support High Availability by default? (Select two)

A. Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)
B. Amazon DynamoDB
C. Amazon Redshift
D. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)
E. Instance Store

A

A,B

DynamoDB - It’s a fully managed, multi-Region, multi-master, durable database with built-in security, backup and restore, and in-memory caching for internet-scale application

EFS - It is a regional service storing data within and across multiple Availability Zones (AZ) for high availability and durability. It is built to scale on-demand to petabytes without disrupting applications, growing and shrinking automatically as you add and remove files, eliminating the need to provision and manage capacity to accommodate growth

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122
Q

A research lab wants to optimize the caching capabilities for its scientific computations application running on Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances. Which Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) storage option is best suited for this use-case?

A. S3
B. EFS
C. EBS
D. Instance Store

A

D.

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123
Q

An IT company has a hybrid cloud architecture and it wants to centralize the server logs for its Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances and on-premises servers. Which of the following is the MOST effective for this use-case?

A. Use Amazon CloudWatch Logs for both the Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance and the on-premises servers

B. Use AWS Lambda to send log data from Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance as well as on-premises servers to Amazon CloudWatch Logs

C. Use Amazon CloudWatch Logs for the Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance and AWS CloudTrail for the on-premises servers

D. Use AWS CloudTrail for the Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance and Amazon CloudWatch Logs for the on-premises servers

A

A.

You can use Amazon CloudWatch Logs to monitor, store, and access your log files from Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances, AWS CloudTrail, Route 53, and other sources such as on-premises servers.

Amazon CloudWatch Logs enables you to centralize the logs from all of your systems, applications, and AWS services that you use, in a single, highly scalable service. You can then easily view them, search them for specific error codes or patterns, filter them based on specific fields, or archive them securely for future analysis.

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124
Q

Which of the following are benefits of the AWS Web Application Firewall (AWS WAF)? (Select two)

A. AWS Web Application Firewall (AWS WAF) offers protection against all known infrastructure (Layer 3 and 4) attacks

B. AWS Web Application Firewall (AWS WAF) offers dedicated support from the DDoS Response Team (DRT) and advanced reporting

C. AWS Web Application Firewall (AWS WAF) can check for the presence of SQL code that is likely to be malicious (known as SQL injection)

D. AWS Web Application Firewall (AWS WAF) can block all requests except the ones that you allow

E. AWS Web Application Firewall (AWS WAF) lets you monitor the HTTP and HTTPS requests that are forwarded to Amazon Route 53

A

C,D

INCORRECT : AWS Web Application Firewall (AWS WAF) lets you monitor the HTTP and HTTPS requests that are forwarded to Amazon Route 53 - AWS Web Application Firewall (AWS WAF) is a web application firewall that lets you monitor the HTTP and HTTPS requests that are forwarded to an Amazon API Gateway API, Amazon CloudFront or an Application Load Balancer. It does not cover Amazon Route 53, which is a Domain Name System (DNS) web service.

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125
Q

Which of the following AWS storage services can be directly used with on-premises systems?

A. EFS
B. EC2 Instance Store
C. EBS
D. S3

A

A

Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) provides a simple, scalable, fully managed elastic NFS file system for use with AWS Cloud services and on-premises resources.

To access EFS file systems from on-premises, you must have an AWS Direct Connect or AWS VPN connection between your on-premises datacenter and your Amazon VPC. You mount an EFS file system on your on-premises Linux server using the standard Linux mount command for mounting a file system

126
Q

Which of the following can you use to run a bootstrap script while launching an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance?

A. Amazon EC2 instance user data
B. Amazon EC2 instance metadata
C. Amazon EC2 instance configuration data
D. Amazon EC2 instance AMI data

A

A.

127
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) service?

A. You can use read replicas for improved read performance only and multi-AZ deployment for disaster recovery only

B. You can use read replicas for disaster recovery only and multi-AZ deployment for improved read performance only

C. You can use both read replicas and multi-AZ deployment having single standby for improved read performance

D. You can use both read replicas and multi-AZ deployment for disaster recovery

A

D.

INCORRECT : You can use both read replicas and multi-AZ deployment having single standby for improved read performance - Amazon RDS Multi-AZ with single standby can only be used to enhance durability and availability. It cannot be used to improve the read performance.
Amazon RDS Multi-AZ with two readable standbys maximizes read-performance and scalability.

128
Q

A multi-national organization has a separate virtual private cloud (VPC) for each of its business units on the AWS Cloud. The organization also wants to connect its on-premises data center with the different virtual private clouds (VPC) for better organization-wide collaboration. Which AWS services can be combined to build the MOST efficient solution for this use-case? (Select two)

A. VPC peering connection
B. Internet Gateway
C. AWS Storage Gateway
D. AWS Transit Gateway
E. AWS Direct Connect

A

D,E

129
Q

Which AWS services can be used together to send alerts whenever the AWS account root user signs in? (Select two)

A. AWS CloudWatch
B. AWS Lambda
C. AWS SNS
D. Step Functions
E. SQS

A

A,D

130
Q

Bob and Susan each have an AWS account in AWS Organizations. Susan has five Reserved Instances (RIs) of the same type and Bob has none. During one particular hour, Susan uses three instances and Bob uses six for a total of nine instances on the organization’s consolidated bill.

Which of the following statements are correct about consolidated billing in AWS Organizations? (Select two)

A. AWS bills five instances as Reserved Instances, and the remaining four instances as regular instances

B. AWS bills three instances as Reserved Instances (RI), and the remaining six instances as regular instances

C. Bob does not receive any cost-benefit since he hasn’t purchased any Reserved Instance (RI). If his account has even one RI, then the cost-benefit from Susan’s account is also added to his account

D. Bob receives the cost-benefit from Susan’s Reserved Instance (RI) only if he launches his instances in the same AWS Region where Susan purchased her Reserved Instances (RI)

E. Bob receives the cost-benefit from Susan’s Reserved Instances (RI) only if he launches his instances in the same Availability Zone (AZ) where Susan purchased her Reserved Instances

A

A,E

131
Q

Which pillar of AWS Well-Architected Framework is responsible for making sure that you select the right resource types and sizes based on your workload requirements?

A. Cost Optimization
B. Reliability
C. Performance Efficiency
D. Operational Excellence

A

C

132
Q

Which of the following statements are CORRECT regarding AWS Global Accelerator? (Select two)

A. AWS Global Accelerator uses the AWS global network and its edge locations. But the edge locations used by Global Accelerator are different from Amazon CloudFront edge locations

B. AWS Global Accelerator cannot be configured with an Elastic Load Balancer (ELB)

C. AWS Global Accelerator can be used to host static websites

D. AWS Global Accelerator is a good fit for non-HTTP use cases

E. AWS Global Accelerator provides static IP addresses that act as a fixed entry point to your applications

A

D,E

AWS Global Accelerator is a good fit for non-HTTP use cases, such as gaming (UDP), IoT (MQTT), or Voice over IP, as well as for HTTP use cases that specifically require static IP addresses or deterministic, fast regional failover.

It provides static IP addresses that provide a fixed entry point to your applications and eliminate the complexity of managing specific IP addresses for different AWS Regions and Availability Zones (AZs).

133
Q

Which of the following AWS Support plans is the MOST cost-effective when getting enhanced technical support by Cloud Support Engineers?

A. AWS Business Support
B. AWS Developer Support
C. AWS Basic Support
D. AWS Enterprise Support

A

A.

INCORRECT:AWS Developer Support - AWS recommends AWS Developer Support if you are testing or doing early development on AWS and want the ability to get technical support during business hours as well as general architectural guidance as you build and test. It provides enhanced technical support by Cloud Support Associates.

134
Q

Which of the following services are provided by Amazon Route 53? (Select Two)

A. Health checks and monitoring
B. IP routing
C. Load balancing
D. Transfer acceleration
E. Domain registration

A

A,E

INCORRECT: IP routing - Despite its name, Amazon Route 53 does not offer IP routing. However, it can route traffic based on multiple criteria, such as endpoint health, geographic location, and latency, using routing policies.

135
Q

An organization would like to copy data across different Availability Zones (AZs) using Amazon EBS snapshots. Where are Amazon EBS snapshots stored in the AWS Cloud?

A. S3
B. EBS
C. EC2
D. RDS

A

A

136
Q

A company needs to use a secure online data transfer tool/service that can automate the ongoing transfers from on-premises systems into AWS while providing support for incremental data backups.

Which AWS tool/service is an optimal fit for this requirement?

A. AWS DataSync
B. AWS Storage Gateway
C. AWS Snowcone
D. AWn Snowmobile

A

A.

INCORRECT:AWS Storage Gateway - AWS Storage Gateway is a set of hybrid cloud services that give you on-premises access to virtually unlimited cloud storage. Customers use AWS Storage Gateway to integrate AWS Cloud storage with existing on-site workloads so they can simplify storage management and reduce costs for key hybrid cloud storage use cases. These include moving backups to the cloud, using on-premises file shares backed by cloud storage, and providing low latency access to data in AWS for on-premises applications.

137
Q

AWS Compute Optimizer delivers recommendations for which of the following AWS resources? (Select two)

A. EC2, EFS

B. EFS, Lambda

C. AWS Lambda functions, S3

D. EC2, ASG

E. EBS, Lambda

A

D,E

AWS Compute Optimizer delivers recommendations for selected types of EC2 instances, EC2 Auto Scaling groups, Amazon EBS volumes, and AWS Lambda functions.

138
Q

A photo sharing web application wants to store thumbnails of user-uploaded images on Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3). The thumbnails are rarely used but need to be immediately accessible from the web application. The thumbnails can be regenerated easily if they are lost. Which is the most cost-effective way to store these thumbnails on Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)?

A. Use Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval to store the thumbnails
B. Use Amazon S3 Standard to store the thumbnails
C. Use Amazon S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3 One Zone-IA) to store the thumbnails
D. Use Amazon S3 Standard-Infrequent Access (S3 Standard-IA) to store the thumbnails

A

C

139
Q

An organization is planning to move its infrastructure from the on-premises datacenter to AWS Cloud. As a Cloud Practioner, which options would you recommend so that the organization can identify the right AWS services to build solutions on AWS Cloud (Select two)?

A. Amazon CloudWatch
B. AWS Organizations
C. AWS Partner Network (APN)
D. AWS Service Catalog
E. AWS CloudTrail

A

C,D

AWS Service Catalog allows organizations to create and manage catalogs of IT services that are approved for use on AWS. These IT services can include everything from virtual machine images, servers, software, and databases to complete multi-tier application architectures.

140
Q

In AWS IAM, what are the characteristics of users and groups? (Select TWO.)

A .Groups can contain users only and cannot be nested
B. Groups can be nested and can contain other groups
C. A user can be a member of multiple groups
D. A user can only be a member of a single group at one time
E. All new users are automatically added to a default group

A

A, C

141
Q

Remote employees need access to managed Windows virtual desktops and applications over secure networks.
Which AWS services can the company use to meet these requirements? (Select TWO.)

A. Amazon AppStream 2.0
B. AWS Site-to-Site VPN
C. Amazon Workspaces
D. Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)
E. Amazon Connect

A

B, C

Amazon Workspaces is a fully managed desktop virtualization service for Windows and Linux that enables you to access resources from any supported device.
To secure your network you would use the AWS Site-to-Site VPN. AWS Site-to-Site VPN allows you to encrypt traffic across your networks.

INCORRECT: “Amazon AppStream 2.0” is incorrect. Amazon AppStream is a non-persistent desktop and application service for remotely accessing your work. The non-persistent feature of this service would make the product unsuitable.

142
Q

Which AWS service guides you through the sizing, configuration, and deployment of applications on AWS, and supports applications like SQL Server always-on and SAP on AWS?

A. AWS CloudFormation
B. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
C. AWS Launch Wizard
D. AWS App Runner

A

C.

AWS Launch Wizard is the correct choice because it offers a guided way of sizing, configuring, and deploying AWS resources for third-party applications, such as SQL Server Always On and SAP, without needing to manually identify and provision individual AWS resources.

INCORRECT: “AWS Elastic Beanstalk” is incorrect because it is primarily an orchestration service for deploying infrastructure which involves a variety of AWS services. While it does handle deployment and provisioning of services, it doesn’t offer a guided approach specifically designed for third-party applications like SQL Server Always On and SAP.

143
Q

A company wants to push VPC flow logs to Amazon S3.

What action is the company responsible for under the Shared Responsibility Model?

A. Managing the infrastructure that runs the S3 bucket
B. Managing the data in transit
C. Managing the operating system updates on the S3 bucket
D. Managing the encryption options on the S3 bucket

A

D.

