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TIA MATS 2 > Section 3 > Flashcards

Section 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

List the daily checks

A

Check all RTF channels (including ground and director) and DF

Test crash alarm and line

Check computer

Check Bowesfield signal box line

Check NT XE SCACC lines

Check ILS

Check signal lamp

Check CCTVs and fax machine

Check ATM

Check Landing Clearance Indicator System (LCIS)

Test internal emergency phone to AOC and the red phone

Ascertain airfields state on completion of DMs first inspection and obtain airfield status map

Check airfield lighting serviceability

When needed check snow state and send SNOWTAM

Send RVR vehicle out and record RVR readings

Check validity on work permits and NOTAMs

At 0600L each day check Durham fire brigade line

Call D&D and request permission to check 121.5 MHz on VCCS and standby radio (D&D will only respond if there is a problem)

Cross check the DD50 in order to ensure the Copperchase met input screen contains accurate readings

Check serviceability status of-
Standby Icom Air Band Transceiver ADC 119.8 plus spare battery

Standby channel 2 UHF charge if required

ATC mobile telephone, keep on charge

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2
Q

Once daily check complete, what should you do?

A

Annotate in the log, opening watch time, status of airfield and back up comms check complete

Any unserviceabilites should be logged and reported

Bowesfield line and Durham Fire line written in log that it has been checked

Once all checks complete a broadcast that Teesside Tower are opening watch

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3
Q

What other responsibilities are ADC responsible for?

A

Updating APR on all appropriate items of essential aerodrome information.

Alert the safety services and inform aircraft under its control of any depletion of those services

Informing the airport manager when it becomes apparent that there is a deteriotion in the aerodrome facilities

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4
Q

Control of IFR traffic operating with visual reference to the surface may be transferred by APR to ADC in what circumstances ?

A

When an aircraft carrying out an instrument approach becomes number one to land, and for the following aircraft when they’re established on final approach and have been provided with the appropriate separation from preceding aircraft

Aircraft operating in the visual circuit

Aircraft approaching visually below all cloud when the reported aerodrome visibility is 10km or more

(( in the case of the last 2 points, the volume of traffic and ADC workload must be such as to allow the use of one of the reduced separations permitted in the vicinity of the aerodrome ))

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5
Q

What does the term ‘runway in use’ mean?

A

Is used to indicate the particular runway selected by an ATCO as the most suitable at any particular time.

Normally this should be the runway most closely aligned with the surface wind

1,000ft and 3,000ft winds

Traffic patterns

Weather conditions

Approach aids available

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6
Q

When considering a runway change what must ADC do?

A

Consult with APR

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7
Q

Who get priority/ shouldn’t be delayed?
The aircraft using the runway in use
OR
An aircraft wishing to use another runway in use

A

The aircraft using the current runway in use

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8
Q

What is the position/ co-ordinations of TIA?

A

54 30 33N

001 25 46W

4.7nm SE of Darlington

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9
Q

Where is the reference point at TIA?

A

Midpoint of the runway 23/05

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10
Q

What is the aerodrome elevation at TIA?

A

120ft amsl

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11
Q

What is the transition altitude at TIA?

A

3000ft (6,000ft within the CTR/CTA)

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12
Q

What is the safety altitude at TIA?

A

3400ft

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13
Q

What are the instructions for Runway 23 Approach?

A

Line of pylons 146ft AAL

266ft AMSL

2.5nm

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14
Q

What is the height of Bilsdale TV Mast?

A

(Lit) 2178ft AAL

2298ft AMSL, 133degrees True

13.7nm from airfield

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15
Q

What is the length of runway 23/05?

A

2291m in length and 45m wide

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16
Q

What is the magnetic variation / annual change at TIA?

A

0.97W (2019) / 0.16degrees E

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17
Q

What is the PCN for Runway 05?

A

70F/C/W/T

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18
Q

What is the PCN for Runway 23?

A

70/F/C/W/T

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19
Q

What is the thresh hold elevation for Runway 05?

A

115ft

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20
Q

What is the thresh hold elevation for Runway 23?

A

116ft

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21
Q

What is the TORA (take off run available) for Runway 05 full length ?

A

2291m

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22
Q

What is the TODA (take off distance available) for Runway 05 full length ?

A

2576m

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23
Q

What is the ASDA (Accelerate stop distance available) for Runway 05 full length ?

A

2291m

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24
Q

What is the LDA (Landing distance available) for Runway 05 full length ?

