Sealock Readings Flashcards
(147 cards)
1
Q
What is the goal of management during the pre-trajectory phase?
A
Prevent onset of chronic illness
This phase involves genetic factors or lifestyle behaviors that place an individual or community at risk.
2
Q
What occurs during the trajectory onset phase?
A
Appearance of noticeable symptoms; includes period of diagnostic workup
This phase involves discovering and coping with the implications of the diagnosis.
3
Q
What is the primary goal during the stable phase of illness trajectory?
A
Maintain stability of illness, biography, and everyday activities
In this phase, illness management occurs primarily at home.
4
Q
What characterizes the unstable phase of illness trajectory?
A
Period of instability to keep symptoms under control or reactivation of illness
Adjustments are made in the regimen, and care usually takes place at home.
5
Q
What is the goal of management during the acute phase?
A
Bring illness under control and resume normal biographical and everyday life activities
Symptoms may be severe, necessitating hospitalization or bed rest.
6
Q
What defines the critical phase of illness trajectory?
A
Critical or life-threatening situation necessitating emergency treatment or care
Biography and everyday life activities are suspended until the crisis passes.
7
Q
What happens during the comeback phase?
A
A gradual return to an acceptable way of life within limits imposed by disability or illness
This phase involves continuing the trajectory projection and scheme.
8
Q
What is the downward phase in the illness trajectory?
A
Illness course characterized by rapid or gradual physical decline accompanied by increasing disability or difficulty in controlling symptoms
This phase includes adapting to increasing disability.
9
Q
What is the dying phase of illness trajectory?
A
Final days or weeks before death characterized by gradual or rapid shutdown of body processes
This phase involves biographical disengagement and closure.
10
Q
What are the three critical time phases identified by Rolland in the illness trajectory?
A
- Crisis phase
- Chronic phase
- Terminal phase
These phases address the timeline from diagnosis to end-of-life issues.
11
Q
According to Corbin, how many phases are identified in the illness trajectory?
A
Nine phases:
* Pre-trajectory
* Trajectory onset
* Stable
* Unstable
* Acute
* Crisis
* Comeback
* Downward
* Dying
Each phase includes specific management goals.
12
Q
What does the Shifting Perspectives Model of Chronic Illness emphasize?
A
Living with a chronic illness as an ongoing, continually shifting process
This model incorporates elements of both illness and wellness.
13
Q
When is illness typically in the foreground according to the Shifting Perspectives Model?
A
When individuals focus on sickness, suffering, loss, and burden associated with living with a chronic illness
This perspective is common among those newly diagnosed or overwhelmed.
14
Q
What does it mean when wellness is in the foreground?
A
The person attempts to create consonance between self-identity and the identity shaped by the disease
This perspective involves distancing from the body and gaining knowledge about managing the illness.
15
Q
True or False: The perspectives of chronic illness are seen as right or wrong.
A
False
Perspectives are reflections of people’s needs and situations.
16
Q
Fill in the blank: The ________ phase involves learning to live with symptoms and illness-related demands.
A
[Crisis]
This phase occurs before and immediately after diagnosis.
17
Q
What is the difference between expected and actual physical condition?
A
The difference is known as the gap between the expected and valued norm of perfect physical condition and the actual physical condition of the person.
18
Q
What can create stigmatization for individuals with chronic illnesses?
A
Changes or deformities in physical appearance, such as difficulty walking or the use of mobility aids.
19
Q
What are character blemishes in the context of stigma?
A
Character blemishes are often associated with undesirable traits such as dishonesty, addiction, lack of control, or mental illness.
20
Q
What is the concept of blaming the victim?
A
It refers to making moral judgments about an individual’s character, suggesting they are responsible for their illness.
21
Q
What is quality of life (QoL)?
A
Quality of life refers to subjective evaluations of both the positive and the negative aspects of life.
22
Q
What factors influence quality of life?
A
- Financial status
- Employment
- Housing
- Spirituality
- Social support network
- Health
23
Q
What does health-related quality of life (HRQL) focus on?
A
HRQL focuses on the ways in which health influences and is influenced by overall quality of life.
24
Q
What does HRQL include at the individual level?
A
- Perceptions of physical health
- Perceptions of mental health
- Health conditions
- Functional ability
- Social support
- Socioeconomic status
25
What does HRQL include at the community level?
* Resources
* Conditions
* Policies
* Practices influencing population's health perceptions and functional status
26
What challenges may individuals with chronic illness face?
* Reduced quality of life
* Depression
* Fatigue
* Stigma
* Physical symptoms
27
What is normalization in the context of chronic illness?