The company is responsible for enabling encryption on the bucket because the customer is responsible for the data within the bucket, and the way it is protected using things like Bucket Policies, permissions, and encryption.

144
Q

Which AWS service uses machine learning to analyze historical usage patterns and identify the optimal AWS resources for reducing costs and improving performance for your workloads?

A. AWS Compute Optimizer
B. AWS Budgets
C. AWS Cost Explorer
D. AWS Trusted Advisor

A

A

INCORRECT: “AWS Cost Explorer” is incorrect because, while it allows you to visualize, understand, and manage your AWS spending and usage over time, it does not offer resource optimization recommendations based on machine learning analyses of historical usage data.

145
Q

When performing a total cost of ownership (TCO) analysis between on-premises and the AWS Cloud, which factors are only relevant to on-premises deployments? (Select TWO.)

A. Hardware procurement teams
B. Facility operations costs
C. Operating system licensing
D. Database administration
E. Application licensing

A

A,B

INCORRECT: “Operating system licensing” is incorrect as these are factors that are relevant to both on-premise and the cloud.

146
Q

An IT company requires a private, encrypted channel of communication between its on-premises data center and a VPC in the AWS Cloud.
Which AWS service or feature meets this requirement?

A. VPC endpoints
B. AWS PrivateLink
C. AWS Global Accelerator
D. AWS Site-to-Site VPN

A

B.

AWS PrivateLink provides private connectivity between VPCs, AWS services, and your on-premises networks, without exposing your traffic to the public internet.

147
Q

The AWS acceptable use policy for penetration testing allows?

A. Customers to carry out security assessments or penetration tests against their AWS infrastructure without prior approval for selected services

B. Customers to carry out security assessments or penetration tests against their AWS infrastructure after obtaining authorization from AWS

C. AWS to perform penetration testing against customer resources without notification

D. Authorized security assessors to perform penetration tests against any AWS customer without authorization

A

A.

AWS customers are welcome to carry out security assessments or penetration tests against their AWS infrastructure without prior approval for the following eight services:

  • Amazon EC2 instances, NAT Gateways, and Elastic Load Balancers.
  • Amazon RDS.
  • Amazon CloudFront.
  • Amazon Aurora.
  • Amazon API Gateways.
  • AWS Lambda and Lambda Edge functions.
  • Amazon LightSail resources.
  • Amazon Elastic Beanstalk environments.
148
Q

Which of the following can be assigned to an IAM user? (Select TWO.)

A. A key pair
B. A password for logging into Linux
C. A password for access to the management console
D. An SSL/TLS certificate
E. An access key ID and secret access key

A

C,E

149
Q

It is necessary for a company to have access to scalable, highly reliable, and fully managed file storage that runs on the Server Message Block (SMB) protocol.

Which AWS service will meet these requirements?

A. EBS
B. S3
C. EFS
D. Amazon FSx for Windows File Server

A

D.

150
Q

How can I deploy AWS Cloud infrastructure to multiple AWS Regions quickly, automatically, and reliably?

A. Use AWS CodeStar to set up a continuous delivery toolchain for automated deployment

B. Create and launch an Amazon EC2 Amazon Machine Image (AMI) containing the source code with built-in deployment hooks to launch other AWS services

C. Create and use an AWS CloudFormation template

D. Use AWS Systems Manager to automate management tasks, such as creating Amazon EC2 Amazon Machine Images (AMIs) and applying patches

A

C.

151
Q

There is a need to perform queries and to search and analyze logs interactively within an organization.
Which AWS service or feature will meet this requirement?

A. Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events)
B. Amazon CloudWatch Logs streams
C. Amazon CloudWatch Logs Insights
D. Amazon CloudWatch anomaly detection

A

C.

152
Q

Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework includes the design principle of defining workloads, applications, and infrastructure as code (IaC)?

A. Operational excellence
B. Reliability
C. Performance efficiency
D. Security

A

A

Perform operations as code

153
Q

Under the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, which of the following is the responsibility of a customer regarding AWS Lambda?

A. Maintain versions of an AWS Lambda function
B. Patch underlying OS for the AWS Lambda function infrastructure
C. Maintain all runtime environments for AWS Lambda functions
D. Configure networking infrastructure for the AWS Lambda functions

A

A

154
Q

Which of the following AWS services offer block-level storage? (Select two)

A. ECS
B. S3
C. EFS
D. Instance Store
E. EBS

A

D,E

155
Q

A company is looking at a service/tool to automate and minimize the time spent on keeping the server images up-to-date. These server images are used by Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances as well as the on-premises systems.

Which AWS service will help achieve the company’s need?

A. Amazon EC2 Amazon Machine Image (AMI)
B. AWS CloudFormation templates
C. Amazon EC2 Image Builder
D. AWS Systems Manager (Amazon Simple Systems Manager (SSM))

A

C

Amazon EC2 Image Builder simplifies the building, testing, and deployment of Virtual Machine and container images for use on AWS or on-premises.

Keeping Virtual Machine (VM) and container images up-to-date can be time-consuming, resource-intensive, and error-prone. Currently, customers either manually update and snapshot VMs or have teams that build automation scripts to maintain images.

INCORRECT: AMI - An Amazon Machine Image (AMI) provides the information required to launch an instance. You must specify an AMI when you launch an EC2 instance. An Amazon Machine Image (AMI) is the basic unit of deployment in Amazon EC2 and is one of the types of images you can create with Image Builder.

156
Q

AWS Support offers five support plans for its customers. Which of the following features are covered as part of the AWS Basic Support Plan? (Select two)

A. Client-side diagnostic tools
B. Infrastructure event management
C. Service health checks
D. One-on-one responses to account and billing questions
E. Use-case guidance – What AWS products, features, and services to use for best supporting your specific needs

A

C,D

All AWS customers automatically have 24/7 access to these features of the Basic support plan:
1. One-on-one responses to account and billing questions
2. Support forums
3. Service health checks
4. Documentation, technical papers, and best practice guides

157
Q

A company is looking at real-time processing of streaming big data for their ad-tech platform. Which of the following AWS services is the right choice for this requirement?

A. EMR
B. Amazon Kinesis Data Streams
C. SQS
D. Redshift

A

B.

INCORRECT:Amazon EMR - Amazon EMR makes it easy to set up, operate, and scale your big data environments by automating time-consuming tasks like provisioning capacity and tuning clusters. EMR is not suitable as a real-time streaming service.

158
Q

A blogging company is looking at an easy to use solution to host WordPress blogs. The company needs a cost-effective, readily available solution without the need to manage the configurations for servers or the databases.

Which AWS service will help you achieve this functionality?

A. AWS Fargate
B. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) with Amazon S3 for storage
C. Host the application directly on Amazon S3 -
D. Amazon Lightsail

A

D.

INCORRECT:Host the application directly on Amazon S3 - Amazon S3 does not support compute capacity to generate dynamic content. Only static web applications can be hosted on Amazon S3.

159
Q

Which member of the AWS Snow Family is used by the Edge computing applications for IoT use cases for facilitating the collection and processing of data to gain immediate insights and then transfer the data to AWS?

A. AWS Snowcone
B. AWS Snowball Edge Storage Optimized
C. AWS Snowposts
D. AWS Snowmobile

A

A

You can use Snowcone in backpacks on first responders, or for IoT, vehicular, and drone use cases. You can execute compute applications on the edge, and you can ship the device with data to AWS for offline data transfer, or you can transfer data online with AWS DataSync from edge locations.

160
Q

Which of the following represents the correct scenario where an Auto Scaling group’s (ASG) predictive scaling can be effectively used to maintain the required number of AWS resources?

A. To help configure a scaling policy to keep the average aggregate CPU utilization of your Auto Scaling group at 40 percent

B. To help configure a CloudWatch Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) metric like ApproximateNumberOfMessagesVisible for scaling the group based on the value of the metric

C. To manage a workload that exhibits recurring load patterns that are specific to the day of the week or the time of day

D. To manage a fixed number of resources in the Auto Scaling group

A

C

Target Scaling - Automatically scales the capacity of your Auto Scaling group based on a target metric value

E.g. : For example, let’s say that you currently have an application that runs on two instances, and you want the CPU utilization of the Auto Scaling group to stay at around 50 percent when the load on the application changes. This gives you extra capacity to handle traffic spikes without maintaining an excessive number of idle resources.

Step and simple scaling - Scale the capacity of your Auto Scaling group in predefined increments based on CloudWatch alarms

Scheduled scaling - Automatic scaling for your application based on predictable load changes by creating scheduled actions that increase or decrease your group’s desired capacity at specific times

Predictive scaling - Analyzing historical load data to detect daily or weekly patterns in traffic flows

161
Q

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Amazon API Gateway? (Select two)

A. Amazon API Gateway creates RESTful APIs, Storage Gateway creates WebSocket APIs

B. Amazon API Gateway does not yet support API result caching

C. API Gateway can be configured to send data directly to Amazon Kinesis Data Stream

D. If an API response is served by the cached data, it is not considered an API call for billing purposes

E. Amazon API Gateway can call an AWS Lambda function to create the front door of a serverless application

A

C,E

INCORRECT OPTIONS:
Amazon API Gateway creates RESTful APIs, Storage Gateway creates WebSocket APIs - Amazon API Gateway is an AWS service for creating, publishing, maintaining, monitoring, and securing REST, HTTP, and WebSocket APIs. AWS Storage Gateway is a hybrid storage solution offered by AWS.

Amazon API Gateway does not yet support API result caching - API Gateway supports result caching. You can add caching to API calls by provisioning an API Gateway cache and specifying its size in gigabytes.

If an API response is served by the cached data, it is not considered an API call for billing purposes - API calls are counted equally for billing purposes whether the response is handled by your backend operations or by the Amazon API Gateway caching operation.

162
Q

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the health monitoring and reporting capabilities supported by AWS Elastic Beanstalk? (Select two)

A. The basic health reporting system that provides information about the health of instances in an AWS Elastic Beanstalk environment does not use health checks performed by Elastic Load Balancing (ELB)

B. In a single instance environment, AWS Elastic Beanstalk determines the instance’s health by monitoring the Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) health settings

C. AWS Elastic Beanstalk provides only basic health reporting system; Combined with Elastic Load Balancing (ELB), they provide advanced health check features

D. With basic health reporting, the AWS Elastic Beanstalk service does not publish any metrics to Amazon CloudWatch

E. The AWS Elastic Beanstalk health monitoring can determine that the environment’s Auto Scaling group is available and has a minimum of at least one instance

A

D,E

In addition to Elastic Load Balancing health checks, Elastic Beanstalk monitors resources in your environment and changes health status to red if they fail to deploy, are not configured correctly, or become unavailable. These checks confirm that:

The environment’s Auto Scaling group is available and has a minimum of at least one instance.

The environment’s security group is available and is configured to allow incoming traffic on port 80.

The environment CNAME exists and is pointing to the right load balancer.

In a worker environment, the Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue is being polled at least once every three minutes.

163
Q

A team lead is reviewing the AWS services that can be used in the development workflow for his company. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the capabilities of these AWS services? (Select three)

A. AWS CodeStar is a cloud-based integrated development environment that lets you write, run, and debug your code with just a browser

B. AWS CodeCommit allows you to run builds and tests as part of your AWS CodePipeline

C. AWS CodeBuild is directly integrated with both AWS CodePipeline and AWS CodeCommit

D. AWS CodePipeline uses Amazon CloudWatch Events to detect changes in CodeCommit repositories used as a source for a pipeline

E. You can use AWS CodeStar and AWS Cloud9 to develop, build, and deploy a serverless web application

F. Each AWS CodeStar project includes development tools, including AWS CodePipeline, AWS CodeCommit, AWS CodeBuild, and AWS CodeDeploy, that can be used on their own and with existing AWS applications

A

D,E,F

INCORRECT: AWS CodeBuild is directly integrated with both AWS CodePipeline and AWS CodeCommit - AWS CodeCommit can trigger a Lambda function that in turns invokes a CodeBuild job, therefore CodeBuild has an indirect integration with CodeCommit. However, AWS CodePipeline is directly integrated with both AWS CodeBuild and AWS CodeCommit because CodePipeline can use source action integrations with CodeCommit and build action integrations with CodeBuild.

164
Q

AWS Web Application Firewall (AWS WAF) can be deployed on which of the following services?

A. Amazon CloudFront, Application Load Balancer, Amazon API Gateway, AWS AppSync

B. Amazon CloudFront, Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2), Amazon API Gateway, Application Load Balancer

C. Application Load Balancer, Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2), Amazon API Gateway

D. AWS AppSync, Amazon CloudFront, Application Load Balancer, Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2)

A

A.

165
Q

A financial consulting company is looking for automated reference deployments, that will speed up the process of deploying its financial solutions on AWS Cloud. The reference deployment should be able to deploy most of the well-known functions of financial services and leave space for customizations, if necessary.

