Tyerman Readings Flashcards
(322 cards)
1
Q
What are chronic illnesses?
A
Health conditions that persist over long periods and are often associated with participation and activity limitations
2
Q
What are the leading causes of death globally?
A
- Cancer
- Heart disease
- Diabetes
- Chronic respiratory diseases
3
Q
How many deaths do chronic illnesses account for globally each year?
A
Approximately 41 million deaths
4
Q
What are the key characteristics of chronic illness?
A
- Permanent impairments
- Irreversible pathological changes
- Residual disabilities
- Prolonged care needs
5
Q
What is the difference between acute and chronic illness?
A
- Acute illness: Sudden onset, short duration, self-limiting
- Chronic illness: Gradual onset, long-term, rarely curable
6
Q
What percentage of Canadians develop cancer in their lifetime?
A
Approximately 2 in 5 Canadians
7
Q
What is the prevalence of diabetes in Canada?
A
6.2% of Canadians have diabetes
8
Q
What are non-modifiable risk factors for chronic illness?
A
- Age
- Sex
- Genetics
9
Q
What are modifiable risk factors for chronic illness?
A
- Smoking
- Unhealthy diet
- Physical inactivity
- Excessive alcohol consumption
10
Q
What is multimorbidity?
A
Living with multiple chronic illnesses
11
Q
What are the psychosocial dimensions associated with chronic illness?
A
- Illness behavior
- Stigma
- Mood disorders
- Fatigue
12
Q
What does the Illness Trajectory Model describe?
A
Phases of chronic illness (crisis, chronic, terminal) and guides management strategies
13
Q
What is self-management in the context of chronic illness?
A
Empowers patients to actively participate in managing their conditions
14
Q
What is the Chronic Care Model (CCM)?
A
Focuses on self-management support, delivery system redesign, clinical information systems, and community partnerships
15
Q
What are the primary prevention strategies for substance use?
A
- Education
- Harm reduction strategies to prevent substance use initiation
16
Q
What are common health complications of substance use?
A
- Cardiovascular disease
- Liver dysfunction
- Respiratory issues
- Mental health problems
17
Q
What are the types of substances categorized by their effects?
A
- Stimulants
- Depressants
- Opioids
- Cannabis
- Hallucinogens
- Inhalants
18
Q
What are the characteristics of nicotine dependence?
A
- Stimulates the CNS
- Increases heart rate and blood pressure
- Leads to dependence
19
Q
What is the 5 A’s of smoking cessation?
A
- Ask
- Advise
- Assess
- Assist
- Arrange
20
Q
What are the phases of wound healing?
A
- Initial Phase (3-5 days)
- Granulation Phase (5 days to 3 weeks)
- Maturation Phase (weeks to years)
21
Q
What are the types of cell injury?
A
- Sublethal injury
- Lethal injury
22
Q
What are the types of necrosis?
A
- Coagulative necrosis
- Liquefactive necrosis
- Caseous necrosis
- Gangrene
23
Q
What are the systemic effects of fever?
A
Triggered by cytokines, increasing metabolism and immune activity
24
Q
What is the role of the inflammatory response?
A
Neutralizes and prepares the tissue for healing
25
What are the factors affecting wound healing?
* Nutrition
* Age
* Blood supply
* Comorbidities
26
What is the primary purpose of debridement in wound care?
Removing dead tissue to promote healing.
27
What is essential for optimal wound healing?
Moisture Balance.
28
What protective response is triggered by cytokines?
Fever.
29
What can severe fever (above 40°C) cause?
Delirium and seizures.
30
What are common antipyretics used to manage fever?
* Acetaminophen
* Aspirin
31
List four risk factors for pressure injuries.
* Immobility
* Poor nutrition
* Moisture
* Friction
32
What are some prevention strategies for pressure injuries?
* Use therapeutic mattresses and overlays
* Regular repositioning and pressure relief
* Maintain good nutrition and skin hygiene
33
What do lower respiratory conditions affect?
The lungs and airways below the larynx.
34
Name two common respiratory infections.
* Pneumonia
* Tuberculosis (TB)
35
What is acute bronchitis?
Inflammation of the bronchi, often following an upper respiratory infection.
36
What are typical causes of acute bronchitis?
Typically viral (e.g., rhinovirus, influenza) but can be bacterial in smokers.
37
What are the symptoms of pneumonia?
* Fever
* Cough with purulent sputum
* Chest pain
* Crackles on auscultation
* Confusion or hypoxia in severe cases
38
What is tuberculosis (TB) primarily caused by?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
39
What are the symptoms of tuberculosis?
