Section4. Cardiovascular physiology Flashcards

(80 cards)

1
Q

The pulmonary circulation normally contains what percentage of the total blood volume?

A

9%

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2
Q

The heart in diastole, normally contains about what percentage of the total blood volume?

A

7%

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3
Q

Which vessels contain the greatest amount of elastin?

A

aorta and pulmonary artery

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4
Q

Capillaries are generally more permeable on the arterial or venous end?

A

more permeable on the arterial end

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5
Q

The resting state red blood cell transit time from the arteriolar to the venular end of an average-sized capillary bed (70 kg mammal) is about?

A

1 to 2 seconds

(0.07 cm/second)

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6
Q

The velocity of blood flow normally reaches its lowest point in which vessels?

A

capillaries

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7
Q

B/c of Bernoulli, what relationship exists between blood velocity and pressure in the capillary bed?

A

IN a closed tube, such as a blood vessel, total energy must remain constant. Thus kinetic energy of flow plus pressure energy must remain constant. When applied to a narrow portion of a blood vessel- kinetic energy is increased as velocity increases and potential energy must be reduced

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8
Q

What is thought to be the primary determinant of resistance to blood flow in the vascular system?

A

the radius of blood vessels

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9
Q

What are factors that enhance lymph flow:

A

skeletal muscle contraction
rhythmic pumping action of lymphatic vessels
pulsations of arteries
suction pressure created within lympahtic vessels

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10
Q

The amount of lymph formed per day in the body is roughly equivalent to the

A

plasma volume

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11
Q

What is normal plasma volume?

A

4% of bodyweight

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12
Q

The colloid osmotic pressure is normally greatest in lymph collected from what organ?

A

The liver

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13
Q

Over one-half of the lymph formed in the body normally comes from which organs?

A

Liver and GIT

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14
Q

The lymphatic system is a major route of absorption of nutrients from the intestinal tract, being particular responsible for:

A

the absorption of dietary fat
–> chylomycrons are too large to enter the vascular system of the intestine, but are absorbed into lacteals of the lymphatic system

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15
Q

What are the causes of edema:

A
  1. increased capillary pressure d/t venular constriction or increased venous pressure (ie: heart failure, venous obstruction, etc)
  2. decreased oncotic pressure gradient across capillaries (ie: decreased plasma protein concen d/t nephrosis)
  3. increased capillary permeability d/t histamine, kinins or related substances
  4. inadequate lymph flow
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16
Q

What factors are known to cause increased cerebral blood flow?

A

-CSF H concen increases (cerebral blood vessels dilate)
-INC in perivascular K concen
-INC adenosine concen in brain tissue (inc d/t ischemia, hypoxemia, hypotension, electrical stim or seizures)

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17
Q

What are the two most known resistance vessels in the skin?

A

arterioles
arteriovenous anastomoses

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18
Q

Parasympathetic vasodilater nerve fibers do not supply cutaneous blood vessels, however, stimulates of:

A

sweat glands, which are innervated by cholinergic sympathetic fibers, results in vasodilation of skin resistance vessels

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19
Q

Splenic contraction is facilitated by:

A

alpha-adrenergic agents

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20
Q

Skeletal muscle accounts for what percentage of basal O2 consumption at rest?

A

20 to 30%

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21
Q

Under resting conditions, which organ, normally receives, per unit of weight, a greater blood flow than any other major organ in the body?