Which AWS service will help achieve this requirement?

A. AWS Partner Solutions(formerly Quick Starts)
B. AWS CloudFormation
C. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
D. Amazon Quicksight

A

A

INCORRECT:AWS Elastic Beanstalk - AWS Elastic Beanstalk is an easy-to-use service for deploying and scaling web applications and services developed with Java, .NET, PHP, Node.js, Python, Ruby, Go, and Docker on familiar servers such as Apache, Nginx, Passenger, and IIS. You can simply upload your code and Elastic Beanstalk automatically handles the deployment, from capacity provisioning, load balancing, auto-scaling to application health monitoring. At the same time, you retain full control over the AWS resources powering your application and can access the underlying resources at any time.

166
Q

Which of the following statements are true about AWS Regions and Availability Zones (AZ)? (Select two)

A. AWS calls each group of logical data centers as AWS Regions
B. An Availability Zone (AZ) is a physical location where AWS clusters the data centers
C. All traffic between Availability Zones (AZ) is encrypted
D. Traffic between Availability Zones (AZ) is not encrypted by default, but can be configured from AWS console
E. Each AWS Region consists of multiple, isolated, and physically separate Availability Zones (AZ) within a geographic area

A

C,E

INCORRECT: An Availability Zone (AZ) is a physical location where AWS clusters the data centers - AWS has the concept of a Region, which is a physical location around the world where AWS clusters the data centers.

167
Q

Which of the following AWS services is delivered globally rather than regionally?

A. Workspaces
B. EFS
C. S3
D. Snowmobile

A

A.

Global Services: Amazon Route 53, Amazon Chime, Amazon WorkDocs, Amazon WorkMail, Amazon WorkSpaces, Amazon WorkLink.

168
Q

Which of the following data sources are used by Amazon Detective to analyze events and identify potential security issues?

A. Amazon CloudWatch Logs, Amazon VPC Flow Logs and Amazon GuardDuty findings

B. Amazon CloudWatch Logs, AWS CloudTrail logs and Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) Access Logs

C. Amazon CloudWatch Logs, AWS CloudTrail logs and Amazon Inspector logs

D. AWS CloudTrail logs, Amazon VPC Flow Logs, and Amazon GuardDuty findings

A

D.

Amazon Detective can analyze trillions of events from multiple data sources such as Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) Flow Logs, AWS CloudTrail, and Amazon GuardDuty, and automatically creates a unified, interactive view of your resources, users, and the interactions between them over time.

169
Q

By default, which of the following events are logged by AWS CloudTrail?

A. AWS CloudTrail Insights events
B. Data events
C. Management events
D. Data events and Insights events

A

C.

There are three types of events that can be logged in CloudTrail: management events, data events, and AWS CloudTrail Insights events.

By default, AWS CloudTrail logs all management events and does not include data events or Insights events. Additional charges apply for data and Insights events. All event types use the same CloudTrail JSON log format.

170
Q

Which AWS service is designed to be used for operational analytics?

A. Amazon EMR
B. Amazon Athena
C. Amazon Elasticsearch Service
D. Amazon QuickSight

A

C.

Amazon Elasticsearch Service is involved with operational analytics such as application monitoring, log analytics and clickstream analytics. Amazon Elasticsearch Service allows you to search, explore, filter, aggregate, and visualize your data in near real-time.

171
Q

Under the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, who is responsible for what? (Select TWO.)

A. Customers are responsible for compute infrastructure
B. AWS are responsible for network and firewall configuration
C. AWS are responsible for networking infrastructure
D. Customers are responsible for networking traffic protection
E. Customers are responsible for edge locations

A

C,D

172
Q

Which of the following are NOT features of AWS IAM? (Select TWO.)

A. Logon using local user accounts
B. Charged for what you use
C. Shared access to your AWS account
D. Identity federation
E. PCI DSS compliance

A

A,B

173
Q

According to the AWS Well-Architected Framework, what change management steps should be taken to achieve reliability in the AWS Cloud? (Select TWO.)

A. Use service limits to prevent users from creating or making changes to AWS resources
B. Use Amazon GuardDuty to record API activity to an S3 bucket
C. Use AWS Config to generate an inventory of AWS resources
D. Use AWS Certificate Manager to create a catalog of approved services
E. Use AWS CloudTrail to record AWS API calls into an auditable log file

A

C,E

AWS Config can be used to track the configuration state of your resources and how the state has changed over time. With CloudTrail you can audit who made what API calls on what resources at what time. This can help with identifying changes that cause reliability issues.

174
Q

Based on the shared responsibility model, which of the following security and compliance tasks is AWS responsible for?

A. Updating Amazon EC2 host firmware
B. “Updating operating systems
C. Encrypting data in transit
D. Granting access to individuals and services

A

A

175
Q

Which AWS Glacier data access option retrieves data from an archive in 1-5 minutes?

A. Expedited
B. Standard
C. Express
D. Accelerated

A

A

176
Q

What advantages does the AWS cloud provide in relation to cost? (Select TWO.)

A. One-off payments for on-demand resources
B. Fine-grained billing
C. Enterprise licensing discounts
D. Ability to turn off resources and not pay for them
E. Itemized power costs

A

B,D

177
Q

When an organization leverages the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework for migrating to the cloud, which two of the following would most likely be the primary stakeholders involved in the process? (Select TWO.)

A. CIO
B. CFO
C. IT Architect
D. Engineers
E. Project Managers

A

A,C

178
Q

Which of the authentication options below can be used to authenticate using AWS APIs? (Select TWO.)

A. “Key pairs
B. Access keys
C. Server certificates
D. Security groups
E. Server passwords

A

B,C

Access keys are long-term credentials for an IAM user or the AWS account root user. You can use access keys to sign programmatic requests to the AWS CLI or AWS API (directly or using the AWS SDK).

Server certificates are SSL/TLS certificates that you can use to authenticate with some AWS services.

179
Q

What methods are available for scaling an Amazon RDS database? (Select TWO.)

A. You can scale out automatically with EC2 Auto Scaling
B. You can scale up automatically using AWS Auto Scaling
C. You can scale up by moving to a larger instance size
D. You can scale out by implementing Elastic Load Balancing
E. You can scale up by increasing storage capacity

A

C,E

To handle a higher load in your database, you can vertically scale up your master database with a simple push of a button. There are currently over 18 instance sizes that you can choose from when resizing your RDS MySQL, PostgreSQL, MariaDB, Oracle, or Microsoft SQL Server instance.

For Amazon Aurora, you have 5 memory-optimized instance sizes to choose from. The wide selection of instance types allows you to choose the best resource and cost for your database server.

In addition to scaling your master database vertically, you can also improve the performance of a read-heavy database by using read replicas to horizontally scale your database. RDS MySQL, PostgreSQL, and MariaDB can have up to 5 read replicas, and Amazon Aurora can have up to 15 read replicas.

180
Q

Under the AWS Shared Responsibility Model for containers, which statements are true? (Select TWO.)

A. Customers are responsible for managing Platform and Guest OS
B. Both are responsible for configuring network infrastructures
C. AWS is responsible for operating system and network configuration
D. Customers are responsible for configuring firewall and access management
E. AWS is responsible for client and server-side encryption

A

C,D

181
Q

How does Amazon CloudFront handle traffic spikes in a highly dynamic website?

A. It automatically increases the number of edge locations
B. It redirects traffic to a secondary origin server
C. It drops requests to maintain performance
D. It scales the origin server horizontally

A

B

182
Q

A startup wants to develop an application using a data pattern matching algorithm. What type of Amazon EC2 instance should they purchase?

A. Compute Optimzed
B. Storage Optimzed
C. Accelerated Computing
D. Memory Optimzed

A

C.

Accelerated computing instances use hardware accelerators, or co-processors, to perform functions, such as floating point number calculations, graphics processing, or data pattern matching, more efficiently than is possible in software running on CPUs.

Compute Optimized - media transcoding, scientific modeling, dedicated gaming servers

Memory Optimized - relational database workloads, financial, actuarial, and data analytics simulation workloads, Electronic Design Automation (EDA)

Storage Optimized - relational databases (MySQL, MariaDB, and PostgreSQL), and NoSQL databases (KeyDB, ScyllaDB, and Cassandra), search engines and data analytics workloads

183
Q

A startup is creating a real-time online quiz platform and needs an AWS service to quickly store and access game results for a day without long-term retention.

Which AWS service is suitable for this requirement?

A. Use Amazon RDS with a daily deletion cron job.
B. Use Amazon S3 with object expiration.
C. Enable Amazon DynamoDB Time to Live (TTL).
D. Deploy Amazon ElastiCache with data eviction policies.

A

C.
With TTL, items in the table can be automatically expired and deleted, ensuring that data isn’t retained longer than necessary

184
Q

AWS Shield Advanced provides extended DDoS attack protection for which of the following resources? (Select THREE.)

A. Amazon CloudFront
B. Elastic Load Balancing
C. EC2 Elastic IP addresses
D. Amazon API Gateway
E. AWS Elastic Beanstalk

A

A,B,C

Amazon Shield Advanced provides protection: Amazon CloudFront, Elastic Load Balancing, EC2 Elastic IP addresses, Route 53 hosted zones, AWS Global Accelerators

185
Q

A company wants to pay only for the resources it uses and needs the ability to increase or decrease resource usage to meet business requirements.

Which AWS Well-Architected Framework pillar aligns with these requirements?

A. Operational Excellence
B. Performance Optimization
C. Reliability
D. Cost Optimization

A

D

186
Q

Regarding the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, which responsibilities are accurately divided between AWS and the customer when deploying an application using Amazon EC2 instances? (Select TWO.)

A.AWS manages the physical security of the data centers, while the customer is responsible for the security group and network ACL configurations.

B. AWS secures the edge locations of its network, but the customer is responsible for enabling encryption in transit between their EC2 instances.

C. The customer is in charge of the physical server maintenance, whereas AWS ensures the encryption of customer data at rest.

D. AWS is tasked with the installation of the operating system on EC2 instances, and the customer must configure the instance’s firewall settings.

E. The customer must oversee the underlying cloud infrastructure security, while AWS takes care of the operating system security patches.

A

A,B

187
Q

What happens to a Spot Instance if the Spot price increases and exceeds your maximum price?

A. The instance is automatically converted to an On-Demand instance.
B .The instance is stopped and can be restarted when the price decreases.
C. The instance is paused and can be resumed when the price decreases.
D. The instance is terminated and cannot be recovered.

A

D.
Spot Instances are an offering from AWS where you can bid for spare Amazon EC2 computing capacity. If your Spot Instance is running and the Spot price increases above your maximum price, AWS will automatically terminate your instance. The terminated instance cannot be recovered. This means that if you have not saved your work, it could potentially be lost. Therefore, it’s essential to consider this factor when deciding whether to use Spot Instances for certain types of workloads.

188
Q

A digital retail startup wants to implement a relational database on AWS that ensures rapid data retrieval and continuous read/write operations.

Which Amazon EBS volume type should they consider?

A. Amazon EBS Provisioned IOPS SSD (io2)
B. Amazon EBS General Purpose SSD (gp3)
C. Amazon EBS Throughput Optimized HDD (st1)
D. Amazon EBS Cold HDD (sc1)

A

A.
Amazon EBS Provisioned IOPS SSD (io1/io2) is an optimal choice for latency-sensitive and high-performance workloads

Amazon EBS General Purpose SSD (gp3) provides a balanced cost-performance ratio for a broad range of workloads

Amazon EBS Throughput Optimized HDD (st1) is suitable for big data, data warehousing, and log processing

Amazon EBS Cold HDD (sc1) is a low-cost option designed for infrequently accessed workloads. It’s optimal for data archival

189
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes Amazon EC2 instance types and their specialized use cases? (Select TWO.)

A. M5 instances are well-suited for general-purpose applications due to their balance of compute, memory, and networking resources.

B. T2 and T3 instances are optimized for workloads that require sustained high CPU performance.

C. P3 instances are designed primarily for storage-intensive tasks like data warehousing.

D. R5 instances are ideal for storage-intensive workloads, such as backup databases.

E. C5 instances are optimized for compute-heavy tasks such as batch processing and video encoding.

A

A, E

M & T = General Purpose
C = Compute
R = Memory
P = Accelerated Computing
I = Storage

190
Q

Which of the following should be used to achieve high availability in a multi-tier web application on AWS? (Select TWO.)

A. Consolidating all applications on a single Amazon EC2 instance for centralized management.

B. Using a single Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) for all the traffic regardless of the applications.