A

2291m

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25
What is the TORA (take off run available) for Runway 05 from Charlie?
1770m
26
What is the TODA (take off distance available) for Runway 05 from Charlie ?
2049m
27
What is the ASDA ( Accelerate stop distance available) for Runway 05 from Charlie ?
1770m
28
What is the TORA for Runway 23?
2291m
29
What is the TODA for Runway 23v
2488m
30
What is the ASDA for Runway 23?
2291m
31
What is the LDA for Runway 23?
2291m
32
What is the PCN for the main apron?
47/R/D/W/T
33
What is the PCN for the western apron?
13/F/D/X/T
34
What is the PCN for the Eastern apron?
6/R/D/W/T
35
List the non compliance’s with CAP 168 at TIA?
Only 777m of Approach lighting is available on runway 23 and it has not standard coded centre line Hanger 2 (lit) infringes the runway 05/23 transitional slope and the ILS glide path aerials for Runway 05 and 23 are within the Runway 23/05 transitional slope Taxiway C and D are only 15m wide and Alpha is 10.5m wide
36
List the things ADC must coordinate with APR as listed in TIA MATS 2
ADC is responsible for effecting coordination between APR on all departing flights, IFR, SVFR and VFR also including missed approaches. IFR/SVFR clearances must be issued by APR Inform APR on all circuit activity ADC is responsible for allocating Runway In Use, but in doing so must coordinate with APR. ADC is to co- ordinated with APR on all inbound VFR flights who make their first call on 119.8 and transfer the to APR if needed ADC will pass start up/taxi and airborne messages to APR via the intercom Any aircraft subject to a Radar Departure (RD) is not to be lined up until departure permission has been received by ADC from APR
37
If your passing an aircraft a revised clearance or post departure instructions , and the aircraft is on the runway what should you prefix the clearance with?
Hold position
38
For both runways, when should ATCOs not stop aircraft during its take off roll? And what should ATCOs say if the aircraft has passed these points?
Runway 23- the disused 01/19 intersection Runway 05- taxiway Charlie or alternatively a line from the position of the UKP bowser on stand 6 Should only issue the pilot with a warning of the relevant hazard to allow the pilot to take whatever action is deemed necessary
39
When shall a landing clearance be issued for IFR aircraft ? If it is to be less than (stated) then what should the ATCO say?
Before 2nm from touch down Expect late landing clearance (due vehicle on the runway)
40
What are the circuit procedures?
Runway 23- left hand Runway 05- right hand Not above 1,300ft QFE Low level circuits will not normally be authorised Only 1 aircraft is allowed to do opposite direction circuits as the view is restricted from VCR Maximum of 4 aircraft in the circuit at one time Aircraft must not fly over MSG unless necessary When the lowest metrological vis reduced to less than 5,000m only one aircraft shall be allowed in the circuit ADC is to inform APR when circuit active IFR radar circuits are to be varied in direction and height/altitude ADC has to state the runway in use when giving an aircraft low app, t/g etc Aircraft must not hold over yarm or eagles life ADC must obtain a clearance from APR for SVFR circuits Squawk 7010, not above height 1,300ft QFE or not above altitude 1,500ft QNH unless coordinated with APR
41
What should ATCOs do when informed of a student first solo in the circuit?
State of readiness
42
Describe the military PFL
The initial request will normally include a commencement height (high key) 2,000-3,000ft Hawks would commence 4,500ft When cleared, the pilot will position overhead at a specified height When clearance is given to commence the procedure the pilot will report ‘high key’ (highest height he is at) when abeam the upwind threshold on the dead side The aircraft will report ‘low key’ when downwind and final abeam the touch down point
43
When can run and breaks be authorised?
For military aircraft diverting in For Cobham (when requested prior to departure) At the ATCOs discretion
44
If a helicopter wanted to operate on the 01 threshold what is the height limit and what information would you pass to other aircraft?
Not above 500ft AGL Traffic information
45
What actions should the ATCO take when the CCTV is oos?
Notify ATE to replace the monitor During the period of no monitor ATC must restrict the movements of aircraft and vehicles wishing to transit the affected areas The DM is to be informed of the failure and request to monitor aircraft arriving and departing the apron and report any issues to ATC via the RT Additional position checks from aircraft and vehicles may be requested
46
Unless the pilot has requested assistance or atc have made the request with DM, small aircraft will park where? And what restrictions are there?
Self park on the eastern apron during daylight hours when the visibility is greater than 800m At night it only applies to based aircraft
47
What is the restrictions on the Alpha taxiway?