* Chronic cough
* Hemoptysis
* Weight loss
* Night sweats
* Fever
40
What is bronchiectasis?
Irreversible widening and damage to the bronchial walls.
41
What is a pulmonary embolism (PE)?
Blockage in a pulmonary artery, typically due to blood clots from the legs.
42
What is a pleural effusion?
Accumulation of fluid between the pleural layers.
43
What is pneumothorax?
Air in the pleural space causing lung collapse.
44
What does a chest X-Ray identify?
* Pneumonia
* Effusion
* Pneumothorax
* Abscesses
45
What is the normal range for intraocular pressure measured by tonometry?
10–22 mm Hg.
46
What are the two forms of age-related macular degeneration (AMD)?
* Dry AMD
* Wet AMD
47
What is the primary characteristic of dry AMD?
Drusen deposits under the retina.
48
What is the primary treatment for wet AMD?
Medications like Ranibizumab and Bevacizumab.
49
What is glaucoma?
A group of conditions characterized by elevated intraocular pressure, optic nerve damage, and visual field loss.
50
What are the symptoms of primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG)?
Gradual loss of peripheral vision, leading to 'tunnel vision.'
51
What are the two types of primary angle-closure glaucoma (PACG)?
* Acute
* Chronic
52
What is the purpose of slit-lamp microscopy in glaucoma diagnosis?
Identifies structural abnormalities.
53
What is the management for acute glaucoma?
Administer prescribed IOP-lowering medications.
54
What lifestyle modifications can help manage AMD?
* Supplements with vitamins and minerals
* Smoking cessation
55
What is the primary purpose of the respiratory system?
Gas exchange—transferring oxygen (O₂) to the blood and removing carbon dioxide (CO₂)
56
What are the key structures of the upper respiratory tract?
* Nasal cavity
* Pharynx
* Adenoids
* Tonsils
* Epiglottis
* Larynx
* Trachea
57
What is the function of the epiglottis?
Prevents food and liquids from entering the airway
58
What are the components of the lower respiratory tract?
* Bronchi
* Bronchioles
* Alveolar ducts
* Alveoli
59
What is the role of surfactant in the alveoli?
Reduces surface tension in alveoli, preventing collapse (atelectasis)
60
What is ventilation?
Movement of air in (inspiration) and out (expiration) of the lungs
61
Is inspiration an active or passive process?
Active (requires diaphragm and intercostal muscle contraction)
62
What is compliance in the context of the lungs?
Measure of the lung’s distensibility (how easily they expand)
63
What occurs during gas exchange?
Gas exchange occurs across the alveolar-capillary membrane via diffusion
64
What is the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve?
Describes hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen
65
What happens during a left shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve?
Hemoglobin holds onto oxygen more tightly (e.g., alkalosis, hypothermia)
66
What are the early signs of inadequate oxygenation?
* Restlessness
* Apprehension
* Tachypnea
* Tachycardia
67
What diagnostic test assesses oxygenation and ventilation?
Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)
68
What is the normal range for pulse oximetry (SpO₂)?
>95%
69
What are the subjective data points to assess in a respiratory assessment?
* Cough: onset, frequency, sputum production
* Shortness of breath: triggers, severity
* Chest pain with breathing: location, severity
70
What are the common types of bacterial infections of the skin?
* Impetigo
* Cellulitis
* Erysipelas
* Folliculitis
* Furuncles
71
What is the treatment for mild bacterial infections?
Topical antibiotics (e.g., mupirocin)
72
What are the common viral infections of the skin?
* Herpes simplex (HSV)
* Shingles (herpes zoster)
* Warts (caused by HPV)
73
What is the main feature of atopic dermatitis (eczema)?
Chronic, relapsing condition associated with dry, itchy skin
74
What is Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)?
Severe reactions to medications or infections causing widespread skin and mucosal damage
75
What are the primary layers of the skin?
* Epidermis
* Dermis
* Subcutaneous tissue
76
What are the main functions of the integumentary system?
* Protection against environmental hazards
* Prevention of water loss
* Temperature regulation
* Sensory input
* Synthesis of Vitamin D
* Excretion of waste products
77
Fill in the blank: The _______ is the body's largest organ system.
integumentary system
78
What are primary lesions in dermatology?
Develop on normal skin (e.g., macules, papules, vesicles)
79
What is the role of the dermis?
Contains collagen, elastin, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, hair follicles, and blood vessels
80
What are some common age-related changes in the skin?