C. Deploying the applications across multiple Availability Zones with Amazon RDS Multi-AZ deployments.

D. Using Amazon Route 53 health checks and DNS failover mechanisms.

E. Deploying the applications to a single AWS Region to simplify network configurations.

A

C,D

Amazon Route 53 health checks monitor the health of application endpoints. In conjunction with DNS failover mechanisms, Route 53 can redirect traffic to healthy endpoints, which is critical for maintaining application availability. This approach ensures that if an application tier becomes unresponsive, traffic can be rerouted to healthy instances, either in the same or different AWS Regions. This not only enhances availability but also helps in load balancing and traffic management for the application.

191
Q

A multinational enterprise has deployed an e-commerce platform within a VPC. This platform has a three-tier design: a frontend web layer, a backend application layer, and a database layer. Each tier operates within its separate subnet.

To ensure security and compliance, which strategies would be most appropriate to apply? (Select THREE.)

A. Place all layers in public subnets.
B. Store database backups in the same subnet as the database for faster recovery.
C. Use the same security group for all three layers.
D. Implement security group rules to restrict traffic between layers.
E. Use Network Access Control Lists (NACLs) to define inbound and outbound traffic rules.
F.Implement AWS WAF on the web layer.

A

D,E,F

Security groups act as a virtual firewall for EC2 instances to control inbound and outbound traffic. Restricting traffic between layers ensures that only necessary communication is allowed. For instance, the web layer should only be able to communicate with the application layer and not directly with the database layer.

192
Q

An e-commerce platform is launching new products and expects increasing traffic in unpredictable patterns during the promotion. Which of the following should be used to maintain cost-effectiveness? (Select TWO.)

A. Reserved Instances
B. Savings Plans
C. On-Demand pricing
D. Dedicated Hosts
E. Spot Instances

A

A,C

INCORRECT : Savings Plans offer lower prices on AWS usage in exchange for committing to a consistent amount of usage (measured in $/hour) for a one- or three-year term. While Savings Plans provides flexibility in the use of AWS services, it is less efficient than Reserved Instances.

193
Q

An online store is using AWS to host its website. They have shoppers from all over the world and wish to make their site load quickly for everyone.

Which AWS service can help them speed things up for their international audience? (Select TWO.)

A. Amazon CloudFront
B. AWS Lambda
C. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
D. Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration
E. AWS Direct Connect

A

A,D

Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration is a feature designed to speed up the uploading of files to Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3) buckets. It works by enabling faster, more secure transfers of files over long distances between your client and an S3 bucket. This is achieved by automatically routing data through Amazon CloudFront’s globally distributed edge locations, reducing the latency and increasing the transfer speed.

INCORRECT:Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling ensures that you have the right number of EC2 instances available to handle your application’s load. Though it can scale resources during high traffic, it doesn’t specifically address the speed of content delivery to global users.

194
Q

Which of the following is a feature of Amazon EC2 that allows users to launch instances in multiple Availability Zones and manage them as a single logical unit?

A. Amazon EC2 Fleet
B. Amazon EC2 Placement Groups
C. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
D. Amazon EC2 Spot Instances

A

A.

Placement Groups in Amazon EC2 are a way of placing instances on the same underlying hardware to achieve low latency or high throughput on those instances. They do not support launching instances across multiple Availability Zones in a single logical unit.

195
Q

An organization wants to use the AWS Route 53 routing policy to route traffic to a primary endpoint. They also need to automatically switch to a secondary endpoint when the primary endpoint returns specific HTTP status codes or specific patterns are detected in the response.

Which options would you suggest for this scenario?

A. Latency Routing with HTTP Status Checks
B. Weighted Routing with Patterns Checks
C. Failover Routing with Health Checks
D. Geolocation Routing with Patterns Checks

A

C.

Geolocation Routing lets you route traffic based on the geographic location of your users. It is not designed for automatic failover based on health checks, but rather to customize content based on a user’s location.

196
Q

What are the benefits of creating snapshots of Amazon EBS volumes to back up data? (Select TWO.)

A. Scalability
B. Flexibility
C. Durability
D. Cost Effective
E. Elasticity

A

A,D

Creating snapshots of EBS volumes also offers the benefit of cost-effectiveness. Instead of creating full backups of your data, EBS snapshots use an incremental backup approach. This means that when you create a snapshot, only the changed blocks since the last snapshot is stored.

197
Q

How does AWS charge for data transfer out of Amazon EC2 to the internet?

A. AWS charges for all data transfer out of EC2 to the internet, with prices decreasing as the volume increases due to tiered pricing.

B. Data transfer out of EC2 to the internet is included in the EC2 instance’s hourly rate, with no additional charges.

C. Data transfer out of EC2 to the internet is charged at a flat rate regardless of the amount of data transferred.

D. AWS does not charge for data transfer out of EC2 to the internet if the data is directed to an Amazon S3 bucket in the same region.

A

A.

INCORRECT: Data transfer from EC2 to Amazon S3 in the same region does not incur transfer costs, but this does not extend to data transfer to the Internet. Transferring data from EC2 to the internet is a separate chargeable activity, regardless of whether the data passes through Amazon S3 first.

198
Q

Which of the following services provides server-based services? (Select TWO.)

A. AWS Fargate
B. Amazon DynamoDB
C. Amazon RDS
D. Amazon Redshift
E. Amazon SNS

A

C,D

Amazon Redshift, it manages a cluster of servers to handle these tasks, hense is considered a server-based service.

199
Q

Which support plan should you choose if you want to start a startup?

A. Business
B. Developer
C. Enterprise
D. Basic

A

A

200
Q

Which of the following are best practices for the Performance Efficiency pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework? (Select TWO.)

A. Use synchronous communication between microservices to minimize latency
B. Use relational databases for all workloads to ensure data consistency
C. Use the largest instance size available to ensure maximum performance
D. Use the right type and size of resources for your workload
E. Use horizontal scaling to add more resources to handle increased traffic

A

D,E

INCORRECT: Synchronous communication can introduce latency and dependencies between microservices, impacting performance and scalability. Asynchronous or loosely coupled communication patterns are often preferred to minimize latency and improve performance in microservices architectures.

201
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describe the capabilities of the AWS Pricing Calculator? (Select TWO.)

A. The AWS Pricing Calculator includes a feature for direct billing and invoice management.
B. It allows users to compare the costs of different AWS service configurations before making a decision.
C. It can automatically adjust resource allocation to minimize costs.
D. The calculator provides detailed technical specifications for AWS services.
E. The AWS Pricing Calculator can estimate the cost of AWS services based on historical usage data.

A

B,E

By inputting historical usage data, users can get a more accurate estimate of future costs, helping in budget planning and cost optimization. This capability is crucial for cloud financial management and aligns with the AWS cost optimization pillar, which emphasizes the importance of understanding and controlling where money is being spent.

202
Q

Which of the following affects the price of an EC2 instance? (Select TWO.)

A. Instance type
B. Security Group
C. Storage capacity
D. The Availability Zone
E. Number of private IP

A

A,C

The cost of an EC2 instance is also influenced by the amount of storage capacity used. Amazon EC2 provides a variety of storage options that you can attach to your instances. Depending on the storage option used (e.g., EBS volumes, instance storage), the cost can increase as you add more storage capacity. For example, EBS volume pricing is based on the amount of storage provisioned and consumed.

INCORRECT : Although the pricing for EC2 instances can vary slightly from one AWS region to another, the choice of availability zone within a region does not affect the price of EC2 instances.

203
Q

Which AWS service provides cost management and billing support for AWS Marketplace?

A. AWS Billing and Cost Management
B. AWS Marketplace Management Portal
C. AWS Quicksight
D. AWS Organizations

A

A.

INCORRECT : AWS Marketplace Management Portal is used by sellers to manage their product listings on AWS Marketplace, but It doesn’t provide cost management and billing support for AWS Marketplace.

204
Q

Which AWS service provides an event log for all AWS resources?

A. Amazon CloudWatch
B. AWS CloudFormation
C. AWS Config
D. AWS CloudTrail

A

D.

AWS CloudTrail enables governance, compliance, operational auditing, and risk auditing of your AWS account. It provides event history of your AWS account activity, including actions taken through the AWS Management Console, AWS SDKs, command line tools, and other AWS services. This event history simplifies security analysis, resource change tracking, and troubleshooting. Thus, CloudTrail can be seen as an event log for all AWS resources.

205
Q

Which AWS services enable encryption to enhance security for data at rest and in transit? (Select TWO.)

A. Amazon S3 with server-side encryption (SSE)
B. Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS) with encryption for block storage volumes
C. AWS Key Management Service (KMS) for creating and controlling encryption keys
D. Amazon CloudFront for encrypted content delivery
E. Amazon EC2 for compute capacity with built-in encryption

A

A,C

INCORRECT : Amazon EBS provides the option to encrypt block storage volumes and snapshots, but this option is not managed by EBS itself. Instead, it uses AWS KMS for encryption, which would need to be specified by the user.

206
Q

An organization is exploring the possibility of deploying its containerized microservices on AWS without managing the underlying compute infrastructure. They are considering AWS Fargate as a viable solution for this purpose.

Which statement correctly describes the features and benefits of AWS Fargate? (Select TWO.)

A. AWS Fargate provides built-in persistent storage options for containers
B. AWS Fargate integrates exclusively with Amazon EKS
C. AWS Fargate is a serverless compute engine for containers.
D. AWS Fargate allows you to pay only for the vCPU and memory usage.
E. AWS Fargate supports automatic vertical scaling for containers

A

C,D

INCORRECT:AWS Fargate integrates with both Amazon ECS (Elastic Container Service) and Amazon EKS (Elastic Kubernetes Service). This provides flexibility in choosing the orchestration service that best fits a user’s needs.

INCORRECT:While AWS Fargate simplifies the process of running containers, it does not natively support automatic vertical scaling. Vertical scaling typically involves increasing the capacity of a single resource, which requires manual intervention in Fargate.

INCORRECT:Fargate tasks use ephemeral storage that is destroyed when the task stops. For persistent storage, integration with services like Amazon EFS is required, but Fargate doesn’t have built-in persistent storage capabilities.

207
Q

Which AWS services are most effective for specific tasks in a containerized environment? (Select TWO.)

A. Amazon EKS for automated scaling and management of containerized applications using Kubernetes.
B. AWS App Runner for quick deployment and management for containerized web applications without managing the infrastructure.
C. Amazon ECS with AWS Fargate for running containers without the need to provision or manage servers.
D. Amazon ECR for advanced monitoring and logging of containerized applications.
E. AWS Lambda for hosting high-traffic web applications in a containerized environment.

A

A,C

208
Q

A company uses AWS Organizations to manage a multi-account AWS environment. The Chief Financial Officer (CFO) wants to optimize AWS spending and properly allocate costs to each department.

Which of the following would be the most effective practice for cost management strategy? (Select TWO.)

A. Disable AWS CloudTrail logs to reduce the costs associated with data write and storage.
B. Use AWS Budgets to set custom cost and usage budgets for each account.
C. Consolidate all user accounts into a single AWS account to streamline billing.
D. Purchase Reserved Instances for predictable workloads across all accounts.
E. Use a single and shared Amazon S3 bucket for all departments to store their data and reduce costs.

A

B,D

INCORRECT:Consolidating user accounts into a single AWS account would likely complicate cost tracking and could lead to security and resource contention issues. It also goes against AWS best practices for enterprise account management, which recommends using multiple accounts for better isolation and management. This approach would make it more challenging to allocate costs and manage departmental budgets effectively.

209
Q

A systems engineer tries to make configuration changes to an AWS service but is denied access, even though an IAM policy allows it.

What might be causing this issue?

A. The AWS account has exceeded its service limit for the month
B. An explicit “Deny” statement exists in another attached IAM policy
C. The AWS region for the service does not support the action
D. The AWS service is currently undergoing maintenance

A

B.

In AWS’s IAM, when determining whether an action is allowed, the default is to deny access. If there’s an explicit “Allow” statement, access is granted, but an explicit “Deny” statement will always override any “Allow” statement, no matter where it is found. Thus, if a user has multiple policies attached, and even if one of them allows a specific action, the presence of a “Deny” for that action in any of those policies will block access. This ensures that sensitive actions or resources can be securely locked down by administrators.

INCORRECT:Exceeding service limits might prevent certain actions like creating new resources, but it doesn’t result in IAM-based access being denied. Instead, users might receive a different type of error indicating the limit has been reached.

210
Q

What are effective strategies for maintaining the high availability of stateful applications with persistent sessions? (Select TWO.)

A. Deploying all application components in a single Availability Zone to optimize sessions without interruption.
B. Using Amazon S3 for real-time session data due to fast I/O operations.
C. Storing session data on a local file system of each EC2 instance.
D. Using Amazon ElastiCache or Amazon RDS to store session data externally.
E. Using Elastic Load Balancing with sticky sessions to maintain user session continuity.