Normalization is a strategy where individuals attempt to maintain a 'normal life' despite their illness.
28
What is the strategy of 'covering' in chronic illness?
Covering involves acknowledging the condition while attempting to reduce anxiety and stress experienced by others.
29
What can cultural expectations limit in relation to chronic illness?
Cultural expectations may limit a person's coping strategies, particularly regarding chronic diseases like mental illness.
30
What is the role of informal caregivers?
Informal caregivers provide care without pay to support individuals with long-term health conditions.
31
What percentage of Canadians provide care to people with long-term health conditions?
25% of the population.
32
What is caregiver burden?
Caregiver burden is the level of multifaceted strain perceived by the caregiver from providing care over time.
33
What issues can arise from caregiver burden?
* Fatigue
* Anxiety
* Depression
* Physical effects such as heart conditions and hypertension
34
What is the illness trajectory?
The illness trajectory is an experiential pathway along which the person with an illness progresses.
35
What is the nursing process?
A systematic framework used by nurses to deliver individualized, high-quality care
## Footnote
The nursing process includes five phases: assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.
36
List the five phases of the nursing process.
* Assessment
* Diagnosis
* Planning
* Implementation
* Evaluation
## Footnote
These phases are adaptable to all facets of nursing care, including drug therapy.
37
What are the Ten Rights of Medication Administration?
* Right drug
* Right dose
* Right time
* Right route
* Right patient
* Right reason
* Right documentation
* Right evaluation
* Right education
* Right to refuse
## Footnote
These rights ensure patient safety during medication administration.
38
True or False: Critical thinking is essential for nursing decisions regarding medication administration.
True
## Footnote
Critical thinking and clinical reasoning are central to effective nursing practice.
39
What are common challenges in nursing practice?
* Rising patient complexity
* Medication errors
* Nonadherence
* Resource shortages
## Footnote
These challenges impact the quality of care provided by nurses.
40
What is Evidence-Informed Practice (EIP)?
Using the best available research evidence combined with clinical expertise and patient preferences to make decisions
## Footnote
EIP improves patient outcomes and ensures interventions are based on high-quality evidence.
41
Define pharmacology.
The branch of medicine concerned with the uses, effects, and modes of action of drugs
## Footnote
Pharmacology includes pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics.
42
What are the four key stages of pharmacokinetics?
* Absorption
* Distribution
* Metabolism
* Excretion
## Footnote
These stages explain how the body processes drugs.
43
What is the difference between potency and efficacy?
* Potency: The amount of drug needed to produce a specific effect
* Efficacy: The maximum effect a drug can produce, regardless of dose
## Footnote
Understanding these concepts is crucial for evaluating drug effectiveness.
44
Fill in the blank: The process of eliminating drugs from the body is called _______.
[Excretion]
## Footnote
Excretion primarily occurs through the kidneys.
45
What are the key components of patient assessment in pharmacology?
* Collecting subjective data
* Collecting objective data
* Reviewing medication profile
## Footnote
A comprehensive assessment forms the foundation for effective care.
46
What is a nursing diagnosis?
Clinical judgments about a patient’s response to health conditions that guide care plans
## Footnote
Nursing diagnoses structure includes the patient's response, cause, and supporting evidence.
47
What is the importance of patient education in medication administration?
Ensures patients understand drug purpose, potential side effects, and adherence importance
## Footnote
Effective communication about medications enhances patient safety.
48
List the strategies for preventing medication errors.
* Double-check calculations
* Ensure accurate documentation
* Maintain up-to-date knowledge about medications
## Footnote
These strategies help minimize risks associated with medication administration.
49
What does pharmacodynamics study?
How drugs work on the body, focusing on mechanisms of action and therapeutic effects
## Footnote
It examines how drugs interact with specific cellular targets to produce effects.
50
What is the first-pass effect?
The metabolism of a significant portion of orally administered drugs by the liver before reaching systemic circulation
## Footnote
This effect can significantly influence drug bioavailability.
51
What role do electronic health records (EHRs) play in nursing?
Facilitate accurate documentation and improve communication among providers
## Footnote
EHRs help prevent errors by providing alerts for drug interactions and allergies.
52
Fill in the blank: The ratio between the effective dose (ED50) and the toxic dose (TD50) is called _______.
[Therapeutic Index (TI)]
## Footnote
A narrow TI indicates the need for close monitoring.
53
What are the key considerations for individual variability in pharmacology?
* Age
* Genetics
* Weight
* Organ function
## Footnote
These factors can significantly influence drug effects and dosing.
54
What is the definition of medication errors?