* Thinning
* Dryness
* Wrinkling
* Slower wound healing
81
What is the treatment for urticaria (hives)?
Antihistamines, corticosteroids for severe cases
82
What are the two types of contact dermatitis?
* Irritant
* Allergic
83
What is the primary cause of alopecia?
Aging, genetics, or medical conditions
84
What are the risk factors for skin conditions?
* Prolonged UV exposure
* Genetics
* Chronic diseases
* Environmental factors
85
What are Triggers in relation to chest pain?
Factors that provoke or worsen chest pain
86
What is the significance of Severity in chest pain assessment?
Indicates the intensity and potential seriousness of the pain
87
What does Activity Limitations refer to in chest pain evaluation?
Restrictions in performing daily activities due to chest pain
88
What should be inspected during a respiratory assessment?
Chest shape, symmetry, use of accessory muscles
89
What is Tactile Fremitus?
Vibration felt on palpation when the patient speaks
90
What are normal breath sounds?
Vesicular and bronchial
91
What are abnormal breath sounds?
Crackles, wheezes, pleural rub
92
What are age-related changes in the respiratory system?
* Reduced elastic recoil
* Fewer functional alveoli
* Increased chest wall stiffness
93
What are the defense mechanisms of the respiratory system affected by age?
Reduced ciliary function and immune response
94
What happens to respiratory control with age?
Decreased sensitivity to hypoxia and hypercapnia
95
What is Atelectasis?
Collapsed alveoli due to insufficient surfactant
96
What characterizes Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
Chronic airflow limitation, increased airway resistance, reduced compliance
97
What is Pulmonary Edema?
Fluid accumulation in alveoli, impairing gas exchange
98
List common lower respiratory conditions.
* Acute bronchitis
* Pneumonia
* Tuberculosis (TB)
* Bronchiectasis
* Pulmonary infections
* Environmental and occupational lung diseases
99
What is the pathophysiology of Acute Bronchitis?
Inflammation of bronchi, often following an upper respiratory tract infection
100
What are common clinical features of Acute Bronchitis?
* Persistent cough
* Fever
* Headache
* Malaise
* Shortness of breath on exertion
101
What is the management approach for Acute Bronchitis?
* Supportive care
* Symptomatic treatment with bronchodilators or cough suppressants
* Antibiotics rarely indicated
102
What defines pneumonia?
Acute infection of the lung parenchyma caused by microbial agents
103
What types of pneumonia exist?
* Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP)
* Hospital-Acquired Pneumonia (HAP)
* Aspiration Pneumonia
* Opportunistic Pneumonia
104
What are common pathogens for Community-Acquired Pneumonia?
* Streptococcus pneumoniae
* Haemophilus influenzae
* Atypical organisms (e.g., Legionella, Mycoplasma)
105
What is the pathophysiology of pneumonia?
Infection leads to alveolar inflammation and fluid accumulation
106
List the stages of pneumonia.
* Congestion
* Red hepatization
* Gray hepatization
* Resolution
107
What are common symptoms of pneumonia?
* Fever
* Chills
* Productive cough
* Chest pain
* Dyspnea
108
What are the complications of pneumonia?
* Pleurisy
* Pleural effusion
* Atelectasis
* Lung abscess
* Bacteremia
* Meningitis
* Empyema
109
What is the primary cause of Tuberculosis (TB)?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
110
How is Tuberculosis transmitted?
Via airborne droplets from infected individuals
111
What are the clinical manifestations of Tuberculosis?
* Cough
* Fever
* Night sweats
* Weight loss
* Fatigue
112
What is Directly Observed Therapy (DOT) in TB management?
A method to ensure compliance with long-term antibiotic treatment
113
What is the purpose of a Thoracentesis?
To remove fluid from the pleural space
114
What is the primary prevention strategy for respiratory conditions?
Vaccination against influenza and pneumococcal infections
115
What is Asthma?
A chronic inflammatory disease of the airways causing wheezing and breathlessness
116
What are common asthma triggers?
* Allergens
* Exercise
* Cold air
* Respiratory infections
* Environmental tobacco smoke
117
What is the Asthma Action Plan?
A personalized plan to monitor and manage asthma
118
What medications are used for asthma management?
* Rescue inhalers (SABAs)
* Maintenance medications (ICS, LABAs)
119
What characterizes Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
Persistent airflow limitation and includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis
120
What are the early symptoms of COPD?
* Chronic cough
* Sputum production
* Dyspnea
121
What is the primary cause of COPD?
Smoking
122
What is the most important step to manage COPD?
Smoking cessation
123
What are the complications associated with COPD?