A

D,E

Sticky sessions enable the load balancer to bind a user’s session to a specific application instance. This ensures that all requests from a user during the session are sent to the same instance, maintaining session consistency.

INCORRECT : While Amazon S3 is highly durable and suitable for storing a wide variety of data, it is not optimized for the high I/O performance required for real-time session state data. Services like ElastiCache or RDS are more appropriate for this purpose due to their ability to handle high-speed read and write operations needed for session management.

211
Q

A company is transferring sensitive data between its local servers and AWS. They want the data to stay encrypted during the transfer.

Which of the following AWS services can help to achieve this? (Select TWO.)

A. AWS DataSync
B. AWS Shield
C. AWS Direct Connect
D. AWS Key Management Service (KMS)
E. AWS Snowmobile

A

A,C

AWS DataSync is a data transfer service that makes it simple and fast to move large amounts of data online between on-premises storage and Amazon S3, Amazon Elastic File System (EFS), or Amazon FSx for Windows File Server. AWS DataSync automatically encrypts data in transit using TLS (Transport Layer Security). This ensures the data remains confidential and tamper-proof while being moved over the internet.

212
Q

A streaming platform uses AWS Cloud to store and distribute its video content. All static video assets are stored in S3 across multiple regions. To simplify access while maintaining low latency, which AWS feature should they implement?

A. AWS Global Accelerator
B. Amazon S3 Multi-Region Access Points
C. Amazon S3 Cross-Region Replication
D. Amazon CloudFront with S3 Origin

A

B.

S3 Multi-Region Access Points provide a singular access point to view and access data globally and automatically routing requests to data in the most optimal AWS region.

INCORRECT : Amazon CloudFront with S3 as the origin can be used to deliver content globally, it acts as a content delivery network (CDN) and not a unified access point for S3 buckets across multiple regions. It’s mainly designed to cache content closer to users rather than unify S3 bucket access.

213
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the aspect of agility that AWS offers to its customers? (Select THREE.)

A. Reduction of dependency on physical hardware through virtualization.
B. AWS’s responsibility for securing the cloud infrastructure against all cyber threats.
C. Access to a wide array of managed databases tailored for different types of workloads.
D. Right-sizing services to meet capacity demands at the lowest cost.
E. Elimination of the need to guess about infrastructure capacity requirements.
F. The ability to deploy new applications worldwide in a matter of seconds.

A

C,E,F

INCORRECT: While right-sizing services to meet capacity demands at the lowest cost is an advantage of using AWS, it is more related to cost optimization rather than agility. Agility refers to the ability to move quickly and easily, which includes rapid deployment and scaling, rather than the financial management of resources.

214
Q

Which statement is true about software licensing costs in the cloud?

A. Costs are always lower than on-premises software licensing costs
B .Costs are always higher than on-premises software licensing costs
C. Costs depend on the software and deployment model.
D. Costs are not affected by the deployment model

A

C

215
Q

Which statement is true according to Amazon RDS Multi-AZ deployment?

A. Amazon RDS replicates data in a synchronous way to different AZ
B. Amazon RDS asynchronously creates replicates to different AZ
C. Amazon RDS does not support replicates for multi-AZ
D. Amazon RDS creates replicates in both synchronous and asynchronous ways

A

A

216
Q

How do AWS Snowball and AWS Outposts contribute to AWS global infrastructure in data migration and on-premises integration? (Select TWO.)

A. AWS Snowball is used for fast, low-latency networking across AWS Regions.
B. AWS Outposts are only for storing less-used data in remote locations.
C. AWS Snowball provides a physical device to move large-scale data to and from AWS.
D. AWS Snowball allows you to directly access AWS data centers for equipment maintenance.
E. AWS Outposts lets you use AWS cloud services and infrastructure in virtually any data center, edge location, or on-premises.

A

C,E

217
Q

To maintain strong cloud security, which AWS services can be used to store and identify logs? (Select TWO.)

A. AWS CloudTrail
B. Amazon Route 53
C. AWS Config
D. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
E. Amazon CloudFront

A

A,C

218
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes Amazon EC2 instance types and their specialized use cases? (Select TWO.)

A. M5 instances are well-suited for general-purpose applications due to their balance of compute, memory, and networking resources.
B. T2 and T3 instances are optimized for workloads that require sustained high CPU performance.
C. C5 instances are optimized for compute-heavy tasks such as batch processing and video encoding.
D. P3 instances are designed primarily for storage-intensive tasks like data warehousing.
E. R5 instances are ideal for storage-intensive workloads, such as backup databases.

A

A,C

TM=General Purpose
RX=Memory
IDH=Storage
C=Compute
PG=Accelerated Computing

219
Q

Which of the following statements are true according to the Amazon VPC? (Select TWO.)

A. Can configure network ACL that acts as a firewall for controlling traffic
B. Create and manage policy to privilege all IAM users and groups
C. Have complete control over the virtual networking environment
D. Can manage security configurations for AWS infrastructure Network
E. Can configure failover settings so that it routes traffic to healthy resources

A

A,C

220
Q

A company has large-scale distributed datasets and wants to analyze them. Which AWS service should be used?

A. Amazon MQ
B. Amazon Redshift
C. Amazon EMR
D. Amazon Athena

A

C.
INCORRECT: Amazon Redshift is a fast, fully managed, petabyte-scale data warehousing service that makes it simple and cost-effective to analyze all your data using your existing business intelligence tools. It’s not designed for processing large-scale distributed datasets.

221
Q

Which of the following AWS tools or features should be used to enhance the ability of AWS cost forecasting and optimize current spending? (Select TWO.)

A. AWS Cost and Usage Report for detailed analysis of AWS usage and costs.
B. Amazon EC2 Instance Scheduler for automatically optimizing resource allocation.
C. AWS Price List API for real-time monitoring of AWS resource usage.
D. AWS Pricing Calculator for predicting future AWS costs.
E. Amazon QuickSight to visualize and analyze AWS billing data.

A

A,E

Amazon QuickSight is especially useful for forecasting future expenses and identifying areas for cost optimization

INCORRECT : The AWS Pricing Calculator is a tool designed to provide a basic estimate of AWS costs. It does not offer detailed analysis or forecasting capabilities

222
Q

Which of the following benefits are directly associated with the AWS Cloud’s value proposition for cost savings? (Select THREE.)

A. Long-term contracts to lock in service pricing
B. Upfront capital expenditure for data center facilities
C. Economies of scale from AWS’s investment in global infrastructure
D. The need to hire specialized staff for hardware maintenance
E. Free Tier usage for eligible services
F. Pay-as-you-go pricing model

A

C,E,F

INCORRECT:Long-term commitment can sometimes save money, but they are not a key benefit of AWS’s cost-saving propositions since it can also lead to overspending if the services are not fully utilized. AWS’s value is in its flexible pricing options, including on-demand pricing.

223
Q

Your company uses multiple Amazon S3 buckets containing substantial data volumes. With recent changes in regulatory compliance, you must ensure a retention period of at least 5 years for all bucket contents.

Which of the following solutions would you use to prevent the early deletion of any object? (Select TWO.)

A. Apply an S3 Bucket Policy that denies delete permissions.
B. Use AWS Config to track changes and prevent deletions
C. Create an AWS Lambda function to monitor deletions and restore objects.
D. Enable S3 versioning on all buckets.
E. Set up S3 Object Lock with a retention period of 5 years.

A

D,E

INCORRECT: A bucket policy can be used to deny delete permissions, it is not as foolproof as S3 Object Lock. Denying delete permissions entirely would mean that after the 5-year period, manual intervention would be needed to allow deletions. Moreover, certain users like root could still override this policy.

224
Q

According to the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, which controls do customers fully inherit from AWS?

A. Awareness & Training controls
B. Configuration Management controls
C. Physical and Environmental controls
D. Communications controls

A

C

225
Q

Which of the following are the main differences between Security Groups and Network Access Control Lists (ACLs) for managing and securing network traffic? (Select TWO.)

A. Security groups evaluate traffic based on domain names, while network ACLs evaluate traffic based on only IP addresses.
B. Network ACLs are associated directly with EC2 instances, while security groups are associated with individual VPC subnets.
C. Security groups support allow rules only, whereas network ACLs support both allow and deny rules.
D. Network ACLs are stateful filters that apply to an entire subnet within an Amazon VPC and evaluate traffic entering and exiting the subnet.
E. Security groups act as a firewall for associated Amazon EC2 instances, controlling both inbound and outbound traffic at the instance level.

A

C,E

226
Q

A company has onboarded a new employee. The IT manager wants to set IAM permissions for him. Keeping the principle of least privilege in mind, how should a manager proceed with granting AWS permissions?

A. Offer temporary permissions that expire after a fixed duration
B. Grant no permissions initially and gradually provide access as requested
C. Provide access only to services related to employee
D. Assign all available permissions and remove based on feedback

A

B

227
Q

An organization is preparing for an audit following SOC2 standards. Which AWS resources would provide insights to understand how AWS services influence organizations in meeting SOC2 compliance requirements? (Select TWO.)

A. AWS SOC2 Type II Toolkit
B. AWS Marketplace
C. AWS SOC2 Audit Report
D. AWS Compliance Center
E. AWS Artifact

A

C,E

INCORRECT: AWS Compliance Center provides general information about various compliance programs that AWS participates in, but it doesn’t offer specific reports or detailed insights into how individual AWS services affect SOC2 compliance.

228
Q

Which of the following statements are true for AWS-managed services such as Amazon RDS? (Select TWO.)

A. The customer needs to setup database and OS
B. The customer needs to manage database backups
C. RDS lets you run database instances in private VPC
D. There is no need to choose database engines
E. AWS managed database patching and backups

A

C,E

INCORRECT:In Amazon RDS, AWS manages the underlying infrastructure, including the operating system and database setup. However, the user has control over settings that are specific to the database engine they choose.

229
Q

How does AWS help users to focus on business value by increasing speed and agility?

A. By providing a range of programming languages and tools.
B. By offering a wide variety of pre-built templates and solutions
C. By providing automatic scaling and deployment capabilities
D. By providing access to a global network of data centers

A

C

230
Q

Which of the following AWS services are best suited for specific analytics and data processing requirements? (Select TWO.)

A. Amazon Athena for managing and analyzing large relational datasets.
B. AWS Glue for high-performance real-time data streaming and analysis.
C. Amazon Kinesis for processing large streams of data records in real time.
D. Amazon Redshift for real-time log analysis and immediate response actions.
E. Amazon QuickSight for fast cloud-powered business analytics and visualization.

A

C,E

231
Q

Which of the following AWS services/entities are required to launch an EC2 instance? (Select TWO.)

A. IAM Role
B. IAM Policy
C. AMI
D. EFS
E. VPC

A

C,E

232
Q

A company running large-scale distributed applications with variable workloads on AWS. Which of the following actions will save costs for both the immediate and long-term operation? (Select TWO.)

A. Migrate all EC2 instances to the latest generation to benefit from improved performance and better pricing.
B. Consolidate all databases into a single multi-tenant RDS instance to reduce the number of instances.
C. Replace all current instances with On-Demand Instances to avoid long-term commitments.
D. Use AWS Auto Scaling to adjust resources automatically in response to application demand.
E. Pre-purchase excess capacity with Spot Instances to be used over the next year.

A

A,D

Migrating to the latest generation of EC2 instances can provide immediate cost savings as newer instances often provide better price performance compared to older generations

233
Q

A tech company wants its remote engineers to access resources within their AWS Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) in a secure manner.

Which AWS services can ensure data is encrypted during transfer? (Select TWO.)

A. AWS Client VPN
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. AWS Transit Gateway
D. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
E. AWS Key Management Service (KMS)

A

A,C

INCORRECT:AWS Direct Connect establishes a dedicated network connection from on-premises to AWS, it is not primarily designed for individual remote users’ secure access to AWS VPC. It’s more for dedicated connectivity and data transfer needs of an organization.

234
Q

A Cloud Practitioner is developing a disaster recovery plan and intends to replicate data between multiple geographic areas.

Which of the following meets these requirements?

A. AZs
B. Edge Locations
C. AWS Accounts
D. Regions

A

D

235
Q

Which type of Amazon RDS automated backup allows you to restore the database with a granularity of as little as 5 minutes?

A. Point-in-time recovery
B. Snapshot backup
C. Full backup
D. Incremental backup

A

A

236
Q

An Elastic IP Address can be remapped between EC2 instances across which boundaries?

A. Availability Zones
B. DB Subnets
C. Edge Locations
D. Regions

A

A.