Any preventable event that may cause inappropriate medication use or harm to the patient.
## Footnote
Medication errors can occur at any stage of the medication process, including prescribing, dispensing, and administration.
55
What are the 'Ten Rights of Medication Administration'?
* Right Patient
* Right Medication
* Right Dose
* Right Route
* Right Time
* Right Documentation
* Right Reason
* Right Evaluation
* Right Education
* Right to Refuse
## Footnote
These rights serve as a guideline to ensure safe medication administration.
56
What should be documented during medication administration?
* Date and time of administration
* Name of the drug
* Dose
* Route and site of administration
* Patient’s response
* Any variances
## Footnote
Accurate documentation is essential for legal compliance, communication, and patient safety.
57
True or False: Patients have the right to refuse medication.
True
## Footnote
It is important to document the refusal and provide information about potential consequences.
58
What are common causes of medication errors?
* Incomplete patient information
* Miscommunication
* Lack of knowledge about the drug
* Distractions or interruptions during administration
## Footnote
Understanding these causes is crucial for preventing medication errors.
59
What is the role of Electronic Health Records (EHRs) in medication administration?
EHRs help streamline documentation and reduce errors by alerting nurses to potential drug interactions, allergies, or contraindications.
## Footnote
They provide a clear record of the patient’s medication history.
60
What are the differences between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins?
* Fat-Soluble Vitamins: A, D, E, K; stored in liver and fatty tissues; higher risk of toxicity.
* Water-Soluble Vitamins: B-complex, C; not stored in the body; excreted in urine.
## Footnote
Fat-soluble vitamins require dietary fats for absorption, while water-soluble vitamins need regular intake.
61
What is a common effect of Vitamin A deficiency?
Night blindness and immune system impairment.
## Footnote
Vitamin A is crucial for vision and immune function.
62
Fill in the blank: Excessive intake of fat-soluble vitamins can lead to _______.
[toxic effects]
## Footnote
Examples include hypervitaminosis A or D.
63
What is the mechanism of action for opioids?
Bind to opioid receptors (mu, kappa, delta) in the central nervous system (CNS) to block pain signals and create a sense of euphoria.
## Footnote
This mechanism is what makes opioids effective for pain relief.
64
What are the indications for using nonopioid analgesics?
* Mild to moderate pain
* Fever
* Inflammatory conditions (for NSAIDs)
## Footnote
Nonopioids are generally safer and have fewer side effects than opioids.
65
What are the adverse effects of acetaminophen overdose?
Liver toxicity and irreversible liver damage.
## Footnote
It is crucial to monitor dosing to prevent overdose.
66
What are the key drug classes used to manage asthma and COPD?
* Bronchodilators
* Anti-inflammatory drugs
* Xanthine derivatives
## Footnote
These classes target airway obstruction and inflammation.
67
What is the role of corticosteroids in respiratory therapy?
Reduce airway inflammation.
## Footnote
Inhaled corticosteroids are preferred for long-term control to minimize systemic effects.
68
What is the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic antibiotics?
* Bactericidal: Kill bacteria
* Bacteriostatic: Inhibit bacterial growth and reproduction
## Footnote
The choice between these types depends on the infection being treated.
69
What are the general principles of antibiotic therapy?
* Empiric Therapy
* Targeted Therapy
* Prophylactic Therapy
## Footnote
These principles help guide appropriate antibiotic use based on clinical scenarios.
70
What is antimicrobial stewardship?
Efforts to optimize antibiotic selection, dosage, and duration to minimize resistance.
## Footnote
This includes avoiding overprescription and ensuring complete treatment regimens.
71
What do sulfonamides inhibit in bacteria?
Bacterial folic acid synthesis
## Footnote
Example: sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim
72
Which classes of antibiotics inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis?
Beta-lactam antibiotics:
* Penicillins
* Cephalosporins
* Carbapenems
* Monobactams
73
What are the main classes of antibiotics that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis?
Macrolides, Tetracyclines, Aminoglycosides
74
What are key adverse effects associated with antibiotics?
Allergies, Superinfections, Resistance
## Footnote
Example of superinfection: C. difficile
75
What should nurses monitor in patients taking antibiotics?
Allergies and therapeutic effectiveness
## Footnote
Example: reduced fever or swelling
76
What is the mechanism of action for most antiviral drugs?
Inhibit viral enzymes to prevent replication
77
Which enzyme do neuraminidase inhibitors block?
Neuraminidase
## Footnote
Example: oseltamivir
78
What is the primary use of acyclovir?
Treats herpes simplex (HSV) and varicella-zoster (VZV)
79
What are the side effects of acyclovir?