* Cor Pulmonale
* Acute Exacerbations (AECOPD)
* Respiratory Failure
124
What is the CAGE Questionnaire?
A screening tool for assessing substance use issues
125
What does Harm Reduction refer to?
Strategies to minimize negative health consequences of substance use
126
What are the '5 A's' of Smoking Cessation?
* Ask
* Advise
* Assess
* Assist
* Arrange
127
What is the definition of Chronic Illness?
A long-term condition that does not resolve spontaneously
128
What is Multimorbidity?
The coexistence of multiple chronic conditions in a single individual
129
What does the Teach-Back Method ensure?
Patient understanding of information provided by healthcare professionals
130
What are the symptoms of opioid withdrawal?
Physical discomfort, anxiety, nausea, restlessness
## Footnote
Typically not life-threatening.
131
What is Tobacco Use Disorder?
A diagnosis based on DSM-5 criteria for addiction to nicotine products, characterized by dependence and difficulty in quitting despite adverse health effects.
132
Define Trauma-Informed Care.
An approach in health care that acknowledges and addresses the impact of trauma on individuals, emphasizing safety, trust, and empowerment.
133
What are CNS Stimulants?
Substances that increase brain activity, causing increased alertness and energy (e.g., cocaine, amphetamines).
134
What are CNS Depressants?
Substances that reduce brain activity, resulting in relaxation or sedation (e.g., alcohol, benzodiazepines).
135
What is Cannabis?
A psychoactive substance derived from the cannabis plant, commonly used for its relaxing and euphoric effects.
136
What are Harmful Stereotypes?
Prejudiced beliefs that can negatively impact care, such as assumptions about specific populations being disproportionately affected by substance use.
137
What is Myocardial Ischemia?
Reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, often linked to nicotine use and associated with an increased risk of heart attacks.
138
Define Cultural Competence.
The ability of health care providers to deliver care that respects and responds to the cultural needs of diverse patients.
139
What are Smoking Cessation Programs?
Structured interventions that support individuals in quitting smoking, combining counseling, behavioral strategies, and pharmacotherapy.
140
What are Adhesions?
Bands of scar tissue that can form between or around organs, potentially causing complications like intestinal obstruction.
141
What is Anaplasia?
The reversion of cells to a more immature or embryonic form, often seen in malignant tumors.
142
Define Apoptosis.
Programmed cell death, a normal physiological process critical for maintaining cellular homeostasis.
143
What is Atrophy?
The reduction in the size or number of cells, tissues, or organs, often due to disease, aging, or inactivity.
144
What is Dehiscence?
The reopening or separation of a surgical wound or previously joined wound edges.
145
What is Dry Gangrene?
A type of tissue death (necrosis) that occurs due to a gradual decrease in blood flow, often related to chronic conditions like diabetes.
146
Define Dysplasia.
Abnormal cellular growth resulting in changes to size, shape, and organization, often a precursor to malignancy.
147
What is Evisceration?
The separation of wound edges to the extent that internal organs protrude through the wound.
148
What are Fibroblasts?
Immature connective tissue cells involved in collagen production and wound healing.
149
What is a Fistula?
An abnormal passage or connection between two organs or between an organ and the skin.
150
Define Hyperplasia.
An increase in the number of cells, leading to tissue enlargement, which can be physiological or pathological.
151
What is a Hypertrophic Scar?
A raised, thickened scar that remains confined to the site of the original wound.
152
What is Hypertrophy?
An increase in the size of individual cells, often due to increased workload or stress.
153
What is the Inflammatory Response?
The body’s reaction to injury or infection, involving vascular and cellular changes to neutralize harmful agents and promote healing.
154
What are Integrins?
Proteins on cell surfaces that mediate attachment between cells and their surrounding environment, playing roles in immune responses.
155
What is a Keloid?
A type of raised scar that extends beyond the original wound edges, often hereditary and more common in dark-skinned individuals.
156
What is Lethal Injury?
Cellular damage that is irreversible and results in cell death.
157
Define Metaplasia.
The transformation of one cell type into another due to environmental stimuli or injury.
158
What is Necrosis?
Unplanned tissue death caused by factors such as trauma, infection, or lack of blood supply.
159
What is a Pressure Injury?
Localized damage to the skin and underlying tissue due to prolonged pressure, often occurring in bedridden individuals.
160
What is Regeneration?
The replacement of damaged or lost cells by cells of the same type, restoring tissue function.
161
What is Repair?
The healing process involving the replacement of damaged tissue with connective tissue, often resulting in scar formation.
