Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

What core clinical phenomenon links all disorders on the schizophrenia spectrum?

A

Loss of contact with reality—’psychosis’—which manifests through delusions, hallucinations, disorganised thought or behaviour, and (in some cases) negative or cognitive symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

During what age range do schizophrenia-spectrum disorders most commonly emerge?

A

Late adolescence to early adulthood, roughly ages 16 – 30 (with men typically breaking a few years earlier than women).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does the ‘duration of untreated psychosis’ influence outcome?

A

A longer untreated period predicts poorer symptomatic and functional recovery, highlighting the value of early detection and intervention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the approximate lifetime prevalence of any psychotic experience?

A

≈ 3 % of the population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the lifetime prevalence of classic schizophrenia?

A

Approximately 0.3 – 0.7 %.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is schizotypal personality disorder placed on the schizophrenia spectrum?

A

Its lifelong eccentric behaviour, odd beliefs, perceptual distortions, and social anxiety mirror attenuated positive psychotic phenomena and share genetic/neurobiological risk with schizophrenia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Do schizotypal individuals experience sustained hallucinations or delusions?

A

No—any psychotic-like experiences are transient or subthreshold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What percentage of people with schizotypal disorder eventually develop a full psychotic disorder?

A

Roughly 10 %.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

First-line management strategy for schizotypal personality disorder?

A

Psychotherapy focused on social-skills training and cognitive restructuring; low-dose atypical antipsychotics only when transient frank psychotic symptoms or severe anxiety intrude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Core diagnostic feature of delusional disorder?

A

Presence of one or more delusions lasting ≥ 1 month in an otherwise relatively intact psychosocial and cognitive context.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How long must hallucinations last (if they occur) for delusional disorder still to be diagnosed?

A

Hallucinations must be brief, infrequent, and thematically related to the delusional content.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name the traditional DSM-5-TR delusional subtypes.

A

Persecutory, grandiose, erotomanic, jealous, somatic, and mixed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Typical age of onset for delusional disorder compared with schizophrenia?

A

Onset is often later—frequently after age 40.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mainstays of treatment in delusional disorder?

A

Second-generation antipsychotics plus cognitive-behavioural therapy aimed at dismantling belief rigidity; SSRIs when intrusive obsession-like doubts predominate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Minimum and maximum duration requirements for brief psychotic disorder?

A

≥ 1 day but < 1 month, followed by complete return to premorbid functioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Essential symptom domains required for brief psychotic disorder?

A

At least one positive psychotic symptom: delusion, hallucination, disorganised speech, or grossly disorganised/catatonic behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Common precipitants of brief psychotic disorder?

A

Marked psychosocial stressors, postpartum state, or cultural stress (‘brief reactive psychosis’).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Long-term risk following an episode of brief psychotic disorder?

A

Roughly 10 – 20 % progress to schizophrenia or mood-related psychosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Primary management principles for brief psychotic disorder?

A

Short-term antipsychotics, psycho-education, and relapse-warning-sign monitoring; involve family for support.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does schizophreniform disorder differ from schizophrenia in duration?

A

Total duration (prodrome + active + residual) is ≥ 1 month but < 6 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List the four ‘good-prognosis’ specifiers in schizophreniform disorder.

A

Rapid onset (< 4 weeks), prominent confusion/perplexity, good premorbid social/occupational functioning, and absence of blunted/flat affect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens diagnostically if symptoms persist beyond six months?

A

The diagnosis converts to schizophrenia.

23
Q

Treatment approach for schizophreniform disorder?

A

Same as early schizophrenia—antipsychotics, psycho-education, family interventions—while monitoring for diagnostic conversion.

24
Q

DSM-5-TR Criterion A requirement for schizophrenia?

A

At least two of the following for ≥ 1 month, one of which must be 1, 2, or 3: 1. Delusions 2. Hallucinations 3. Disorganised speech 4. Grossly disorganised or catatonic behaviour 5. Negative symptoms.