Nausea, headache, kidney toxicity (rare)
80
Which drug is a prodrug of acyclovir with better oral bioavailability?
Valacyclovir
81
What is a common treatment for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections?
Ganciclovir
82
What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV replication?
Converts RNA to DNA
83
What is the purpose of antiretroviral therapy (ART)?
Reduces viral load and prevents progression to AIDS
84
What are the key signs of inflammation?
Pain, redness, swelling, heat
85
What compounds mediate inflammation?
Prostaglandins and leukotrienes
86
What does the arachidonic acid pathway produce?
Prostaglandins and leukotrienes
87
What is the mechanism of action of NSAIDs?
Inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes
88
What are the two types of COX enzymes?
COX-1 and COX-2
89
What are common indications for NSAIDs?
Rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, gout, mild-to-moderate pain
90
What are common risks and side effects of NSAIDs?
GI issues, cardiovascular risks, kidney impairment
91
What condition is caused by high uric acid levels?
Gout
92
What is the treatment for acute gout attacks?
Colchicine or NSAIDs
93
What is the structure of the skin?
Epidermis, Dermis, Subcutaneous Tissue
94
What are the functions of the skin?
* Protection
* Temperature Regulation
* Excretion and Absorption
* Vitamin D Synthesis
95
What is a common inflammatory skin condition?
Eczema
96
What type of drug is benzoyl peroxide?
Anti-acne drug
97
What do topical corticosteroids treat?
Eczema, psoriasis, and dermatitis
98
What is the primary role of beta-adrenergic blockers in ophthalmology?
Reduce intraocular pressure (IOP)
99
What is the effect of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
Decrease fluid production
100
What is a key term in nursing practice related to patient involvement?
Adherence
101
What does pharmacokinetics study?
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs
102
What is the first phase of the nursing process?
Assessment
103
What are the Ten Rights of Medication Administration?
Right drug, dose, time, route, patient, reason, documentation, evaluation, education, right to refuse
104
What is the definition of a medication error?
Any preventable mistake during prescribing, dispensing, or administering drugs
105
What are fat-soluble vitamins?
Vitamins A, D, E, K
106
What condition results from thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency?
Beriberi
107
What is the effect of hypervitaminosis?
Toxic accumulation of fat-soluble vitamins
108
What are leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRAs)?
Drugs that block leukotrienes, reducing inflammation and bronchoconstriction in asthma (e.g., montelukast)
## Footnote
LTRAs are commonly used in asthma management to help prevent asthma attacks.
109
What is the primary function of corticosteroids in respiratory conditions?
Anti-inflammatory drugs that suppress airway inflammation, used for asthma and COPD (e.g., fluticasone, prednisone)
## Footnote
Corticosteroids are essential in managing chronic respiratory conditions.
110
What do phosphodiesterase-4 (PDE4) inhibitors do?
Drugs that reduce inflammation in COPD by inhibiting PDE4 enzymes (e.g., roflumilast)
## Footnote
PDE4 inhibitors are particularly useful in severe cases of COPD.
111
What is a monoclonal antibody antiasthmatic?
A targeted therapy (e.g., omalizumab) that binds to IgE, reducing allergic responses in asthma
## Footnote
This therapy is beneficial for patients with allergic asthma.
112
What is a Dry Powder Inhaler (DPI)?
A device that delivers powdered medication to the lungs through inhalation
## Footnote
DPIs are often used for chronic respiratory diseases.
113
Define antibiotic.
Drugs that destroy or inhibit the growth of bacteria
## Footnote
Antibiotics are crucial in treating bacterial infections.
114
What is antimicrobial stewardship?
Efforts to optimize antibiotic use to prevent resistance
## Footnote
This is vital for maintaining the effectiveness of antibiotics.
115
What is the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic antibiotics?
Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria, while bacteriostatic ones inhibit growth
## Footnote
Understanding this difference helps in choosing the right antibiotic for treatment.
116
What are beta-lactam antibiotics?
A major antibiotic class including penicillins and cephalosporins
## Footnote
Beta-lactam antibiotics are among the most commonly prescribed.
117
What is empiric therapy?
Initiating antibiotics based on likely pathogens before exact identification
## Footnote
This approach is often taken in urgent care settings.
118
What is a superinfection?
Secondary infection due to disruption of normal microbiota by antibiotics
## Footnote
Superinfections can complicate the treatment of the initial infection.
119
What is prophylactic therapy?
Preventative antibiotic use
## Footnote
This is often used in surgical settings to prevent infections.
120
Define resistance in the context of antibiotics.