162
What are Selectins?
Cell adhesion molecules that play a role in immune responses by aiding the migration of white blood cells to injury sites.
163
What is a Shearing Force?
A force that causes layers of skin to slide against each other, often leading to tissue damage in bedridden patients.
164
What is Sublethal Injury?
Cellular damage that is not severe enough to cause death and can be reversible if the harmful stimulus is removed.
165
What is Wet Gangrene?
A form of gangrene resulting from a sudden loss of blood flow, often accompanied by bacterial infection and tissue liquefaction.
166
What is Acute Bronchitis?
Inflammation of the bronchi in the lower respiratory tract, usually caused by infection.
167
Define Atelectasis.
A condition in which one or more areas of the lungs collapse or fail to inflate properly, resulting in reduced gas exchange.
168
What are Blebs?
Small air-filled sacs or blisters on the surface of the lung that can rupture and cause pneumothorax.
169
What is Bronchiectasis?
A chronic condition characterized by permanent widening and damage to the bronchial tubes, leading to infection and mucus build-up.
170
What is Chylothorax?
Accumulation of lymphatic fluid (chyle) in the pleural cavity due to leakage from the thoracic duct.
171
What is Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP)?
Pneumonia contracted outside of healthcare settings or within the first 48 hours of hospital admission.
172
What is Cor Pulmonale?
Right-sided heart failure caused by high blood pressure in the lungs (pulmonary hypertension) due to chronic lung disease.
173
Define Empirical Therapy.
Treatment initiated based on clinical experience and symptoms before the specific cause of a condition is identified.
174
What is Empyema?
Collection of pus in the pleural cavity, often caused by infections like pneumonia.
175
What is Flail Chest?
A life-threatening condition where multiple adjacent ribs are fractured, leading to chest wall instability and compromised respiration.
176
What is Hemothorax?
Accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity, typically resulting from trauma or surgery.
177
What is Hospital-Acquired Pneumonia (HAP)?
Pneumonia that occurs 48 hours or more after hospital admission and is not present at the time of admission.
178
What is a Lung Abscess?
A localized collection of pus in the lung tissue, often resulting from severe infection or aspiration.
179
What is Pleural Effusion?
Excess fluid buildup between the layers of the pleura surrounding the lungs.
180
What is Pleurisy (Pleuritis)?
Inflammation of the pleura, causing chest pain that worsens with breathing.
181
What is Pneumoconiosis?
A group of lung diseases caused by inhalation of dust, leading to lung tissue damage.
182
What is Pneumonia?
An infection of the lung parenchyma caused by various microorganisms, leading to inflammation and fluid accumulation.
183
What is Pneumothorax?
The presence of air in the pleural cavity, causing lung collapse.
184
What is Pulmonary Edema?
Fluid accumulation in the air sacs of the lungs, leading to impaired gas exchange and difficulty breathing.
185
What is Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?
A blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, often caused by blood clots traveling from the legs.
186
What is Pulmonary Hypertension?
High blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs, leading to strain on the right side of the heart.
187
What is Tension Pneumothorax?
A severe type of pneumothorax where trapped air in the pleural cavity increases pressure, compressing the lung and surrounding structures.
188
What is Thoracentesis?
A procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space using a needle.
189
What is Thoracotomy?
A surgical incision into the chest wall, often performed to access the lungs or heart.
190
What is Tuberculosis (TB)?
A contagious infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, typically affecting the lungs but potentially other parts of the body as well.
191
What is Accommodation?
The process by which the eye’s lens changes shape to focus on objects at various distances.
192
What is Aqueous Humor?
A clear fluid in the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye, maintaining intraocular pressure and nourishing the cornea and lens.
193
What is Astigmatism?
A refractive error caused by an irregular curvature of the cornea or lens, leading to blurred or distorted vision.
194
What is the Conjunctiva?
A transparent mucous membrane covering the inner surfaces of the eyelids and the sclera.
195
What is Hyperopia?
Farsightedness, a condition where distant objects are seen more clearly than near ones due to light focusing behind the retina.
196
What is the Lens?
A biconvex, transparent structure in the eye that bends light rays to focus them on the retina.
197
What is Myopia?
Nearsightedness, a condition where close objects are seen clearly, but distant objects are blurry because light focuses in front of the retina.
198
What is Nystagmus?
Rapid, involuntary eye movements, which may result from neurological conditions or other disorders.
199
What does PERRLA stand for?
Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation.
200
What is the Posterior Cavity?
The space in the eye behind the lens filled with vitreous humor.
