Section 13: Flight Operations

Question 1

What must be in the aircraft prior to departure?

Answer 1

Airworthiness certificate, Aircraft Registration, AFM including weight and balance data and equipment list, MEL (if authorized), operations manual with latest revision, passenger briefing card for each passenger, extra headset for FAA inspector, normal and emergency checklists

FCC Radio Station license is no longer required for aircraft operating domestically.

Question 2

What items must be in each pilot’s personal possession?

Answer 2

Personal headset with microphone, Pilot and medical certificates, additional photo ID (e.g., driver’s license), flashlight with at least two ‘D’ cells or equivalent for night flight, pen, appropriate VFR/IFR and approach charts and/or Electronic Flight Bag, Airport Security ID badge (if applicable)

FCC Restricted Radiotelephone Operator permit is not required for domestic operations using VHF.

Question 3

What does AFM stand for?

Answer 3

Aircraft Flight Manual

Question 4

What is the purpose of the MEL?

Answer 4

Minimum Equipment List authorized for the aircraft

Question 5

What does VFR stand for?

Answer 5

Visual Flight Rules

Question 6

What does IFR stand for?

Answer 6

Instrument Flight Rules

Question 7

What type of flashlight is required for night flight?

Answer 7

One flashlight with at least two ‘D’ cells or equivalent

Question 8

Is an FCC Radio Station license required for domestic operations?

Answer 8

No

Question 9

What must be included in the operations manual?

Answer 9

Latest revision incorporated

Question 10

What is required for a passenger before departure?

Answer 10

A passenger briefing card for each passenger

Question 11

According to FAR 61.3, what additional ID must pilots have?

Answer 11

Photo ID such as a driver’s license

Question 12

What is the function of the extra headset on the aircraft?

Answer 12

For an FAA inspector in case of an enroute inspection

Question 13

What type of checklists are required in the aircraft?

Answer 13

Normal and emergency checklists

Question 14

Who remains the PIC until the conclusion of the flight?

Answer 14

The assigned PIC

Question 15

What must the PIC state clearly when changing from PF to PNF responsibilities?

Answer 15

You have this leg

Question 16

What phrase should the PF use to indicate they are relinquishing control?

Answer 16

You have the flight controls

Question 17

What should the PNF respond when taking control from the PF?

Answer 17

I have the flight controls

Question 18

True or False: There should be any doubt about who the PF and PNF are at any point in flight.

Answer 18

False

Question 19

Fill in the blank: The PIC must state change _______ and unambiguously.

Answer 19

clearly

Question 20

What are the two roles mentioned in aircraft control responsibilities?

Answer 20

• Pilot Flying (PF)
• Pilot Not Flying (PNF)

Question 21

What should the PIC arrange regarding checklist items during critical flight times?

Answer 21

To minimize checklist items during climb, descent, departures, and arrivals in congested areas

This is to ensure focus on visual scanning outside the aircraft.

Question 22

Why is visual scanning emphasized during certain phases of flight?

Answer 22

Because mid-air collision threats are most likely to occur during climb, descent, and congested arrivals

Visual scanning helps to identify other traffic and avoid potential collisions.

Question 23

In the presence of a SIC, how should checklists be read?

Answer 23

The PNF will read the checklists as a challenge, and the PF will give a verbal response for each item specifying action taken

This method promotes effective communication and ensures checklist items are properly addressed.

Question 24

What is a potential risk when completing checklists?

Answer 24

Becoming so preoccupied with checklist completion that aircraft control becomes secondary

Prioritizing aircraft control is crucial for safety.

Question 25

Checklist use is also covered in which section?

Answer 25

Par. 13.17 Instrument Approach Procedures ## Footnote This indicates that checklist procedures are important throughout various phases of flight.

Question 26

What is included in the general briefing prior to takeoff?

Answer 26

ATC clearance, settings and configuration of flight instruments, radio and navigation equipment, follow-up configuration for normal departure or malfunction ## Footnote Follow-up configuration includes procedures for an immediate return to the airfield if necessary.