The reduced effectiveness of antibiotics against certain bacteria
## Footnote
Antibiotic resistance is a growing public health concern.
121
What are sulfonamides?
Antibiotics that inhibit folic acid synthesis
## Footnote
Sulfonamides are among the first synthetic antibiotics.
122
What do beta-lactamase inhibitors do?
Enhance beta-lactam antibiotics against resistant bacteria
## Footnote
These inhibitors are often combined with beta-lactam antibiotics.
123
What is acyclovir used for?
An antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex and varicella-zoster viruses
## Footnote
Acyclovir is commonly used in managing herpes outbreaks.
124
What are neuraminidase inhibitors?
Drugs like oseltamivir and zanamivir that prevent influenza viruses from spreading
## Footnote
These drugs are effective if taken early in the course of influenza.
125
What is ribavirin used for?
An antiviral that interferes with RNA and DNA synthesis, used for respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
## Footnote
Ribavirin is often used in severe RSV infections.
126
What are retroviruses?
RNA viruses that use reverse transcriptase to replicate, including HIV
## Footnote
Understanding retroviruses is crucial for HIV treatment.
127
What is CMV retinitis?
A severe eye infection caused by cytomegalovirus in immunocompromised individuals
## Footnote
CMV retinitis can lead to blindness if untreated.
128
Define inflammation.
A protective response to injury, characterized by redness, pain, swelling, and heat
## Footnote
Inflammation is a critical part of the body's immune response.
129
What are NSAIDs?
Medications that reduce inflammation, pain, and fever
## Footnote
Common NSAIDs include ibuprofen and aspirin.
130
What are cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes?
Key enzymes in the inflammation pathway (COX-1 and COX-2)
## Footnote
COX inhibitors are commonly used in pain management.
131
What causes gout?
A condition caused by elevated uric acid, leading to joint inflammation
## Footnote
Gout attacks can be very painful and require specific treatment.
132
What are prostaglandins and leukotrienes?
Mediators involved in inflammation pathways
## Footnote
These substances play key roles in the inflammatory response.
133
What is salicylism?
Toxicity due to excessive salicylates (e.g., aspirin), leading to symptoms like tinnitus
## Footnote
Salicylism can occur from high doses of aspirin.
134
What is the Done Nomogram used for?
A chart used to assess the severity of salicylate toxicity
## Footnote
The Done Nomogram helps guide treatment decisions.
135
What is acne vulgaris?
A chronic inflammatory skin condition involving pimples and blackheads
## Footnote
Acne is one of the most common skin conditions.
136
What is actinic keratosis?
Thickened, scaly skin patches caused by sun exposure
## Footnote
Actinic keratosis can potentially progress to skin cancer.
137
Define eczema.
A pruritic (itchy) inflammatory skin condition characterized by redness and scaling
## Footnote
Eczema is often chronic and can be triggered by various factors.
138
What is psoriasis?
A chronic autoimmune condition causing red, scaly patches of skin
## Footnote
Psoriasis can significantly impact quality of life.
139
What are tinea infections?
Fungal infections of the skin, hair, or nails, commonly called ringworm
## Footnote
Tinea infections are highly contagious and require antifungal treatment.
140
What are topical antimicrobials?
Substances applied to the skin to kill or inhibit microorganisms
## Footnote
Topical antimicrobials are often used for minor skin infections.
141
What are keratolytics?
Agents that soften and shed the outer layer of skin, used in acne treatment
## Footnote
Keratolytics help in unclogging pores.
142
What are topical corticosteroids?
Anti-inflammatory agents used for conditions like eczema and psoriasis
## Footnote
Topical corticosteroids help reduce inflammation and itching.
143
What is intraocular pressure (IOP)?
The pressure inside the eye, important in conditions like glaucoma
## Footnote
Monitoring IOP is crucial for glaucoma management.
144
What do beta-adrenergic blockers do?
Drugs that reduce IOP by decreasing aqueous humor production (e.g., timolol)
## Footnote
Beta-adrenergic blockers are a common treatment for glaucoma.
145
What are carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
Reduce IOP by decreasing fluid formation in the eye (e.g., dorzolamide)
## Footnote
These inhibitors are often used in conjunction with other glaucoma medications.
146
What are osmotic diuretics?
Drugs that reduce IOP by drawing fluid out of the eye (e.g., mannitol)
## Footnote
Osmotic diuretics are typically used in acute situations.
147
What are sympathomimetic drugs?
Mimic adrenaline to reduce IOP by increasing fluid drainage (e.g., apraclonidine)
## Footnote
These drugs can help manage IOP in glaucoma patients.
