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Ethics in Technology D333 > Section 1 Study Guide > Flashcards

Section 1 Study Guide Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a normative statement?

A

A normative statement expresses a judgment about what ought to be rather than what is.

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2
Q

What is a descriptive statement?

A

It explains or describes the way things are, were, or will be—without expressing opinions or judgments.

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3
Q

What is an ethical framework?

A

It guides decision-making about what is right and wrong.

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4
Q

What are the three basic problems in ethics?

A
  • Limited resources
  • Competing kinds of goods
  • Different ideas about what is good
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5
Q

How do ethics and self-interest relate according to the chapter?

A

Ethics and self-interest aren’t opposites; you can pursue goals without harming others while considering their well-being.

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6
Q

What is the ‘invisibility factor’ of computing technologies?

A

It includes issues like malicious abuse, programming values, and unchallenged assumptions about complex calculations.

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7
Q

What are the three changes brought about by computer technologies?

A
  • Reproducibility
  • Information flow
  • Identity conditions
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8
Q

What are two advantages of using stories to examine ethical issues?

A
  • Stories capture unexpected ethical quandaries
  • Characters shape perceptions and choices
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9
Q

What role do professional societies play in ethical norms?

A

They articulate a code of ethics for practitioners and express the collective wisdom of the field.

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10
Q

What is the Hippocratic Oath?

A

A code of ethics for medical professionals that guides them to help the sick without causing harm.

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11
Q

What is communitarianism in ethics?

A

An ethical framework emphasizing social connections that inform ethical judgments.

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12
Q

What does virtue ethics focus on?

A

Moral development and the formation of good habits, emphasizing character over rules or consequences.

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13
Q

What is deontology?

A

An ethical approach focused on duties, rights, and moral obligations, emphasizing the rightness or wrongness of actions.

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14
Q

What are the three major traditions within deontology?

A
  • Social Contract Theory
  • Theological Deontology
  • Rationalist Deontology
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15
Q

What is the ultimate goal of virtue ethics?

A

Human flourishing or eudaimonia—living well and fulfilling one’s potential.

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16
Q

What is utilitarianism?

A

A moral theory evaluating actions based on outcomes, aiming to produce the greatest happiness for the greatest number.

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17
Q

What are the core principles of utilitarianism?

A
  • Principle of Utility
  • Equality
  • Hedonism in Classical Utilitarianism
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18
Q

What are the main criticisms of traditional ethical frameworks?

A

They often have a narrow view of cause and effect, oversimplifying complex ethical situations.

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19
Q

What is feminist ethics?

A

An ethical approach that challenges the exclusion of women and marginalized groups, focusing on lived experiences and relationships.

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20
Q

What is the Capability Approach?

A

An approach focusing on creating conditions for individuals to realize their full potential, evaluating actions and policies based on capabilities.

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21
Q

What is a profession?

A

A service needed by society, requiring expertise not easily controlled by non-expert regulators.

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22
Q

What is a conflict of interest?

A

When a professional acts in the interest of one client that may harm another client.

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23
Q

What is certification?

A

A credential verifying knowledge or skills in a specific field, often valued by employers.

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24
Q

What is licensing?

A

Official permission granted by a government authority to engage in a specific activity, requiring minimum competence.