Question 27

What are the specific items to be briefed in the standard procedures?

Answer 27

* Power setting (EPR, N1, or Temp) * Appropriate flap setting * V speeds * Acceleration Altitude * Transition altitude * Level Off Height * Departure procedures * Immediate return procedures in case of emergency ## Footnote These items are standardized for the specific type of aircraft being flown.

Question 28

What critical airspeeds should be identified for single-engine aircraft prior to takeoff?

Answer 28

VY, VX, VR, and best glide for current conditions and aircraft configuration ## Footnote These speeds are essential for effective performance during takeoff and emergencies.

Question 29

What is the purpose of establishing an abort point during takeoff?

Answer 29

To determine the point at which the aircraft hasn't reached 70% of takeoff speed and may need to abort the takeoff ## Footnote This is crucial for safety in case of engine failure or other emergencies.

Question 30

What should the pilot flying brief regarding engine failure during and after takeoff?

Answer 30

Plan for engine failure, including options to land straight ahead, turn towards a favorable off-field location, or turn back towards the airport ## Footnote Considerations should include crosswinds, precipitation, differential power, and anti-icing.

Question 31

True or False: The PIC can revise the pre-takeoff briefing.

Answer 31

True ## Footnote The PIC may revise the briefing if a different procedure will result in safer or more efficient operation.

Question 32

What should be included on the takeoff/landing card?

Answer 32

Vapp, Vref, and max gross weight landing numbers ## Footnote The TOLD card must be filled out completely before departure or landing.

Question 33

What is the difference between general and standard briefings?

Answer 33

General briefing covers ATC clearance and configurations, while standard briefing covers airspeed call-outs and procedures standardized for the aircraft ## Footnote Standard procedures are specific to the company and type of aircraft.

Question 34

What is a common issue when using a runway as a taxiway?

Answer 34

Pilots may mistakenly depart on the runway they are taxiing on instead of the assigned departure runway.

Question 35

What psychological factors can affect pilots during taxiing and takeoff?

Answer 35

Company procedures, passengers, running late, personal issues.

Question 36

Which airports have been noted to have higher runway events?

Answer 36

* CLE * HOU * SLC * MIA * LAS

Question 37

What does the FAA recommend to avoid mistakes during taxiing?

Answer 37

* Review airport layouts * Review NOTAMs * Have a current airport diagram * Write down complex taxi instructions * Ensure both crew members understand taxi clearances * Maintain situational awareness

Question 38

What is a key function of Crew Resource Management (CRM) in flight operations?

Answer 38

Identify and resolve conflicting perceptions of ATC instructions.

Question 39

What accident occurred involving an MD-88 and approach lights?

Answer 39

The MD-88 struck an approach light structure due to inaccurate vertical speed information.

Question 40

What was the NTSB's conclusion regarding the vertical speed indicator (VSI) in the MD-88 accident?

Answer 40

The flight crew was unaware that the aircraft had a VSI rather than an IVSI.

Question 41

True or False: Specific read back of altitude in the approach clearance is mandatory.

Answer 41

False.

Question 42

What should pilots do if they omit altitude read back?

Answer 42

Expect verification from the controller regarding assigned altitude.

Question 43

What is the purpose of a post-flight after landing check?

Answer 43

To discover items that might delay the aircraft's next departure.

Question 44

What FAR requires pilots to be familiar with minimum altitudes for autopilot use?

Answer 44

FAR 135.93.

Question 45

What is the requirement for aircraft operating over water in the event of engine failure?

Answer 45

Must operate at an altitude allowing return to land.

Question 46

What altitude minimums are outlined in FAR 135.203?

Answer 46

More restrictive VFR minimums compared to FAR 91.119.

Question 47

What is RVSM and when was it implemented?

Answer 47

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums, implemented on January 20, 2005.

Question 48

What equipment is required for RVSM operations?