201
What is Presbycusis?
Age-related hearing loss affecting the ability to hear high-frequency sounds.
202
What is Presbyopia?
A normal age-related loss of the eye’s ability to focus on close objects due to decreased elasticity of the lens.
203
What is the Retina?
The innermost layer of the eye containing photoreceptor cells that convert light into electrical signals for vision.
204
What is the Sclera?
The white, opaque outer layer of the eyeball providing protection and structure.
205
What is Tinnitus?
The perception of ringing, buzzing, or other sounds in the ears without external stimuli.
206
What is Vertigo?
A sensation of spinning or dizziness caused by problems in the inner ear or central nervous system.
207
What is Vitreous Humor?
A gel-like substance filling the posterior cavity of the eye, helping maintain its shape and refracting light.
208
What is Metamorphopsia?
A visual distortion where objects may appear wavy or bent.
209
What is Ophthalmoscopy?
A diagnostic test where the eye’s interior, particularly the retina, is examined using an ophthalmoscope.
210
What are Drusen?
Yellow deposits under the retina, often associated with age-related macular degeneration (AMD).
211
What is the Amsler Grid Test?
A tool used to detect vision problems due to changes in the retina, such as AMD.
212
What is Fundus Photography?
Imaging of the interior surface of the eye, including the retina, optic disc, and blood vessels.
213
What is Intravenous Angiography?
A diagnostic test using dyes like fluorescein or indocyanine green to visualize blood vessels in the eye.
214
What is Photodynamic Therapy (PDT)?
A treatment for wet AMD that uses a photosensitizing drug activated by light to destroy abnormal blood vessels.
215
What is Glaucoma?
A group of eye disorders characterized by elevated intraocular pressure (IOP), optic nerve atrophy, and visual field loss.
216
What is Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma (POAG)?
The most common type of glaucoma where drainage channels of the eye become clogged, leading to increased IOP.
217
What is Primary Angle-Closure Glaucoma (PACG)?
Glaucoma caused by a sudden closure of the angle between the iris and the cornea, leading to a rapid increase in IOP.
218
What is Intraocular Pressure (IOP)?
The fluid pressure inside the eye, with normal levels ranging from 10–21 mm Hg.
219
What is Argon Laser Trabeculoplasty (ALT)?
A laser procedure to improve fluid drainage in the eye, used for treating glaucoma.
220
What is Trabeculectomy?
A surgical procedure to create a new drainage pathway to lower IOP in glaucoma patients.
221
What are Miotics?
Medications that cause the pupil to constrict, helping improve fluid outflow in glaucoma.
222
What are Hyperosmotic Medications?
Drugs that reduce IOP by drawing fluid out of the eye.
223
What is Uveitis?
Inflammation of the uveal tract, retina, or optic nerve, which can be caused by infections or autoimmune diseases.
224
What is Endophthalmitis?
Severe inflammation of the intraocular structures, often due to infection after surgery or injury.
225
What is Alopecia?
Partial or complete lack of hair, which may result from aging, medications, or other conditions.
226
What is Clubbing?
A distortion of the nail angle at the cuticle, resulting in bulbous nails and fingertips, typically caused by chronic hypoxemia.
227
What is Cyanosis?
A bluish or purplish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to insufficient oxygenation in the blood.
228
What is the Dermis?
The connective tissue layer below the epidermis, containing blood vessels, nerves, glands, and other structures.
229
What is the Epidermis?
The outermost layer of skin, consisting of keratinized epithelial cells and lacking vascular structures.
230
What is Erythema?
Redness of the skin caused by increased blood flow, often associated with inflammation or irritation.
231
What is Hirsutism?
Excessive hair growth in women in areas typically associated with male hair patterns, such as the face, chest, or back.
232
What does Intertriginous refer to?
Areas of skin that are in contact or rub against each other, such as beneath the breasts or in the groin.
233
What is Jaundice?
Yellowing of the skin, sclera, and mucous membranes caused by high levels of bilirubin in the blood.
234
What are Keratinocytes?
The primary cells in the epidermis that produce keratin, a protein essential for skin’s protective barrier.
235
What are Melanocytes?
Pigment-producing cells in the basal layer of the epidermis responsible for skin and hair color and UV protection.
236
What is a Mole (Nevus)?
A benign growth of melanocytes on the skin, often pigmented and varying in size.
237
What is Pallor?
A pale appearance of the skin, often due to reduced blood flow or decreased red blood cells.
238
What is Pruritus?
The sensation of itching, which may arise from skin irritation or systemic conditions.
