SECOND TEST Flashcards
(160 cards)
1
Q
always burns but never tans
A
pale skin, red hair and freckles
2
Q
usually burns, sometimes tans
A
fair skin
3
Q
may burn, usually tans
A
darker skin
4
Q
rarely burns, always tans
A
mediterranean
5
Q
moderate constitutional pigmentation
A
latin american, middle eastern
6
Q
marked constitutional pigmentation
A
black
7
Q
braden scale ranges
A
6-23
8
Q
what does the push tool do
A
measures pressure ulcer healing
0 is completely healed
4 is necrotic tissue
9
Q
narrowing of the blood vessels which reduce blood flow to the limbs
A
peripheral vascular disease
10
Q
what does the vascular system include
A
arteries, veins, lymphatic system and capillaries
11
Q
pulse points
A
Carotid, femoral, brachial, radial, popliteal, posterior tibial, doralis pedis
12
Q
largest vein
A
Great saphenous vein
13
Q
not moving legs can cause blood to pool which increases pressure on the veins
A
venous stasis
14
Q
drain excess fluid and plasma proteins from bodily tissues and return them to the venous system
A
lymphatic system
15
Q
Cold, pale, clammy skin and shiny skin with loss of hair is associated with
A
arterial insufficiency
16
Q
Warm skin, edema, and brown pigmentation around the ankles is associated with
A
venous insufficiency
17
Q
ethnicity at highest risk for PAD
A
black
18
Q
where are arterial ulcers located
A
toes, foot, or lateral ankle ; they hurt
19
Q
where are venous ulcers located
A
lower leg or medial ankle
20
Q
Oral and patch contraceptives puts a woman at risk for
A
thrombophlebitis, hypertension and edema
21
Q
what is the doppler device used for
A
when you cannot palpate a pulse in extremities
Assesses tissue perfusion in an extremity
22
Q
checking for varicose veins what test do you perform
A
trendelenburg test
23
Q
vasoconstriction/vasospasm of the fingers and toes that causes rapid changes of color which occurs bilaterally
Cold fingers and hands
A
raynauds
24
Q
what does pitting edema mean
A
systemic problem. heart failure/ hepatic cirrhosis
25
Compares upper and lower limb systolic blood pressure
ankle-brachial index
26
what should pressures be for ABI
arterial should be 120
| veins should be 40
27
difference between lymphedema and chronic venous insufficiency
lymph- NONPITTING
No skin ulceration or pigmentation
CVI- Pitting 1-4 scale
Skin ulcers and pigment is present
28
why is tetnaus important? what vaccine should we get t avoid it
it stops the diaphragm from working; TDAP
29
what happens with pertussis
they are coughing so much they can't do anything else
30
abnormal breathing sounds are also known as
adventitious sounds
31
orthopnea is associated with heart failure
true
32
when patient first walks in what do we do
general survey
33
what do we care about with murmurs
timing, pitch, quality, and pattern
34
sebum has some fungicidal and bactericidal effects
true
35
to avoid skin cancer, what vitamin should you make sure you get a lot of
vitamin b3- niacin
36
what is MRSA and how to avoid it
group A beta strep that is difficult to treat. avoid it by not sharing personal items, keep wounds closed, avoid unsafe nail care
37
what is braden scale used for
predicting pressure sore risk
38
what is push tool used for
measure pressure ulcer healing
39
how is braden scale rated
6- very bad
| 23- very good no problem risk
40
a person at nail risk should wear what type of shoes
leather shoes except during sports
41
stage 1 pressure ulcer
reddened palpable area. may be pain, soft and firm. in a localized area
42
stage 2 pressure ulcer
blister, different colors of red, no sloughing; serum filled blister
43
stage 3 pressure ulcer
in the subcutaneous layer; slough may be present
44
stage 4 pressure ulcer
full thickness tissue loss; bone, muscle, or tendon are visible along with slough
45
unstageable pressure ulcer
whole thing is covered in slough and therefore the depth isn't known
46
small, flat, non palpable skin color change. less than 1 cm with circumscribed border
macule
47
small, flat, non palpable skin color change. bigger than 1 cm with irregular border
patch
48
elevated palpable, solid mass. circumscribed border less than 0.5 cm; warts, nevi, and lichen planus
papule
49
elevated palpable, solid mass. greater than 0.5 cm; psoriasis and actinic keratosis
plaque
50
elevated, solid, palpable mass that extends deeper into dermis than papule. o.5-2cm and circumscribed; keloid, lipoma, squamous cell carcinoma, poorly absorbed injection
nodule
51
elevated, solid, palpable mass that extends deeper into dermis than papule greater than 1-2 cm and do not always have sharp borders; larger lipoma and carcinoma
tumor
52
circumscribed elevated, palpable mass containing serous fluid; smaller; herpes, varicella, poison ivy, and second degree burn
vesicle
53
circumscribed elevated, palpable mass containing serous fluid; larger; dermatitis, large burn blisters, poison ivy, bullous impetigo
bulla
54
elevated mass with transient borders that is often irregular.size and color vary and caused by serous fluid into the dermis; hives and insect bites
wheal
55
secondary skin lesions
scar, erosion, fissure, ulcer
56
vascular skin lesions
petechia, ecchymosis, hematoma, cherry angioma, spider angioma, telangiectasis
57
parallel ridges running lengthwise.