Restriction of aircraft with a Maximum wheelbase of less than 6.00m The BAe JS41 has a track of 6.08m and it has been risk assessed by Eastern and they have agreed to accept A3 taxiway subject to the following conditions- Aircraft must remain on or close to the centreline Aircraft must taxi at a reduced speed whilst on the A3 section EZE will issue a notice to its crews to the effect that this taxiway is avail rather subject to the above conditions Initially this will only be available to locales based crew Only JS41 EZE
48
What is the maximum wingspan of an aircraft wishing to use the Alpha taxiway?
Wingspan less than 24m and a wheel base of less than 6metres The pilot must be asked if he can accept a 10.5m width taxiway
49
Is a Gulfstream aircraft or a type similar is requested to park on the eastern apron what caution should be put in place?
Follow me vehicle from A1 to their stand number
50
How far away is the holding point D2 from the 05 threshold?
280m
51
When Runway 05 is in use, why are departing aircraft required to hold at D2?
Because it intercepts with the 05 GP, unless the departing aircraft can accept an intermediate departure or if the inbound aircraft is further than 10nm it won’t effect the 05 GP
52
Where are the red stop bars located at TIA?
Holding point A1, B, C and D2
53
In what circumstance should an aircraft cross a red stop bar?
If the stop bar is unserviceable and the ATCO has authorised the vehicle or aircraft to cross the lit stop bar
54
When de- selecting the stop bars what other lights show to help guide the aircraft onto the runway?
Lead on, lead off lights Except at A1 no green lead on and lead off lights only blue edge lights
55
When is the LVP alert button selected on the lighting panel?
Only when in LVPs and aircraft movements are expected, the LVP alert button selects the standby diesel generators
56
Who is responsible for carrying out all airfield inspections?
DM
57
After each inspection what should the ATCO do?
Log the details of the inspection
58
Who is responsible for the notification of surface inspections ?
ADI
59
If ATC cannot get in contact with a vehicle on the airfield and seem to have lost RT with them, what is the solution?
Turn runway and taxiway lights on and off Get another vehicle DM or Seagull to go out and get in contact with the vehicle who has lost rt
60
Is the ground run of aircraft above idle power permitted on the main apron?
No
61
Who selects the location of where the ground runs should be completed?
DM and ATC
62
Where can smaller aircraft carry out their ground runs?
Eastern or western apron approved by ATC
63
What should ATCOs caution when aircraft are completing in ground runs?
Jet blast
64
If a FA20 is carrying out ground runs at D2 which area/caution is to be passed to other vehicles and aircraft?
Link 7, Delta taxiway from D1-D2 And possibly the 05 threshold depending on wind speed and direction.
65
Who is responsible for informing ATC regarding grass cutting taking place ?
DM
66
Whenever personnel or vehicles are close to the runway either WIP grass cutting etc, what shall ATC do?
Ensure UHF/VHF are cross coupled
67
What WIP is exempt from work permits?
Routine lamp changes on taxiways only Surface inspections ILS adjustments Bird patrols
68
Is there a compass swing base at TIA?
No
69
Where is link 1?
South side access to fire burning ground
70
Where is link 2?
South side access to taxiways adjacent to link 1
71
Where is link 3?
South side opposite holding point Charlie
72
Where is link 4?
South side opposite link 7
73
Where is link 5?
South side adjacent to 05 threshold
74
Where is link 6?
Adjacent to hold D1
75
Where is link 7?
Roadway adjacent to hold Charlie
76
Where is link 8?
Withdrawn Now gate 13
77
Where is link 9?
Junction of the fuel farm road and Delta taxiway
78
Where is link 10?
Withdrawn North side disused runway 19 Only to be used in an emergency
79
What is the speed limit on the manoeuvring area for vehicles?
10mph
80
What is free flow?
Free flow status is where vehicles operate on the manoeuvring area, excluding the runways and their associated cleared and graded areas. Without clearance from ATC Reducing the ground movement RT
81
Who have free flow at TIA?
DM Airport manager in DM vehicle AFS vehicles ATC staff in any vehicle Fire 5 with approved falconer/bird control unit staff ATE mobile with approved ATE staff Cobham vehicles - limited operations only Swissport and Consort - limited operations only
82
When is free flow permitted?
During daylight hours only Not in LVPs Free flow will be in force unless ATC advice otherwise Runway 23/05 is specifically omitted from the free flow procedure at all times Freeflow Vehicles are not to proceed beyond any designated runway holding points Only specific vehicles to be used unless authorised by ATC Drivers must check their RT equipment is serviceable Drivers must monitor GMC channel 2 and comply with ATC instructions Drivers must do a RT check every 30mins if no communication has been heard from ATC Drivers must have completed and passed a TIA RT course including knowledge of holding points etc Vehicle is licensed Vehicles use safe areas such as piggy lane hanger 3 mouth etc
83
What is the limit to free flow for Cobham vehicles ?
Cobham staff May cross the alpha taxiway between hanger 360 and the eastern apron in either direction subject to the following below- They must contact ATC each morning to determine if free flow is available, drivers must also give way to aircraft and vehicles under tow.