Elastic IP addresses are for use in a specific region only and can therefore only be remapped between instances within that region. You can use Elastic IP addresses to mask the failure of an instance in one Availability Zone by rapidly remapping the address to an instance in another Availability Zone.

237
Q

Which type of EBS volumes can be encrypted?

A. Non-root volumes only
B. Both non-root and root volumes
C. Only non-root volumes created from snapshots
D. Only root volumes can have encryption applied at launch time

A

B.

All volumes can now be encrypted at launch time and it’s possible to set this as the default setting.

238
Q

With which service can a developer upload code using a ZIP or WAR file and have the service handle the end-to-end deployment of the resources?

A. AWS CodeCommit
B. Amazon ECS
C. AWS CodeDeploy
D. AWS Elastic Beanstalk

A

D.

INCORRECT: “AWS CodeDeploy” is incorrect. AWS CodeDeploy is a fully managed deployment service that automates software deployments to a variety of compute services such as Amazon EC2, AWS Lambda, and on-premises servers.

239
Q

Which support plan is the lowest cost option that allows unlimited cases to be open?

A. Business
B. Basic
C. Enterprise
D. Developer

A

D.

240
Q

A company is looking to centrally configure and manage firewall rules across their AWS environment. Which AWS services can assist in applying firewall rules consistently across AWS VPCs and accounts? (Select TWO.)

A. AWS Shield
B. Amazon Inspector
C. AWS Web Application Firewall (AWS WAF)
D. AWS Network Firewall
E. AWS Firewall Manager

A

D,E

AWS Network Firewall is a managed service that makes it easy to deploy essential network protections for all your Amazon VPCs.

INCORRECT: “AWS Web Application Firewall (AWS WAF)” is incorrect because, although it integrates with AWS Firewall Manager and you can manage it using Firewall Manager, by itself it is not a centralized solution to manage firewall rules across various AWS accounts and VPCs.

241
Q

A cloud practitioner needs to decrease application latency and increase performance for globally distributed users.

Which services can assist? (Select TWO.)

A. Amazon S3
B. Amazon CloudFront
C. Amazon ECS
D. Amazon ElastiCache
E. Amazon AppStream 2.0

A

A,B

242
Q

What are the benefits of using IAM roles for applications that run on EC2 instances? (Select TWO.)

A. Role credentials are permanent
B. It is easier to manage IAM roles
C. Easier to configure than using storing access keys within the EC2 instance
D. More secure than storing access keys within applications
E. Can apply multiple roles to a single instance

A

B,C

INCORRECT: “Can apply multiple roles to a single instance” is incorrect. You cannot apply multiple roles to a single instance.

243
Q

Which AWS components aid in the construction of fault-tolerant applications? (Select TWO.)

A. Block device mappings
B. Tags
C. AMIs
D. ARNs
E. Elastic IP addresses

A

C,E

Elastic IP addresses can be easily remapped between EC2 instances in the event of a failure. Amazon Machine Images (AMIs) can be used to quickly launch replacement instances when there is a failure

Amazon Resource Names (ARNs), tags and block device mappings don’t really help with fault tolerance

244
Q

Which type of storage stores objects comprised of key, value pairs?

A. DynamoDB
B. S3
C. EFS
D. EBS

A

B.

245
Q

A company wants to utilize a pay as you go cloud model for all of their applications without CAPEX costs and which is highly elastic. Which cloud delivery model will suit them best?

A. Public
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. On-Premise

A

A.

Private and on-premise clouds are essentially the same, though both could be managed by a third party and even could be delivered under an OPEX model by some vendors. However, they are typically more CAPEX heavy and the elasticity is limited.

246
Q

Which AWS program can help an organization to design, build, and manage their workloads on AWS?

A. AWS Technical Account Manager
B. AWS Business Development Manager
C. APN Technology Consultants
D.APN Consulting Partners

A

D.

APN Consulting Partners are professional services firms that help customers of all sizes design, architect, build, migrate, and manage their workloads and applications on AWS. Consulting Partners include System Integrators (SIs), Strategic Consultancies, Agencies, Managed Service Providers (MSPs), and Value-Added Resellers (VARs).

247
Q

Which factors should be included in a Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) analysis when considering a migration to AWS Cloud? (Select TWO.)

A. The cost of training staff on AWS Cloud services
B. Cost of office space rental for IT staff
C. Estimated operational costs for maintaining on-premises servers
D. The depreciation of capital expenditures over time
E. Upfront investment in physical hardware for the data center

A

A,C

INCORRECT : The TCO analysis for migration to AWS Cloud is typically concerned with comparing current on-premises costs to the projected costs of operating in the cloud. Since AWS operates on a pay-as-you-go model, upfront hardware investments are not applicable to cloud cost assessments.

248
Q

In the AWS shared responsibility model, who is responsible for responding to security incidents and conducting forensic investigations?

A. Both AWS and the customer
B. Customers
C. AWS
D. It depends on the severity of the incident

A

B.

249
Q

A rapidly growing startup has an analytical application deployed on Amazon EC2 instances. The application requires to perform high-speed I/O operations to quickly process large amounts of financial data.

Which AWS storage solution would you suggest to enhance the I/O performance of this application?

A. Use Amazon EBS with Throughput Optimized HDD (st1)
B. Use Amazon FSx for Lustre linked to their Amazon S3 bucket.
C. Use Amazon S3 Standard storage class
D. Use Amazon EFS with General Purpose performance mode

A

B.

Amazon FSx for Lustre provides a high-performance file system optimized for fast processing of workloads like machine learning, high performance computing (HPC), and big data. Offers a seamless and high-speed solution for applications like the fintech company’s analytical application

250
Q

Your company has an application running on an Amazon EC2 instance in the Europe region. Now your company is planning to move to North America. What should you do to deploy the application to another region?

A. Create a separate AWS account for that region
B. Don’t need to do anything, just deploy a new application to the region
C. Create a support case to get this migration help
D. Create an Amazon Machine Image and deploy that region

A

D.

INCORRECT:Deploying a new application in the new region without using an AMI of the existing EC2 instance can lead to inconsistencies between the two instances. It may also be more time-consuming and error-prone as it would involve manually setting up the EC2 instance with the required software and configuration.

251
Q

Which of the following are the benefits of using DynamoDB? (Select THREE.)

A. Automatically Scales to meet required throughput capacity
B. Easy to perform complex analytical queries with higher performance
C. Provides ACID transactions to commit or backup
D. Supports foreign keys to build relationships with other table items
E. Delivers fast read performance with Microsecond latency
F. Supports both relational and non-relational data models

A

A,C,E

INCORRECT: While DynamoDB provides fast access to items in a table by specifying primary key values, it is not designed for complex queries with multiple filters and joins like a relational database. If you require complex querying capabilities, using Amazon RDS or integrating DynamoDB with a data warehouse like Amazon Redshift might be a better solution.

252
Q

Regarding the AWS Global Infrastructure, which of the following statements accurately reflect the design and purpose of AWS Availability Zones and AWS Edge Locations? (Select TWO.)

A. Availability Zones within the same region are interconnected through low-latency links and share infrastructure with each others.

B. AWS Edge Locations are specifically designed to deliver content to end-users with lower latency.

C. AWS Edge Locations serve as the primary computing and storage areas for AWS services.

D. Each AWS Availability Zone is an isolated segment within an AWS Region, with its own independent power and cooling.

E. AWS Availability Zones are individual data centers located within a single facility, sharing power and networking infrastructure.

A

B,D

253
Q

In the context of AWS billing and pricing, which of the following statements are true? (Select TWO.)

A. Reserved Instances require upfront payment, but offer no discounts compared to On-Demand pricing.

B. AWS provides a detailed billing report which can be integrated with third-party accounting software.

C. Data transfer within the same AWS region is always free of charge.

D. AWS charges for Elastic IP addresses only when they are allocated and not associated with a running instance.

E. AWS Free Tier includes certain amounts of resources and services free of charge, but only for the first 12 months after account creation.

A

D,E

AWS does not charge for an Elastic IP address if it is associated with a running instance. However, charges are incurred when these IP addresses are allocated and not associated with a running instance. This billing approach encourages the efficient use of Elastic IP addresses, aligning with AWS’s pay-for-what-you-use pricing philosophy.

254
Q

Why is the serverless service more cost-effective than server-based services? (Select TWO.)

A. Serverless services require less maintenance and administration
B. The resource is only used when the code is executed
C. Caching has applied automatically for low latency
D. Serverless is a global service for high performance
E. Serverless automatically scales up/down features

A

B,E

255
Q

Which of the following pairs of benefits of AWS cloud allow organizations to deploy their applications in multiple regions and scale them up or down based on their changing business needs?

A. Pay-as-you-go pricing and economy of scale
B. High availability and reliability
C. Security and pay-as-you-go pricing
D. Elasticity and global reach

A

D.

INCORRECT:High availability and reliability ensure that applications are available and operate as expected, but they do not directly pertain to the deployment of applications in multiple regions.

256
Q

An organization is looking to improve their security posture and ensure compliance with industry regulations when using AWS services. Which of the following AWS features or services would best enable the organization to monitor compliance and manage security at scale? (Select TWO.)

A. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
B. Amazon Inspector
C. Amazon Cognito
D. AWS Artifact
E. AWS Shield

A

B,D

INCORRECT : AWS Shield is a managed Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) protection service that safeguards web applications running on AWS. Although it is a security service, it does not provide compliance monitoring or security management capabilities, which is why it is not the correct choice for an organization specifically looking to monitor compliance.

257
Q

Which of the following statements accurately represent the capabilities and use cases of different AWS compute services? (Select TWO.)

A. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling is only suitable for applications with predictable traffic patterns.

B. Amazon Lightsail is the preferred AWS service for high-performance computing tasks like data analysis and modeling.

C. Amazon EC2 instances are best for applications requiring consistent performance and dedicated physical hardware.

D. AWS Fargate is used for running Kubernetes clusters without needing to manage the underlying EC2 instances.

E. AWS Lambda is ideal for short-duration, event-driven processes and automatically scales with the number of requests.

A

D,E

AWS Fargate is a serverless compute engine for containers that works with both Amazon Elastic Container Service (ECS) and Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (EKS)

258
Q

Which of the following compliance documents can customers access through AWS Artifact? (Select THREE.)

A. HIPAA Business Associate Agreement (BAA)
B. Service Organization Control (SOC) reports
C. Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) certificate
D. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) compliance report
E. International Organization for Standardization (ISO) certifications report
F. Health Information Trust Alliance (HITRUST) certification report

A

A,B,E

259
Q

A company is reviewing their AWS usage to better manage costs. Which of the following would be the most effective strategy to reduce costs without compromising on their ability to scale and meet demand? (Select TWO.)

A. Use AWS Data Transfer to move all data processing tasks to a single region.

B. Transition to a serverless architecture using AWS Lambda for variable workloads.

C. Deploy all new workloads on the latest GPU instances to leverage better performance.

D. Schedule EC2 instances to stop during non-business hours using AWS Instance Scheduler.

E. Opt for a full upfront payment for all Reserved Instances for the next three years.

A

B,D

INCORRECT : While Reserved Instances can provide cost savings compared to On-Demand pricing, opting for full upfront payment locks the company into a long-term commitment that may not align with their changing business needs. This approach lacks flexibility and could result in over-provisioning and wasted resources if demand decreases or technology requirements change.

260
Q

Where can an AWS customer find official documentation and resources about security best practices and recommendations for their AWS environment? (Select TWO.)

A. AWS Service Health Dashboard
B. AWS Marketplace
C. AWS Online Tech Talks
D. AWS Documentation website
E. AWS Knowledge Center

A

D,E

The AWS Documentation website is an authoritative source of detailed technical documentation for all AWS services. It includes user guides, developer guides, API references, and tutorials that cover AWS security services and features in depth. The documentation often contains sections specifically about security, such as how to configure security settings, implement access controls, and use encryption to protect data.

261
Q

A gaming company wants to develop an online game. They need a database to store session history and leaderboards that support low latency and high consistency. Which AWS service would you recommend?

A. Amazon ElastiCache
B. Amazon MemoryDB
C. Amazon DynamoDB
D. Amazon RDS

A

B.

Amazon MemoryDB for Redis is a Redis-compatible, fully managed, in-memory database service built on an architecture designed for durability and fault tolerance. It is designed to support applications requiring microsecond read latency and high-speed data ingestion, making it a perfect fit for a gaming application like the one described.

Amazon MemoryDB supports data structures such as strings, lists, sets, sorted sets, hashes, and streams – features that will be beneficial for maintaining gaming sessions and leaderboards. It ensures high availability by replicating data across multiple Availability Zones, providing a multi-AZ fault-tolerant architecture that makes it suitable for use cases demanding high reliability and business continuity.