longitudinal ridging
58
nails that are half white on upper proximal half and pink on the distal half
half and half nails
59
nails seen in psoriasis
pitting
60
spoon shaped nails that may be seen with trauma to cuticles or nail folds or in iron deficiency anemia, endocrine, or cardiac disease
koilonychia
61
grow slow and are curved. seen in AIDS and respiratory syndromes
yellow nail syndrome
62
local infection
paronychia
63
Extends from the base of the neck superiorly to the level of the diaphragm inferiorly
thorax
64
distal portion of the trachea, bronchi
lungs
65
thin, double-layered serous membrane that lines the thoracic cavity
pleura
66
ethnicity at risk for lung cancer
black men
67
what position is seen in COPD patients
tripod position; leaning forward and lifts chest to increase breathing
68
crackling sensation
crepitus
69
vibrations of air in the bronchial tubes transmitted to the chest wall.
fremitus
70
another name for tone
resonance
71
what are the 3 types of normal breath sounds
vesicular, bronchial, and brochiovesicular
72
Ask the client to repeat the phrase “ninety-nine” while you auscultate the chest wall.
bronchophony
73
Ask the client to repeat the letter “E” while you listen over the chest wall.
egophony
74
Ask the client to whisper the phrase “one–two–three” while you auscultate the chest wall
whispered pectoriloquy
75
what 3 breathing characteristics are important
rate, rhythm, and depth
76
Labored and noisy breathing
severe asthma or chronic bronchitis
77
hyperresonance
emphysema and pneumothorax
78
what are boobs for
Produce and store milk that provides nourishment for newborns
Aid in sexual stimulation
79
A pigskin-like or orange-peel appearance results from edema, which is seen in metastatic breast disease
true
80
lesions are lobular, ovoid, or round. firm, well defined, seldom tender, and usually singular and mobile; occur more commonly between puberty and menopause
fibroadenomas
81
fibrocystic breast disease; marked by round, elastic, defined, tender, and mobile cysts; most common age 30 to menopause
benign breast disease
82
irregular, firm, hard, not defined masses that may be fixed or mobile; usually not tender and occur after age 50
cancerous tumor
83
what position should one be in for breast self examination
lying down
84
tissue in the breast
glandular tissue
85
relaxation of the ventricles
diastole
86
contraction of the ventricles
systole
87
level of the jugular venous pressure represents what
right atrial pressure
88
whats homans a sign of
deep vein thrombosis
89
Pain: intermittent claudication to sharp, unrelenting, constant
Pulses: diminished or absent
Skin characteristics: dependent rubor
arterial insufficiency
90
Pain: aching, cramping
Pulses: present, but may be difficult to palpate through edema
venous insufficiency
91
which physical assessment technique elicits crepitus
palpation
92
a client with pectus carinatum has what kind of chest
forward protrusion
93
proper sequence for auscultation of the lungs
listen at each site for at least one complete cycle
94
honey color exudate in a vesicular rash is
impetigo
95
freckle like pigmentation in the nail beds are normal for what kind of client
dark skinned people
96
what light is used for fungal infections
wood light
97
hirsutism, facial hair on females, is in what condition
cushings
98
pectus carinatum chest looks like
forward protrusion
99
sibilant wheezes are heard in what diseases
acute asthma and chronic emypsema
100
sonorous wheezes are heard in what disease
bronchitis and snoring before an episode of sleep apnea
101
pectorlioquy normal
1,2,3 is heard clearly
102
characteristics of fibroadenoma
round, firm, well-defined
103
indication of a malignant tumor
retracting of the nipple
104
late age at birth of first child ; after 30 years old
nulliparity
105
when to perform a self breast examination
right after menstrual flow stops
106
lymph nodes that are hard, enlarged, and fixed are
malignant
107
what disease causes the orange peel look
metastatic disease
108
4 things to do when examining lungs and thorax
observe, palpate, percussion, and auscultation
109
s1
contracting
110
s2
relaxing
111
what s is normal with age
s3
112
traditional areas of auscultation for heart sounds
```
Aortic
Pulmonic
Erb's
Tricuspid
o
Mitral
a
n
```
113
what is the last wave
U wave
114
atrial depolarization; conduction of the impulse throughout the atria