239
What are Sebaceous Glands?
Skin glands that produce sebum, an oily substance that moisturizes and protects the skin.
240
What is Vitiligo?
A condition characterized by the loss of melanin in certain areas, resulting in white patches on the skin.
241
What is Melanoma?
A type of skin cancer arising from melanocytes, the pigment-producing cells in the skin.
242
What are Bacterial Infections?
Infections caused by bacteria, commonly affecting the skin due to breaks or systemic conditions.
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What are Viral Infections?
Skin conditions caused by viruses like Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and varicella-zoster (shingles).
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What are Fungal Infections?
Conditions caused by fungi, such as candidiasis and tinea (e.g., athlete’s foot).
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What are Infestations?
Presence of parasites like scabies and lice on the skin, leading to itching and inflammation.
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What is Contact Dermatitis?
An inflammation of the skin caused by irritants or allergens.
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What are Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) and Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)?
Severe, life-threatening skin reactions often triggered by medications or infections.
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What is Psoriasis?
A chronic autoimmune skin condition characterized by rapid skin cell turnover, leading to scaly, inflamed plaques.
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What is Phototherapy?
Use of UV light to treat skin conditions like psoriasis, eczema, and vitiligo.
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What is Cryosurgery?
A procedure using freezing temperatures to destroy abnormal skin tissue.
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What is Mohs Surgery?
A precise surgical technique used to treat skin cancer by removing thin layers of tissue.
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What are Corticosteroids?
Medications used topically, orally, or by injection to reduce inflammation.
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What is phototherapy?
Use of UV light to treat skin conditions like psoriasis, eczema, and vitiligo. Includes treatments like PUVA (psoralen + UVA).
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What is cryosurgery?
A procedure using freezing temperatures (liquid nitrogen) to destroy abnormal skin tissue, often used for warts, actinic keratosis, and superficial cancers.
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What is Mohs surgery?
A precise surgical technique used to treat skin cancer by removing thin layers of tissue and examining them for cancer cells.
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Define corticosteroids.
Medications used topically, orally, or systemically to reduce inflammation and immune responses in various skin conditions.
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What are topical medications?
Treatments applied directly to the skin in forms such as creams, ointments, or gels to address conditions like eczema, psoriasis, or acne.
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What are antihistamines used for?
Medications used to treat allergic reactions, such as itching and swelling, by blocking histamine receptors.
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What are immunomodulators?
Topical agents like pimecrolimus and tacrolimus used to modify the immune response, often for eczema and psoriasis.
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What are adventitious sounds?
Abnormal breath sounds, such as crackles, wheezes, or pleural friction rub, heard during auscultation.
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Define chemoreceptor.
A receptor that responds to changes in the chemical composition (PaCO2, pH, and oxygen levels) of the fluid surrounding it.
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What does compliance refer to in respiratory physiology?
The measure of the elasticity of the lungs and thorax, referring to how easily they can expand.
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What are crackles?
Discontinuous, high-pitched popping sounds heard during inspiration, caused by the sudden opening of airways.
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What is dyspnea?
The sensation of difficult or uncomfortable breathing.
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Define elastic recoil.
The tendency of the lungs to return to their original size after being stretched or expanded.
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What are mechanical receptors?
Receptors located in the lungs, upper airways, chest wall, and diaphragm that respond to irritants, muscle stretching, and alveolar wall distortion.
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What is a pleural friction rub?
A coarse, grating sound heard when the pleurae are inflamed and rub together.
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What is surfactant?
A lipoprotein secreted by alveolar cells that reduces surface tension in the alveoli, preventing their collapse.
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Define tactile fremitus.
The vibration of the chest wall felt when a patient speaks, used to assess lung density.
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What is tidal volume?
The amount of air exchanged with each breath during normal breathing, typically about 500 mL in adults.
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What does ventilation refer to?
The movement of air into and out of the lungs.
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What are wheezes?
High-pitched, musical sounds heard during expiration or inspiration, caused by narrowed airways.
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What is acute bronchitis?
Inflammation of the bronchi in the lower respiratory tract, often caused by infection.
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Define atelectasis.
A condition where the alveoli in the lungs collapse, leading to reduced gas exchange.
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What are blebs?
Small air-filled sacs on the lung surface, which can burst and lead to pneumothorax.
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What is bronchiectasis?
Chronic dilatation of the bronchi due to infection and inflammation, leading to mucus accumulation.
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What is chylothorax?
Accumulation of lymphatic fluid (chyle) in the pleural space, often caused by injury or obstruction of the thoracic duct.