25
Minimum overall illness duration for schizophrenia (including prodrome/residual)?
Six months of continuous signs of disturbance.
26
Which symptom domains does DSM-5-TR emphasise for severity rating?
Positive, negative, cognitive, mood/affective, and motor (catatonic) dimensions.
27
Summarise current understanding of schizophrenia pathogenesis.
Polygenic risk interacting with neurodevelopmental factors—dopaminergic dysregulation, glutamatergic hypofunction, aberrant synaptic pruning, cortical thinning—plus environmental insults (perinatal complications, adolescent cannabis use).
28
What fraction of individuals with schizophrenia achieve functional recovery?
Roughly one-third; another third have persistent but manageable symptoms; the final third experience chronic disability.
29
Key components of optimal schizophrenia management.
Antipsychotic medication (long-acting injectables enhance adherence), CBT-p, social-skills training, supported employment, family psycho-education to reduce expressed emotion.
30
Diagnostic rule that distinguishes schizoaffective disorder from mood disorder with psychotic features?
There must be ≥ 2 weeks of psychotic symptoms without prominent mood symptoms during the illness.
31
What mood episodes can qualify in schizoaffective disorder?
Major depressive episode, manic episode, or both (bipolar type).
32
Gender prevalence pattern in schizoaffective disorder?
Women are diagnosed more often, largely due to higher rates of depressive-type schizoaffective disorder.
33
Evidence-based pharmacologic regimen for schizoaffective disorder.
Combination therapy: an antipsychotic (paliperidone ER has explicit approval) plus a mood stabiliser (lithium or valproate), adjusted per polar type; SSRIs/SNRIs for residual depression when needed.
34
Why is suicide risk particularly high in schizoaffective disorder?
The disorder combines mood instability (as in major affective illness) with psychotic experiences, amplifying despair and impulsivity.
35
Temporal relationship required between substance exposure and psychosis onset?
Symptoms emerge during or shortly after intoxication, withdrawal, or medication use of a known psychotogenic agent.
36
Name three substances frequently implicated in substance-induced psychosis.
High-potency cannabis, methamphetamine (or other stimulants), hallucinogens; corticosteroids and L-dopa for medications.
37
Prognosis after substance cessation?
Symptoms usually resolve within a month; however, persistent psychosis (especially after cannabis or stimulant use) predicts later primary psychotic disorders.
38
Core therapeutic priorities for substance-induced psychosis.
Immediate discontinuation of the agent, short-term antipsychotic coverage, management of withdrawal, motivational interviewing, and relapse-prevention planning.
39
Essential proof required for psychotic disorder due to another medical condition.
Evidence that the psychosis is a direct pathophysiological consequence of a specific medical illness.
40
Medical conditions classically associated with secondary psychosis.
Temporal-lobe epilepsy, autoimmune encephalitis (e.g., anti-NMDA receptor), endocrine syndromes (Cushing disease, thyroid storm), metabolic disorders, HIV, neurosyphilis, neurodegenerative diseases.
41
Characteristic sensory modality of hallucinations in medical-cause psychosis?
Visual or tactile hallucinations are more common than pure auditory forms.
42
Mainstay of treatment for psychotic disorder due to a medical condition.
Aggressively treat the underlying illness; use antipsychotics symptomatically and with caution, especially when delirium risk is elevated.
43
How many signs are required to diagnose catatonia according to DSM-5-TR?
Three or more out of twelve psychomotor features (stupor, catalepsy, waxy flexibility, mutism, negativism, posturing, mannerisms, stereotypy, agitation, grimacing, echolalia, echopraxia).
44
Primary pharmacologic test-treatment for catatonia?
Intravenous lorazepam 1 – 2 mg, often producing dramatic response within hours.
45
Definitive intervention when lorazepam fails in catatonia?
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
46
Serious medical complications that can result from untreated catatonia.
Malnutrition, dehydration, pressure ulcers, deep-vein thrombosis, aspiration pneumonia, and potentially lethal malignant catatonia.
47
When should 'Other Specified Psychotic Disorder' be used?
When psychotic symptoms cause significant distress/impairment but do not meet full criteria for a named disorder, and the clinician wishes to state the specific reason (e.g., 'attenuated psychosis syndrome').
48
When is 'Unspecified Psychotic Disorder' appropriate?
In acute care or insufficient-information settings where detailed justification is impossible or unnecessary.
49
Why are these residual categories clinically important?
They remind clinicians to revisit diagnosis as longitudinal information emerges, avoiding premature or incorrect labelling.
50
Which three temporal criteria are critical in differentiating primary psychotic diagnoses?
1 day to < 1 month → brief psychotic disorder; 1 month to < 6 months → schizophreniform disorder; ≥ 6 months → schizophrenia (if criteria met).
51
How does schizoaffective disorder differ temporally from affective psychosis?
Psychotic symptoms must persist independently of mood symptoms for ≥ 2 weeks in schizoaffective disorder.
52
Why must clinicians always screen for catatonia in psychosis evaluations?
Because catatonia can complicate any major mental or medical illness, is often life-threatening, and responds rapidly to benzodiazepines/ECT.
53
What is the ultimate goal of management across the schizophrenia spectrum?
Functional recovery—employment, relationships, independent living—not merely symptomatic remission.