262
Q

Which of the following statement is true about cost allocation tags?

A. It is automatically applied to all resources in an AWS account
B. It can be used to track costs at the resource level
C. It can be used to track costs at the department level
D. It can be used to track costs at the account level

A

B.
You can categorize and track your AWS costs on a detailed level when you activate them for cost allocation in the AWS Billing and Cost Management dashboard. This can include tracking costs associated with individual resources, specific projects, or different departments.

263
Q

A software development firm has created an application that depends on a shared storage system to which multiple Amazon EC2 instances need concurrent access. Additionally, the company wants to ensure that rarely used files are shifted to a more cost-effective storage class.

Which AWS service or configuration would be the most suitable for these needs?

A. Amazon Glacier
B. Amazon S3 with S3 Standard-IA storage class
C. Amazon EFS with Lifecycle Management
D. Amazon FSx for Windows File Server

A

C

264
Q

Which cloud computing deployment model allows organizations to maintain a private cloud environment while also taking advantage of the scalability and flexibility of public cloud resources?

A. Private cloud
B. Community cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Public cloud

A

C.

A hybrid cloud is a deployment model that combines the use of private cloud and public cloud resources. In a hybrid cloud environment, organizations can maintain sensitive data and applications on their private cloud while leveraging the scalability and flexibility of public cloud resources for other less sensitive, high-volume needs. This provides organizations with the ability to dynamically manage resources and increase efficiency, as they can adjust their use of public and private clouds to fit their needs.

265
Q

What does AWS provide to deploy popular technologies - such as IBM MQ - on AWS with the least amount of effort and time?

A. Amazon Aurora
B. AWS Partner Solutions
C. Amazon CloudWatch
D. AWS OpsWorks

A

B.

AWS Partner Solutions (formerly AWS Quick Starts) outline the architectures for popular enterprise solutions on AWS and provide AWS CloudFormation templates to automate their deployment

266
Q

A Japanese company hosts their applications on Amazon EC2 instances in the Tokyo Region. The company has opened new branches in the United States, and the US users are complaining of high latency. What can the company do to reduce latency for the users in the US while minimizing costs?

A. Registering a new US domain name to serve the users in the US
B. Applying the Amazon Connect latency-based routing policy
C. Building a new data center in the US and implementing a hybrid model
D. Deploying new Amazon EC2 instance in a Region in the US

A

D.
The only way to reduce latency for the US users is to provision new Amazon EC2 instances in a Region closer to or in the US, OR by using Amazon CloudFront to cache copies of the content in edge locations close to the US users. In both cases, user requests will travel a shorter distance over the network, and the performance will improve.

267
Q

What does AWS Snowball provide? (Choose TWO)

A. An Exabyte-scale data transfer service that allows you to move extremely large amounts of data to AWS

B. A hybrid cloud storage between on-premises environments and the AWS Cloud

C. Build-in computing capabilities that allows customers to process data locally

D. A catalog of third-party software solutions that customers need to build solutions and run their businesses

E. Secure transfer of large amount of data into and out of AWS cloud

A

C,E

With AWS Snowball, you can access the compute power of the AWS Cloud locally and cost-effectively in places where connecting to the internet might not be an option

268
Q

A company is planning to host an educational website on AWS. Their video courses will be streamed all around the world. Which of the following AWS services will help achieve high transfer speeds?

A. Amazon SNS
B. Amazon CloudFront
C. Amazon Kinesis Video Streams
D. AWS CloudFormation

A

B.

Amazon Kinesis Video Streams enables you to securely stream video from connected devices (IoT devices) to AWS for analytics, machine learning (ML), playback, and other processing

269
Q

Which of the following are important design principles you should adopt when designing systems on AWS? (Choose TWO)

A. Always choose to pay as you go
B. Treat servers as fixed resources
C. Automate wherever possible
D. Always use Global services in your architecture rather than Regional services
E. Remove single point of failure

A

C,E

270
Q

What are the Amazon RDS features that can be used to improve the availability of your database? (Choose TWO)

A. AWS Regions
B. Automatic patching
C. Read Replicas
D. Multi-AZ deployment
E. Edge Location

A

C,D

271
Q

A company has business critical workloads hosted on AWS and they are unwilling to accept any downtime. Which of the following is a recommended best practice to protect their workloads in the event of an unexpected natural disaster?

A. Deploy AWS resources to anothervRegion and implement Active-Active disaster recovery solution

B. Deploy AWS resources across multiple Availability Zones within the same AWS Region

C. Replicate data across multiple Edge Locations worldwide and use Amazon CloudFront to perform automatic failover in the event of an outage

D. Create point-in-time backups in another subnet and recover this data when a disaster occurs

A

A

272
Q

What is the primary storage service used by Amazon RDS database instances?

A. S3
B. EFS
C. EBS
D. S3 Storage Gatway

A

C

273
Q

A company is migrating its on-premises database to Amazon RDS. What should the company do to ensure Amazon RDS costs are kept to a minimum?

A. Use a Multi-Region Active-Active architecture
B. Use a Multi-Region Active-Passive architecture
C. Combine On-demand Capacity Reservations with Saving Plans
D. Right Size before and after migration

A

D.

INCORRECT : “Combine On-demand Capacity Reservations with Saving Plans” is incorrect. When you combine On-demand Capacity Reservations with Saving Plans, you will be able to reduce costs significantly. But, On-demand Capacity Reservations is available only for Amazon EC2

274
Q

A company wants to keep a secondary backup copy of its databases to meet regulatory requirements. Compliance policies require that the data be retrievable immediately when requested. What is the most cost-effective storage option that will meet these requirements?

A. S3 Standard
B. S3 1 Zone IA
C. S3 IA
D. S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval

A

B.

INCORRECT:“Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval” is incorrect. Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval is more cost-effective than S3 One Zone-IA, but it does not provide immediate retrieval of data. With Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval, the minimum retrieval period is 1-5 minutes.

275
Q

What are the benefits of using the Amazon Relational Database Service? (Choose TWO)

A. Complete control over the underlying host
B. Lower Administrative burden
C. Supports the document and key-value data structure
D. Scales automatically to larger or smaller instance types
E. Resizable compute capacity

A

B,E

For RDS databases other than Aurora, RDS only supports storage auto-scaling, NOT instance auto-scaling. If you want to scale Amazon RDS instances (other than Aurora), you have two options:

1- Manual horizontal scaling (by adding read replicas)
2- Manual vertical scaling (by upgrading/downgrading an existing instance).

276
Q

What does AWS Service Catalog provide? (Choose TWO)

A. It helps organizations govern their infrastructure as code (IaC) templates
B. It simplifies organizing and governing commonly deployed IT services
C. It enables customers to explore the different catalogs of AWS services
D. t enables customers to quickly find descriptions and use cases for AWS services
E. It allows developers to deploy infrastructure on AWS using familiar programming languages

A

A,B

INCORRECT:”It enables customers to explore the different catalogs of AWS services” is incorrect. AWS Service Catalog doesn’t contain catalogs by default. Each customer creates their own service catalog.

277
Q

AWS recommends some practices to help organizations avoid unexpected charges on their bill. Which of the following is NOT one of these practices?

A. Deleting unused AutoScaling launch configuration
B. Delete unused Elastic Load Balancers
C. Delete the attached EBS volumes that they don’t need
D. Release any unused Elastic IPs

A

A.

The AutoScaling launch configuration does not incur any charges. Thus, it will not make any difference whether it is deleted or not.

Some services automatically restart resources after terminating them without notifying you, and as a result, you get unexpected charges on your bill.
1- Elastic Beanstalk:
2- AWS OpsWorks:

278
Q

Which of the following can be used to protect data at rest on Amazon S3? (Choose TWO)

A. DeDuplication
B. Versioning
C. Permissions
D. Decryption
E. Conversion

A

B,C

“Deduplication” is incorrect. Deduplication is the process of removing duplicate data, and will do nothing to prevent data loss of data at rest.

Amazon S3 provides a number of security features for the protection of data at rest, which you can use or not depending on your threat profile:

1- Permissions: Use bucket-level or object-level permissions alongside IAM policies to protect resources from unauthorized access and to prevent information disclosure, data integrity compromise or deletion.

2- Versioning: Amazon S3 supports object versions. Versioning is disabled by default. Enable versioning to store a new version for every modified or deleted object from which you can restore compromised objects if necessary.

3- Replication:
4. SSE
5. Client side encryption

279
Q

A company uses multiple business cloud applications and wants to simplify its employees’ access to these applications. Which AWS service uses SAML 2.0 to enable single sign-on to multiple applications through a central user portal?

A. Amazon Cognito
B. Amazon Neptune
C. Amazon EKS
D. AWS IAM Identity Center

A

D.

AWS IAM Identity Center (Previously AWS Single Sign-On) expands the capabilities of AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) to provide a central place that brings together the administration of users and their access to AWS accounts and cloud applications.

AWS IAM Identity Center makes it easy to centrally manage access to multiple AWS accounts, business applications (such as Salesforce, Microsoft 365, and Box), and custom applications that support Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) 2.0. AWS IAM Identity Center provides your workforce with single sign-on access to all assigned accounts and applications from one place. You can choose to manage access just to your AWS accounts, just to your cloud applications, or to both.

INCORRECT:”Amazon Cognito” is incorrect. Amazon Cognito lets you easily add user sign-up and authentication to your mobile and web apps.

280
Q

How does AWS notify customers about security and privacy events pertaining to AWS services?

A. Using security bulletins
B. Using Compliance Resources
C. Using the AWS Management Console
D. Using the AWS ACM service

A

A

281
Q

A company wants to grant a new employee long-term access to manage Amazon DynamoDB databases. Which of the following is a recommended best-practice when granting these permissions?

A. Create an IAM user and attach a policy with Administrator Access permissions

B. Create an IAM role and attach a policy with Amazon DynamoDB access permissions

C. Create an IAM user and attach a policy with Amazon DynamoDB access permissions

D. Create an IAM role and attach a policy with Administrator access permissions

A

C.

282
Q

What are the capabilities of AWS X-Ray? (Choose TWO)

A. Deploys applications to Amazon EC2 instances
B. Facilitates tracking of user requests to identify application issues
C. Helps improve application performance
D. Automatically decouples application components
E. Deploys applications to on-premises servers

A

B,C

Benefits of AWS X-Ray include:
1- Review request behavior : traces user requests as they travel through your entire application
2- Discover application issues
3- Improve application performance

283
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the AWS availability zones and edge locations?

A. An Availability Zone is a geographic location where AWS provides multiple, physically separated and isolated edge locations

B. Edge locations are located in separate Availability Zones worldwide to serve global customers

C. An AWS AZ is is an isolated location within an AWS Region, however edge locations are located in multiple cities around the world

D. An availability zone exists within an edge location to distribute content globally with low latency

A

C.

Edge locations may or may not exist within a region. They are located in most major cities around the world. Edge locations are specifically used by CloudFront (CDN) to distribute content to global users with low latency.

284
Q

What should you do if you see resources, which you don’t remember creating, in the AWS Management Console? (Choose TWO)

A. Open and investigation and Delete any potentially compromised IAM users

B. Stop all running services, and open an investigation

C. Check the AWS CloudTrail logs and delete all IAM users that have access to your resources

D. Change your AWS root account password and the passwords of all IAM users

E. Give your root account password to AWS Support so that they can assist in troubleshooting and securing the account

A

A,D

If you suspect that your account has been compromised, or if you have received a notification from AWS that the account has been compromised, perform the following tasks:

1- Change your AWS root account password and the passwords of all IAM users.
2- Delete or rotate all root and AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) access keys.
3- Delete any potentially compromised IAM users.
4- Delete any resources on your account you didn’t create, such as EC2 instances and AMIs, EBS volumes and snapshots, and IAM users.
5- Respond to any notifications you received from AWS Support through the AWS Support Center.

285
Q

Which of the following will help AWS customers save on costs when migrating their workloads to AWS?

A. Use existing third party software licenses
B. Use AWS Outposts to run all workloads in a cost-optimized environment
C. Migrate production workloads to AWS edge locations instead of AWS Regions
C. Use servers instead of managed services

A

A.

7- Elastic IP addresses: To ensure efficient use of Elastic IP addresses, AWS imposes a small hourly charge if an Elastic IP address is not associated with a running instance, or if it is associated with a stopped instance. While the instance is running, you are not charged for one Elastic IP address associated with the instance, but additional Elastic IPs are not free.

286
Q

Which of the below options is true of Amazon Cloud Directory?

A. Amazon Cloud Directory allows users to access AWS with their existing Active Directory credentials

B. Amazon Cloud Directory enables the analysis of data streams in real time

C. Allows Organization of hierarchies of data across multiple dimensions

D. Amazon Cloud Directory allows for registration and management of domain names

A

C.