Answer 48

* Two primary altitude measurement systems * One automatic altitude-control system * One altitude-alerting device * ATCRBS Transponder

Question 49

What must pilots do if required RVSM equipment fails prior to entering RVSM airspace?

Answer 49

Request a new clearance to avoid flight in RVSM airspace.

Question 50

What altitude assignment scheme is followed for RVSM airspace?

Answer 50

Odd altitudes for magnetic courses 000-179 degrees, even altitudes for courses 180-359 degrees.

Question 51

What actions should pilots take during flight planning for RVSM airspace?

Answer 51

* Review maintenance logs * Inform ATC of RVSM authorization * Report weather conditions * Check equipment requirements

Question 52

What should be done before takeoff regarding altimeters in RVSM operations?

Answer 52

Set altimeters to the local altimeter setting and ensure they display known elevations within specified limits.

Question 53

What is the required action regarding altimeter settings when transitioning altitudes?

Answer 53

Set sub-scale to 29.92 in. Hg/1013.2 hPa when passing transition altitude.

Question 54

How much can an aircraft overshoot or undershoot the cleared flight level during transitions?

Answer 54

Not more than 150 ft (45 m).

Question 55

What must be fully understood and followed regarding ATC clearances?

Answer 55

ATC clearances must be fully understood and followed.

Question 56

Under what conditions will an aircraft intentionally depart from CFL?

Answer 56

Only in contingency or emergency situations.

Question 57

What is the maximum allowed overshoot or undershoot of the cleared flight level during transitions?

Answer 57

150 ft (45 m).

Question 58

What feature is recommended for leveling off at a cleared flight level?

Answer 58

Altitude capture feature of the automatic altitude-control system.

Question 59

When must the automatic altitude-control system be operative?

Answer 59

During level cruise, except in certain circumstances.

Question 60

What should be used to reference adherence to cruise altitude?

Answer 60

One of the two primary altimeters.

Question 61

How often should cross-checks between primary and standby altimeters occur?

Answer 61

Approximately every hour.

Question 62

What is the acceptable difference between two primary altimeters?

Answer 62

Within 200 feet (60 m).

Question 63

What should be done if the altimetry system does not meet the cross-check condition?

Answer 63

Report the altimetry system as defective and notify ATC.

Question 64

What should the pilot record during the initial altimeter cross-check?

Answer 64

Readings of the primary and standby altimeters.

Question 65

What must be selected for the altitude-reporting transponder?

Answer 65

The altimetry system being used to control the aircraft.

Question 66

What action should a pilot take if notified by ATC of an AAD error exceeding 300 feet?

Answer 66

Return to CFL as quickly as possible.

Question 67

What should a pilot notify ATC about after entering RVSM airspace?

Answer 67

Contingencies affecting the ability to maintain CFL.

Question 68

What information should be detailed in maintenance log book entries regarding height keeping system malfunctions?

Answer 68

Sufficient detail to enable effective troubleshooting and repair.

Question 69

What should be noted regarding primary and standby altimeter readings?

Answer 69

Actual readings and any differences between them.

Question 70

What is the vertical separation standard for Non-RVSM aircraft in RVSM airspace?

Answer 70

2,000 feet.

Question 71

What must the pilot of a Non-RVSM aircraft inform the controller of?

Answer 71

The lack of RVSM approval.

Question 72

What is the purpose of the RVSM mandate?

Answer 72

Only RVSM authorized aircraft/operators may fly in designated RVSM airspace.

Question 73

What is the standard phraseology used for communication in domestic RVSM flight operations?

Answer 73

Refer to the provided table in the Operations Program.

Question 74

Fill in the blank: The altitude-alerting system must be ______.

Answer 74

operational.

Question 75

Fill in the blank: The difference between the primary and standby altimeters should be noted for use in ______ situations.

Answer 75

contingency.

Question 76

True or False: Non-RVSM aircraft can be accommodated in RVSM airspace without any prior approval.

Answer 76

False.