A

Kidney

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22
Q

During exercise, pulmonary vascular resistance

A

falls

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23
Q

SA node pacemaker activity is governed largely by:

A

magnitude of the initial resting membrane potential, the rate of depolarization and the threshold

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24
Q

What is the effective refractory period of the cardiac cycle is the:

A

period during which a stimulus, no matter how strong, fails to produce a propagated electrical response

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25
define intercalated disk
entire, continuous stepwise boundary joining the end regions of adjacent cardiac mm cells
26
Dihydropyridine receptor on the T-tubule, functions as:
a voltage sensor in skeletal mm
27
The decreased early resting pacemaker preportential that causes faster heart rates is usually attributable to an altered ratio of intracellular to external (what electrolyte?
K
28
acetylcholine has what effect on the heart?
mild stimulus: slowing of heart rate, decreases strength of atrial contraction and marked reduction of conduction velocity through AV node
29
The first heart sound of the cardiac cycle heard with a stethoscope is
is caused by oscillation of blood in the ventricular chambers and vibration of the chamber walls
30
The second heart sound of the cardiac cycle occurs with
closure of the semilunar valves
31
What conditions increase intensity of the second heart sound?
pulmonary or systemic hypertension
32
The third heart sound of the cardiac cycle is associated with
rapid inflow of blood into the ventricles
33
Left ventricular isometric contraction involves
a period of rising tension in the ventricles, however there are no changes in intraventricular volume
34
Cardiac valve closure occurs when
pressure in the distal chamber exceeds that in the proximal chamber **opening of semilunar valve by rise of pressure in ventricle ** fall of pressure in the distal chamber--opening of mitral and tricuspid valves
35
What is the normal end-ventricular systolic volume (ie. residual volume)?
at rest is about equal t o the ejected during systole
36
Is atrial contraction essential for normal ventricular filling (at rest)?
No, since hte bulk of ventricular filling normally occurs before strial systole
37
What percentage of total blood inflow into the coronary circulation normally enters the right coronary artery of dogs?
15%
38
Describe coronary blood flow
-onset of isometric ventricular contraction, coronary blood flow falls abruptly -opening of aortic calve and systolic inc in aortic pressure, coronary flow rises to a mod peak then fall again -closure of the aortic valve, coronary flow rises to a maximum, to again decline slowly during diastole
39
What percentage of oxygen in coronary blood is normally removed by the heart
70%
40
In the postabsorptive state the principle fuel used by myocardial cells is:
fatty acids
41
What is the effective circulating volume?
reflects the adequacy of tissue perfusion -related directly to the fullness of and pressure within the vascular tree, and under normal circumstances varies directly with ECF volume
42
Of the mechanoreceptors within the body, which one is considered to be low-pressure baroreceptors that primarily sense fullness of the vascular tree rather than the pressure therein?
atrial stretch receptors
43
An increase in heart rate is sometimes produced by large intravenous infusion of saline or blood. This "Bain bridge reflex" is caused by:
the firing of type A high-pressure baroreceptors in atria of the heart
44
Which of the cranial nerves are considered buffer nerves? (which nerves receive input from aortic arch and carotid sinus baroreceptors and send info to hypothalamic and medullary centers via)
X: vagus IX: glossopharyngeal
45
What occurs when sensory input from baroreceptors decreases:
sympathetic outflow to the heart and blood vessels increases
46
Where is the cardiovascular control center located?
medulla of the brain stem
47
The cardiovascular control center is tonicallya ctive system that is inhibited by input from baroreceptors through which cranial nerves?
IX: glossopharyngeal: innervates the carotid sinuses X: vagus: innervates the aortic arch and low pressure volume receptors in the atria and pulmonary circulation
48
When sensory input to from baroreceptors decreases, as it does when arterial pressure decreases, how does the sympathetic/parasympathetic system respond?
sympathetic outflow from hypothalamus to heart and blood vessels increases parasympathetic outflow from the hypothalamus to the heart decreases ANS: helps to oppose a fall in arterial pressure and restore both blood pressure and volume