Provides web-based directories to make it easy for you to organize and manage all your application resources such as users, groups, locations, devices, and policies, and the rich relationships between them

287
Q

​ Which of the following are types of AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) identities? (Choose TWO)

A. AWS Resource Groups
B. IAM Roles
C. IAM Policies
D. IAM Users
E. AWS Organizations

A

B,D

Identities on AWS include users (or user groups) and roles

288
Q

Which of the following is a type of MFA device that customers can use to protect their AWS resources?

A. FIDO security key
B. AWS CloudHSM
C. AWS Key Pair
D. Access Keys

A

A.

AWS supports several MFA device options including Virtual MFA devices, FIDO security key, and Hardware TOTP token

INCORRECT:AWS CloudHSM combines the benefits of the AWS cloud with the security of hardware security modules (HSMs). A hardware security module (HSM) is a computing device that processes cryptographic operations and provides secure storage for cryptographic keys

289
Q

A company has created a solution that helps AWS customers improve their architectures on AWS. Which AWS Partner Path may support this company?

A. APN Software Path
B. APN Hardware Path
C. APN Service Path
D. APN Distribution Path

A

C.

AWS Partner Paths:

1- Software Path
The Software Path is for organizations that develop software that runs on or is integrated with AWS.

2- Hardware Path
The Hardware Path is for organizations that develop hardware devices that work with AWS.

3- Services Path
The Services Path is for organizations that deliver consulting, professional, managed, and value-added resale services.

4- Training Path
The Training Path is for organizations that sell, deliver, or incorporate AWS training.

5- Distribution Path
The Distribution Path is for organizations that recruit, onboard, and support their partners to resell and develop AWS solutions.

290
Q

Which of the following AWS services is designed with native Multi-AZ fault tolerance in mind? (Choose TWO)

A. EBS
B. Redshift
C. S3
D. DynamoDB
E. Snowball

A

C,D

INCORRECT:”Amazon Redshift” is incorrect. Currently, Amazon Redshift only supports Single-AZ deployments by default.

INCORRECT:”Amazon EBS” is incorrect. Amazon EBS volume data is replicated across multiple servers within the same Availability Zone. Use snapshots to copy data in other AZ.

Data in all Amazon S3 storage classes is redundantly stored across multiple Availability Zones (except S3 One Zone-IA).

Amazon EFS data is redundantly stored across multiple Availability Zones providing better durability compared to EBS volumes.

291
Q

You have a real-time IoT application that requires sub-millisecond latency. Which of the following services should you use?

A. AWS Cloud9
B. Amazon RedShift
C. Amazon ElastiCache for Redis
D. Amazon Athena

A

C.

ElastiCache for Redis power the most demanding real-time applications in Gaming, Ad-Tech, E-Commerce, Healthcare, Financial Services, and IoT.

292
Q

What kind of reports does AWS Cost Explorer provide by default?

A. Detailed AWS usage reports delivered directly to an Amazon S3 bucket
B. Reports about historical on-premises spending
C. Reports about utilization of EC2 reserved instances
D. Reports about the results of AWS Trusted Advisor checks

A

C.

INCORRECT:The detailed AWS usage report that is delivered directly to an Amazon S3 bucket is called “AWS Cost & Usage Report”

293
Q

Your application requirements for CPU and RAM are changing in an unpredictable way. Which service can be used to dynamically adjust these resources based on load?

A. Amazon Elastic Container Service
B. AWS Auto Scaling
C. Amazon Route53
D. ELB

A

B.

“ELB” is incorrect. Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) is used to distribute traffic automatically across multiple targets, such as Amazon EC2 instances, containers, IP addresses, and Lambda functions.

294
Q

Select the services that provide serverless and server-based compute options: (Choose TWO)

A. AWS Lambda
B. Amazon EMR
C. Amazon DynamoDB
D. AWS Fargate
E. Amazon Redshift

A

C,E
Some AWS services provide the option to run workloads on serverless or on server-based compute options.
Amazon EMR Serverless and Amazon Redshuft Serverless

295
Q

A company is hosting business critical workloads in an AWS Region. To protect against data loss and ensure business continuity, a mirror image of the current AWS environment should be created in another AWS Region. Company policy requires that the standby environment must be available in minutes in case of an outage in the primary AWS Region. Which AWS services can be used to meet these requirements? (Choose TWO)

A. AWS Glue
B. AWS Backup
C. AWS Application Migration Service
D. AWS CloudEndure Disaster Recovery
E. AWS Elastic Disaster Recovery

A

D,E

AWS CloudEndure Disaster Recovery is an agent-based solution that lets you recover your environment from unexpected infrastructure or application outages, data corruption, ransomware, or other malicious attacks.

AWS Elastic Disaster Recovery, the next generation of CloudEndure Disaster Recovery, is now the recommended service for disaster recovery to AWS

296
Q

Which of the following strategies helps protect your AWS root account?

A. Delete root user access keys if you do not need them
B. Apply MFA for the root account and use it for all of your work
C. Only share your AWS account password or access keys with trusted persons
D. Which of the following strategies helps protect your AWS root account?

A

A.

There are specific tasks that are restricted to the AWS account root user. For example, only the root user can perform the following tasks:
1- Change your account settings. This includes the account name, root user password, and email address.
2- View certain tax invoices.
3- Close your AWS account.
4- Change your AWS Support plan or Cancel your AWS Support plan.
5- Activate IAM access to the Billing and Cost Management console. By default, IAM users and roles within an AWS account can’t access the Billing console pages. The AWS account root user can allow IAM users and roles access to Billing console pages by using the Activate IAM Access setting.
6- Configure an Amazon S3 bucket to enable MFA (multi-factor authentication) Delete. The AWS account owner (root account) configure MFA delete on a bucket to help ensure that the data in their bucket cannot be accidentally deleted.

297
Q

What can you use to assign permissions directly to an IAM user?

A. IAM Policy
B. IAM Identity
C. IAM User Group
D. IAM Role

A

A.
A policy is an object in AWS that, when associated with an identity or resource, defines their permissions. AWS evaluates these policies when an IAM principal (user or role) makes a request. Permissions in the policies determine whether the request is allowed or denied.

Each policy consists of:

1- Principal:
Who needs access. (User)
2- Action:
What action to allow or deny. (API)
3- Resource:
Which resource to allow or deny the action on. (ARN)
4- Effect:
What will be the effect when the user requests access - either allow or deny.
5- Condition:
Which conditions must be present for the policy to take effect. For example, you might allow access only to the specific S3 buckets if the user is connecting from a specific IP range or has used multi-factor authentication at login.

298
Q

You manage a blog on AWS that has different environments: development, testing, and production. What can you use to create a custom console for each environment to view and manage your resources easily?

A. AWS Placement Groups
B. AWS Tag Editor
C. AWS Resource Groups
D. AWS Management Console

A

C.

By default, the AWS Management Console is organized by AWS service. But with the Resource Groups tool, you can create a custom console that organizes and consolidates information based on your project and the resources that you use.

Placement Groups are logical groupings or clusters of EC2 instances within a single Availability Zone. Placement groups are recommended for applications that require low network latency, high network throughput, or both.

299
Q

You are using several on-demand EC2 Instances to run your development environment. What is the best way to reduce your charges when these instances are not in use?

A. Stopping the instances
B. Terminating the instances
C. You cannot minimize charges for on-demand instances
D. Deleting all EBS volumes attached to the instances

A

A.

AWS doesn’t charge usage for a stopped instance, or data transfer fees. For a stopped instance AWS will only charge you for EBS storage volumes attached to the instances.

300
Q

For Amazon RDS databases, what does AWS perform on your behalf? (Choose TWO)

A. Managing the operating system
B. Network traffic protection
C. Database setup
D. Management of firewall rules
E. Access management

A

A,C

301
Q

Which of the below options is true of Amazon VPC?

A. AWS is responsible for all the management and configuration details of Amazon VPC

B. Amazon VPC allows customers to control user interactions with all other AWS resources

C. Amazon VPC helps customers to review their AWS architecture and adopt best practices

D. Amazon customers have complete control over their Amazon VPC virtual networking enviornment

A

D.

INCORRECT:”​Amazon VPC allows customers to control user interactions with all other AWS resources” is incorrect. Amazon VPC does not allow customers to control user interactions with all other AWS resources. AWS IAM is the service that allows customers to perform this function.

302
Q

What are some key benefits of using AWS CloudFormation? (Choose TWO)

A. CloudFormation allows you to model your entire infrastructure in a text file
B. AWS CloudFormation provisions your resources in a safe, repeatable manner
C. It applies advanced IAM security features automatically
D. It helps AWS customers deploy their applications without worrying about the underlying infrastructure
E. It compiles and builds application code in a timely manner

A

A,B

“It applies advanced IAM security features automatically” is incorrect. IAM features are not applied automatically. It is the customer’s responsibility to manually apply the necessary IAM features to secure their AWS resources.

303
Q

Which of the following requires an access key ID and a secret access key to get long-lived programmatic access to AWS resources? (Choose TWO)

A. TAM
B. AWS account root user
C. IAM role
D. IAM user group
E. AWS IAM user

A

B,E

304
Q

Which AWS services allow users to run SQL queries against data stored in Amazon S3? (Choose TWO)

A. AWS Redshift Spectrum
B. AWS Athena
C. Amazon RDS
D. Amazon Comprehend
E. AWS Shield

A

A,B

305
Q

The AWS account administrator of your company has been fired. With the permissions granted to him as an administrator, he was able to create multiple IAM user accounts and access keys. Additionally, you are not sure whether he has access to the AWS root account or not. What should you do immediately to protect your AWS infrastructure? (Choose THREE)

A. Change the email address and the password of the root user account
B. Enable MFA on the root user account
C. Delete all IAM accounts and recreate them
D. Use the CloudWatch service to check all API calls that have been made in your account since the administrator was fired
E. Rotate all access keys for all accounts
F. Download all the attached policies in a safe place

A

A,B,E

Rotate all access keys for all accounts also means changing them

306
Q

What are the benefits of the AWS Marketplace service? (Choose THREE)

A. It ensures that products are scanned periodically for known vulnerabilities, malware, default passwords, and other security-related concerns

B. Per-second billing

C. It simplifies software licensing and procurement with flexible pricing options and multiple deployment methods

D. Provides software solutions that run on AWS or any other Cloud vendor

E. Provides cheaper options for purchasing Amazon EC2 on-demand instances

F. Customers can choose software solutions in AMI and SaaS formats

A

A,C,F

307
Q

What is the main benefit of attaching security groups to an Amazon RDS instance?

A. Distributes incoming trafic to multiple targets
B. Controls what IP address range can connect to your db instance
C. Deploys SSL/TLS certificates to use with with your db
D. Manage user access and encryption keys

A

B.

308
Q

A financial services company decides to migrate one of its applications to AWS. The application deals with sensitive data, such as credit card information, and must run on a PCI-compliant environment. Which of the following is the company’s responsibility when building a PCI-compliant environment in AWS? (Choose TWO)

A. Configure the underlying infrastructure of AWS services to meet all applicable requirements of PCI DSS

B. Ensure that all PCI DSS physical security requirements are met

C. Start the migration process immediately as all AWS services are PCI compliant

D. Ensure that AWS services are configured properly to meet all PCI DSS standards

E. Restrict any access to cardholder data and create a policy that address information security for all personnel

A

D,E

AWS Services listed as PCI DSS compliant means that they can be configured by customers to meet their PCI DSS requirements. It does not mean that any use of that service is automatically compliant and Only certain AWS services are in-scope for PCI compliance.

309
Q

Which of the following factors affect Amazon CloudFront cost? (Choose TWO)

A. Number of requests
B. Instance type
C. Number of Volumes
D. Storage Class
E. Traffic Distribution

A

A,E

To estimate the costs of an Amazon CloudFront distribution consider the following:

  • Traffic Distribution: Data transfer and request pricing varies across geographic regions, and pricing is based on the edge location through which your content is served.
  • Requests: The number and type of requests (HTTP or HTTPS) made and the geographic region in which the requests are made.
  • Data Transfer OUT: The amount of data transferred out of your Amazon CloudFront edge locations.
310
Q

Which of the following makes it easier for you to categorize, manage and filter your resources?

A. AWS Tagging
B. AWS Directory Service
C. AWS Service Catalog
D. Amazon CloudWatch

A

A.

INCORRECT:AWS Service Catalog is incorrect. AWS Service Catalog is not used to filter AWS resources. AWS Service Catalog allows organizations to centrally manage commonly deployed IT services, and helps govern their infrastructure as code (IaC) templates.