P wave
115
time from the beginning of the atrial depolarization to the beginning of the ventricular depolarization, that is, from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex
PR interval
116
ventricular depolarization (also atrial repolarization); conduction of the impulse throughout the ventricles, which then triggers contraction of the ventricles; measured from the beginning of the Q wave to the end of S wave
QRS complex
117
period between ventricular depolarization and the beginning of ventricular repolarization
ST segment
118
ventricular repolarization; the ventricles return to a resting state
T wave
119
total time for ventricular depolarization and repolarization, that is, from the beginning of the Q wave to the end of the T wave; it varies with heart rate
QT interval
120
may or may not be present; if present it follows the T wave and represents the final phase of ventricular repolarization
U wave
121
ask the client to repeat the phrase ninety nine while you auscultate the chest wall
bronchophony
122
ask the client to repeat the letter E while you listen over the chest wall
egopohony
123
ask the client to whisper the phrase 1, 2, 3 while you auscultate the chest wall
whispered pectoriloquy
124
whats an abnormal finding with bronchophony
words are easily understood and louder over areas of increased density
125
whats an abnormal finding with ego phony
the sound is louder and sounds like A
126
whats an abnormal finding with whispered pectoriloquy
sound is transmitted clearly and distinctly ; sounds as if the client whispered directly into the stethoscope
127
what does the ankle brachial index measuring? what is ti for
measuring arterial insufficiency and it is for patients at risk for PAD
128
40 year old women should have a mammogram when
should have a screening yearly
129
50-74 year old women should have a mammogram when
biennial screening ; every other year
130
women over 75 should have a mammogram when
over 75 dont need
131
women age 20-39 should get a mammogram when
every 3 years
132
what type of pulse is for a left ventricular failure patient
pulsus alternans
133
what is heard when palpating the carotid artery
s1
134
heart rate that speeds up during inspiration and slows down during expiration is called
sinus arrhythmia
135
blood pumped from the heart with each contraction
stroke volume
136
amount of blood pumped by the ventricles during a given period of time
cardiac output
137
what indicates obstructive pulmonary disease
elevated venous pressure only during expiration
138
when dangling a clients legs, how long should it take for the color to return back to legs
less than 10 seconds
139
patient has lymphedema in one arm. what question should you ask her
history of breast surgery because its a blocked lymphatic which stops the flow to the breasts
140
connecting the skin to underlying structures
subcutaneous tissue
141
clients skin color depends on melanin and carotene contained in the skin and
volume of blood circulating in the dermis
142
hair follicles, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands originate from
dermis
143
the nails are composed of
keratinized epidermal cells
144
squamous cell carcinoma is associated with
overall amount of sun exposure
145
most common body sites with heavy sun exposure
squamous cell
146
generalized hair loss not associated with radiation or chemo is
hypothyroidism
147
anemia in dark skinned people is what color
ashen
148
a fungal disease with the presence of a wood light.. what color is the fungus
blue
149
early clubbing is related to
hypoxia
150
linear cracks in the skin on both feet
fissures
151
velvety darkening of the skin in body folds and creases
acanthosis nigricans
152
early clubbing and late clubbing are caused by
hypoxia
153
rust color sputum
tb
154
labored and noisy breathing is seen with
asthma and chronic bronchitis
155
noticeably deeper pit; extremity looks larger
3
156
very deep pit; gross edema in extremity
4
157
no obvious signs or symptoms ; impaired lymph drainage is subclinical
stage 0
158
swelling is present. affected area pits with pressure. elevation relieves swelling skin texture is smooth
stage 1
159
skin is firmer, looks tight and shiny and may have a spongy feel. elevation doesn't alleviate swelling
stage 2
160
limb is large, area is not pitting ; skin firm and thick with hard underlying tissue ; may ooze fluid
stage 3