49
When sensory input to baroreceptors increases, as it does when arterial pressure increases, how does the sympathetic/parasympathetic system respond>
Sympathetic outflow to heart and blood vessels decreases parasympathetic outflow increases
50
What is the ultimate effect of atrial natriuretic peptide?
rapidly increases excretion of NaCl and water by the kidneys
51
What are the effects of ANP on the kidney?
-vasodilates afferent and vasoconstrict efferent arterioles of the kidney (INC GFR) -decreases renin secretion by juxtaglomerular cells of afferent arterioles (indirect actions on angiotensin II and II concentrations)-- dec peripheral resistance and dec aldosterone release from adrenal cortex -dec ability of ADH to act on medullary collecting ducts of the kidney
52
arterial receptors that respond to changes in the PCO2, PO2 and pH of blood are found in specialized tissues near
aortic archa dn carotid bifurcations
53
When arterial chemoreceptors are stimulated in the carotid arteries, what are the response?
they respiratory response is greater, evoking pulmonary hyperventilation and secondarily inc in heart rate
54
In normal adult mammals, what is the average blood volume (ml/kg bwt) is about?
75 ml/kg
55
Following hemorrhage, what control mechanism for restoration of blood volume is considered to be the most importantly quantitatively?
capillary fluid shift
56
plasma compartment (iin % bwt) in comparison to interstitial fluid compartment?
16% bwt: interstitial fluid compartment 4% bwt: plasma compartment
57
How do red blood cells gain energy?
anaerobic glycolytic pathways & heoxse monophosphate shunt that produces NADPH for glutathione reduction (defense mech against oxidative stress)
58
What is the principle component of the red cell, that makes up about 95% of the dry weight of the cell?
hemoglobin
59
Erythropoiesis requiries all of the following minerals/vitamins
copper cobalt iron folic acid and pyridoxine
60
What is the effect of lead on erythropoiesis?
inhibits conversion of delta-aminoleculinate to porphobilinogen toin heme biosysntehsis, therefore resulting ind ecreases erythropoiesis and anemia
61
Why is ceruloplasmin important in erythropoiesis?
-copper containing protein iof plasma -is a ferroxiase and appears ot be necssary for transfer of irone from reticuloendothelial cells to plasma transferrin
62
Methemoglobin reductase of mature erythrocytes uses what molecule from anaerobic glycosis?
NADH **does not use NADPH
63
What is methemoglobin
an inactive form of hemoglobin in which the iron is oxidzed from teh ferrous to feric state by superoxides that are normally rpesent in RBCs
64
What is the importance of methemoglobin reductase?
important in keeping iron in its active state (since only heme iron in the ferrous form can carry oxygen reversibly)
65
The Rapoport shunt is the source of
2,3-diphosphoglycerate in erythrocytes
66
What is the importance of the Rapoport shunt in RBCs?
It allows for glycolysis to prcoeed when the need for ATP is minimal
67
What are the effects of leukotrienes released from white blood cells?
-contraction of smooth mm -cause vascular permeability to increases - important regulators in many dzes involving inflammatory or immediate hypersensitivity reactions
68
Thromboxane A2 is synthesizes in and causes
platelets causes vasoconstriction and plt aggregation
69
Prostacycline is produces where and causes
releases from endothelial cells of blood vessel wall promotes vasodilation and inhibits plt aggregation
70
Which is the strongest plt aggregator?
thromboxane A2
71
platelets are known to release which compound to ahsten blood coagulation?
thrombopalstin
72
Adenosine release from platelets helps to
facilitate plt aggregation
73
Aspiring irreversibility inhibits
platelet cyclooxygenase and thus formation of thromboxane A2
74
What is the key step in blood coagulation?
conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin
75
blood clotting via the extrinsic pathway is initiated by
tissue damage and relase of tissue thromboplastin
76
Blood clotting via the intrinsic pathway is initiated by
exposure of blood to damaged endothelium or a negatively charged surface
77
What is the most important cofactor for blood coagulation (electrolyte)?
Calcium
78
What is an endogenous (active) proteolytic enzyme known to liquefy blood clots?
plasmin
79
Which anticoagulant is know to inhibit synthesis of vitamin K dependent factors involved in blood coagulation?
dicumarol
80
How are the anticoagulant effects of citrate and oxalate peformed?
through removal of calcium fro solution