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25
What are the core characteristics of a profession?
* Core body of theoretical knowledge * Authority for decision-making * Special privileges by the community * Code of Ethics * Culture
26
What are three functions of codes of ethics?
* Guide Professional Conduct for the Public Good * Establish Standards for Technology Use * Build Public Trust
27
What are the three utilitarian approaches to ethical decision-making?
* Cost-benefit analysis approach * Act-utilitarian approach * Rule-utilitarian approach
28
What are the three approaches based on respect for persons?
* Golden rule approach * Self-defeating approach * Rights approach
29
What is the SECEPP?
The Software Engineering Code of Ethics, developed to target software engineering specifically.
30
What is the Golden rule approach in ethical decision-making?
Imagine what would happen if another person/company acted as we are considering.
31
What does the self-defeating approach in ethical decision-making entail?
Look at the action in a negative way; would other people acting in this way invalidate or reduce the usefulness of this action.
32
What is the rights approach in ethical decision-making?
List all the rights people have relevant to the action then decide on one that does not impinge these rights.
33
What does SECEPP stand for?
Software Engineering Code of Ethics and Professional Practice.
34
What is the purpose of the SECEPP?
Provides detailed ethical guidelines for software engineers to help make ethical decisions, promote integrity, responsibility, and prioritize public interest.
35
How does the ACM Code of Ethics address privacy?
RESPECT PRIVACY.
36
How does the IEEE Code of Ethics address discrimination?
To treat all persons fairly, regardless of differences or prejudices.
37
What do the ACM and IEEE codes of ethics say about professional development?
Maintain high standards of professional and technical competence, and support colleagues in the growth of the profession.
38
What are the seven principles outlined by the ACM for algorithms?
Awareness, Access and Redress, Accountability, Explanation, Data Provenance, Auditability, Validation and Testing.
39
Define moral imagination.
The ability to think creatively and empathetically about ethical issues, considering different perspectives and possible consequences.
40
What is the importance of moral imagination in ethical decision-making?
Helps go beyond rigid rules, encourages empathy, supports creative solutions, and aids in avoiding unintended harm.
41
Define a Zero-day exploit.
A cyberattack that happens before the security community becomes aware of and fixes a security weakness.
42
What are several reasons why computer incidents are prevalent?
* Increasing complexity increases vulnerability * Expanding systems introduce new risks * BYOD policies encourage access from personal devices * Reliance on commercial software with known vulnerabilities.
43
What is a Black hat hacker?
Someone who violates computer or Internet security maliciously or for illegal personal gain.
44
What is a malicious insider?
An employee or contractor who attempts to gain financially or disrupt a company’s information systems.
45
Define Cybercriminal.
Someone who attacks a computer system or network for financial gain.
46
What is a Cyberterrorist?
Someone who attempts to destroy the infrastructure components of governments, financial institutions, and other corporations.
47
What is a Cracker?
An individual who causes problems, steals data, and corrupts systems.
48
Define Ransomware.
Malware that keeps you from using your computer or accessing data until certain demands are met.
49
What is a Virus?
A piece of programming code that causes a computer to behave in an unexpected manner.
50
Define a Worm.
A harmful program that resides in the active memory of the computer and duplicates itself.
51
What is a Trojan Horse?
A seemingly harmless program in which malicious code is hidden.
52
Define a Blended Threat.
A sophisticated threat that combines features of a virus, worm, trojan horse, and other malicious code.
53
What are the usual requirements for spamming in legal states?
* Cannot disguise identity * Must include an ad label * Must include a way to deny future mailings.
54
How common is spam?
Spam averaged 57 percent of emails in one week in January, 2015.
55
Define a DDoS Attack.
A malicious hacker takes over computers to flood a target site with demands.
56
What is a Botnet?
A large group of computers controlled by hackers without the owners' knowledge.
57
Define a Rootkit.
A set of programs that enables user to gain administrator-level access without consent.
58
What does APT stand for?
Advanced Persistent Threat.
59
What is Spear Phishing?
A variation of phishing targeting specific organization employees with fraudulent emails.
60
Define Smishing.
A variation of phishing that involves texting.
61
What is the Department of Homeland Security (DHS)?
A federal agency with a budget of almost $65 billion aimed at providing a safer America.
62
What does the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act address?
Fraud and related activities in association with computers.
63
What does the Fraud and Related Activity in Connection with Access Devices Statute cover?
False claims regarding unauthorized use of credit cards.
64
What does the Stored Wire and Electronic Communications and Transactional Records Access Statutes focus on?
Unlawful access to stored communications.
65
What does the USA Patriot Act define?
Cyberterrorism and associated penalties.
66
What are the three components of the CIA triad?
* Confidentiality * Integrity * Availability.
67
Define Risk-Assessment.
The process of assessing security-related risks to an organization’s computers and networks.
68
What does Reasonable Assurance mean?
Managers must ensure that the cost of control does not exceed benefits or risks.
69
What is a Disaster Recovery Plan?
A documented process for recovering an organization’s business information system assets after a disaster.
70
What is a Business Continuity Plan?
Conduct a business impact analysis to identify critical business processes and resources.
71
What does a good security policy do?
Delineates responsibilities and expected behavior of organization members.
72
What should a good security audit do?
Test system safeguards to ensure they are operating as intended.
73
What does the Bank Secrecy Act of 190 require?
Financial institutions to assist U.S. government agencies in detecting and preventing money laundering.
74
What does the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act make illegal?
Certain payments to foreign officials.
75
What does the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act govern?
Collection, disclosure, and protection of consumers’ personal information.
76
What does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act regulate?
Use and disclosure of an individual’s health information.
77
What does the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard provide?
Framework for safe handling of cardholder information.
78
What does the Sarbanes-Oxley Act protect against?
Accounting errors and fraudulent practices in enterprises.
79
Give an example of an authentication method.
A user logs into their email account by entering a username and password.
80
How is a next-generation firewall (NGFW) different from a standard firewall?
An NGFW detects and blocks sophisticated attacks by filtering network traffic based on packet contents.
81
Define an Encryption Key.
A special code used to lock or unlock information.
82
What is Triple Layer Security (TLS)?
A communications protocol ensuring privacy between applications and users on the internet.
83
How does an intrusion detection system work?
Monitors system and network resources, notifying security personnel of suspicious activities.
84
What are several components of a good security education for employees?
* Guard passwords * Prohibit others from using passwords * Report unusual activity.
85
What does most antivirus software scan for?
Scans for viruses and specific sequences of bytes known as virus signatures.
86
What are key elements included in a formal incident report after a cyberattack?
* Method used to gain access * Discussion of exploited vulnerabilities * Determination of host compromise.
87
What is a Managed Security Service Provider (MSSP)?
A company that monitors, manages, and maintains security for other organizations.
88
What is the role of a computer forensics team?
Investigate incidents and conduct forensic analysis to ensure network security.

Ethics in Technology D333 (8 decks)

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