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What is community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)?
Pneumonia acquired outside of healthcare settings, typically caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi.
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Define cor pulmonale.
Enlargement and failure of the right side of the heart due to chronic lung disease or pulmonary hypertension.
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What is empirical therapy?
Treatment initiated based on clinical observation and experience rather than definitive diagnostic tests.
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What is empyema?
Accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity, often a complication of pneumonia.
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What is flail chest?
A life-threatening condition where multiple adjacent ribs are fractured, causing instability in the chest wall.
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Define hemothorax.
Collection of blood in the pleural cavity, often due to trauma or surgery.
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What is hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)?
Pneumonia acquired 48 hours or more after hospital admission, caused by pathogens different from those in CAP.
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What is a lung abscess?
A localized collection of pus in the lung tissue caused by infection.
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Define pleural effusion.
Accumulation of excess fluid in the pleural space, which can impair lung expansion.
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What is pleurisy (pleuritis)?
Inflammation of the pleura, causing sharp chest pain during breathing.
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What is pneumoconiosis?
Chronic lung disease caused by inhalation of inorganic dust (e.g., silica or asbestos).
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What is pneumonia?
Acute inflammation of the lung parenchyma caused by infectious agents like bacteria, viruses, or fungi.
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Define pneumothorax.
Collapse of the lung due to air entering the pleural space, causing breathing difficulties.
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What is pulmonary edema?
Fluid accumulation in the alveoli, leading to impaired gas exchange and respiratory distress.
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What is pulmonary embolism (PE)?
A blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries, typically caused by a blood clot.
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Define pulmonary hypertension.
Increased blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries, which can lead to heart strain.
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What is tension pneumothorax?
A life-threatening condition where air enters the pleural space and cannot escape, causing pressure on the lungs and heart.
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What is thoracentesis?
A procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space using a needle.
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What is thoracotomy?
Surgical incision into the chest wall for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.
297
Define tuberculosis (TB).
An infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, typically affecting the lungs but also other parts of the body.
298
What is an asthma action plan?
A written guide designed to help individuals with asthma monitor and manage their symptoms.
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What is peak expiratory flow (PEF)?
A measurement of how quickly a person can exhale air, typically used to monitor lung function.
300
Define Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD).
A preventable, progressive disease characterized by persistent airflow limitation, commonly caused by smoking.
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What is emphysema?
A condition within COPD where the alveoli are destroyed, reducing surface area for gas exchange.
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What defines chronic bronchitis?
A productive cough lasting for at least three months in two consecutive years, involving inflammation of the bronchial tubes.
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What is environmental tobacco smoke (ETS)?
Also known as secondhand smoke, it is a harmful indoor air pollutant that can worsen respiratory conditions.
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What is work-related asthma (WRA)?
Asthma triggered or exacerbated by exposures in the workplace.
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What is self-monitoring in respiratory conditions?
The practice of individuals tracking their symptoms or lung function to manage chronic conditions.
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What are short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs)?
Medications used as 'rescue inhalers' for quick relief of asthma or COPD symptoms.
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What are long-acting beta-agonists (LABAs)?
Bronchodilators used for ongoing symptom control in asthma and COPD.
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What are inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)?
Medications delivered via inhalation to reduce inflammation in the airways.
309
What are pulmonary function tests (PFTs)?
Tests that measure lung function, including airflow and volume.
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What is arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis?
A test measuring oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood.
311
Define spirometry.
A common diagnostic test that measures the volume and speed of air a person can inhale and exhale.
312
What is alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency?
A genetic condition where a lack of AAT protein leads to lung damage.
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What are bronchodilators?
Medications that relax the muscles around the airways, improving airflow.
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What is dyspnea?
A subjective feeling of breathlessness or difficulty breathing.
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Define hypercapnia.
An elevated level of carbon dioxide in the blood.
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What is hypoxemia?
A low level of oxygen in the blood.
317
What is barrel chest?
A physical symptom of severe COPD where the chest becomes rounded.
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What is pulmonary rehabilitation?
A program combining exercise training, education, and support for chronic respiratory diseases.
319
What is smoking cessation?
The process of quitting smoking, the most effective way to slow disease progression in COPD.
320
Define mucus hypersecretion.
Excessive production of mucus, often seen in chronic bronchitis.
321
What is an acute exacerbation of COPD (AECOPD)?
A sudden worsening of COPD symptoms, often requiring medical intervention.
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What is the tripod position?
A posture adopted by individuals with severe dyspnea, where they sit leaning forward.