84
What is the free flow limit for Swissport/Consort?
Limited free flow across the alpha taxiway at the crossing point (which is from stand 9 to Gate 7) Drivers must caution around stand 6 for UKP fuel bowser
85
When are bird control measures taken place at TIA?
Minimum every 30 minutes, during airport hours Before first flight Before official day
86
If a pilot reports a bird strike what is the ATCO to do?
File a MOR
87
What is the approach lighting for Runway 05?
High intensity coded white centreline and four crossbars extending 605m from the threshold
88
What is the approach lighting for runway 23?
High intensity coded white centreline and five crossbars extending 777m from the threshold
89
Describe the runway lighting?
The runway lighting consists of high intensity white bi-directional lights, of 60m gauge, with a low intensity omni-directional component. The lights are elevated except where spacing requires lights at a runway intersection and at the junctions with the ORPs, where the lights are flush fitting. Flush sitting high intensity green lights and elevated wing bars mark the threshold and flush fitting high intensity red lights mark the end of the runway. High intensity coded centreline lighting of 30m spacing is also installed
90
Describe the PAPIs at Runway 05?
4 unit system, 3 degrees, 312m from the threshold, to the left of the runway edge, MEHT 53ft
91
Describe the PAPIs on Runway 23?
4 unit system, 3 degrees, 345m from the threshold, to the left of the runway edge, MEHT 52ft
92
Describe the taxiway lighting ?
B, C and D are lit by green Centreline’s with red stop bars at B, C, D2. Taxiway A, is lit by green Centreline’s as far as the end of the eastern apron and with blue edge lights from there to holding A1 including a red stop bar
93
Describe the apron lighting?
Main apron is floodlit to the latest CAP168 standards Western and Main apron are lit by flush fitting, blue edge lights. The apron area in front of H1 & 2 is floodlit The stands opposite hanger 360 (Cobham) are also floodlit, these lights are controlled by Cobham
94
Where are the red obstruction lights around the airfield?
1,2 and 3 hangers Watchman scanner ILS installations (Loc and GP) Control tower D/F building DME Cobham apron lighting columns Billsdale TV mast (remote site) Cleveland Bridge (remote site) Moor house wind farm
95
Where are the MET visibility lights located?
DME building (500m) Building to the right of D2, P centre (1500m)
96
What time frame should aerodrome lights be shown before an aircraft inbound or departing?
10 mins
97
Which fire vehicle is the watch manager in if the CAT is higher than 4?
Fire 2
98
Describe CAT 3?
4 crew and 1 foam vehicle
99
Describe CAT 4?
5 crew and 1 foam vehicle
100
Describe CAT 5?
6 crew and 2 foam vehicles
101
Describe CAT 6? | 100 seats or under
7 crew and 2 foam vehicles
102
Describe CAT 6 | over 100 seats
8 crew and 2 foam vehicles
103
Describe CAT 7?
9 crew and 2 foam vehicles
104
Describe CAT 8?
11 crew and 3 foam vehicles
105
What action is to be taken in the event of a reduction in fire cover?
ATCO broadcast the information on all operational RTF channels ‘’ message from the aerodrome operator, rescue and fire facilities reduced to category (Number) ‘’ Issue a NOTAM if time period is more than 1 hour Inform XE, NT, SCACC and SWAN
106
When shall a weather standby be initiated ?
A weather standby is to be initiated whenever the weather conditions are such as to render a landing difficult or difficult to observe
107
If an aircraft is carrying dangerous cargo what action should ATCO take?
Inform the watch manager ASAP
108
What action should a ATCO do if a domestic fire call has been made?
RFFS can attend with one vehicle, Inform aircraft of reduced fire cat Normally fire 1 or 5 Airport manager is to be informed
109
How many zones are there regarding grass cutting at TIA?
5
110
When ca grass cutting take place?
During daylight hours and when the visibility is more than 1500m
111
When grass cutting is taking place, what should ATC co-ordinate with ATE with?
That if grass cutting is taking place in the critical and safe guarded areas, the ILS is to be switched off. This does depend on traffic patterns and wind and runway in use at the time. If the ILS is to be oos for over 1 hour a NOTAM must be sent
112
Describe the criteria of grass cutting taking place in the runway strip
Less than 10m from the runway edge- when there is no movements taking place Between 10 - 55m from the runway edge (equivalent to the holding boards) - Light aircraft only and only with the agreement with the pilot concerned. Essential aerodrome information is to be passed!!! Greater than 55m from the runway edge- pass essential aerodrome information
113
If there is a communication barrier between grass cutter and ATC what shall the ATCO do?
Continue to make efforts to contact the escort of the grass cutter Use the mobile number on work permit Switch runway edge lights on 100% and off Request another vehicle to go out to the grass cutter to get comms Delay any runway movements until issue is resolved

TIA MATS 2 (6 decks)

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