Securities Exchange Act of 1934 Flashcards

1
Q

The Securities and Exchange Commission was:

I created under the Securities Act of 1933
II created under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934
III given regulatory authority over securities exchanges
IV given regulatory authority over futures exchanges

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is C.

The Securities and Exchange Commission was created under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. It has overall regulatory authority over the securities markets and securities market participants. It has no power over the futures markets - these are regulated by the CFTC - the Commodities Futures Trading Commission.

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2
Q

The Securities and Exchange Commission is empowered to administrate all of the following Acts EXCEPT:

A. Securities Act of 1933
B. Trust Indenture Act of 1939
C. Investment Company Act of 1940
D. Uniform Securities Act

A

The best answer is D.

The Uniform Securities Act is more commonly known as the “Blue Sky” state law, and is adopted “state by state.” The SEC, a Federal agency, has no jurisdiction over activities within each state and does not administrate this Act. The SEC does administrate the Securities Act of 1933; the Securities Exchange Act of 1934; the Trust Indenture Act of 1939; and the Investment Company Act of 1940.

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3
Q

The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 established “self regulatory organizations” (SROs) and empowered these organizations to:

I set guidelines for fair dealing with the public
II handle complaints against broker-dealers for securities law violations
III take administrative action against broker-dealers that violate industry regulations
IV fix commission rates to be charged to public customers

A. I and II only
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is B.

Originally, the exchanges, such as the NYSE and NASD (National Association of Securities Dealers) were both marketplaces and regulators of their member firms. This changed when FINRA was created in 2006. Each exchange now only regulates its trading operation; and FINRA regulates the broker-dealer member firms and is its own SRO (Self Regulatory Organization). FINRA sets guidelines for fair dealing with the public with its Conduct Rules; it handles complaints against broker-dealers for securities law violations under the Code of Procedure; it can take administrative action against broker-dealers that violate industry regulations; and it establishes arbitration procedures to settle intra-industry disputes.

Fixed commission rates are prohibited under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 - these are set by the member firms.

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4
Q

Under the provisions of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, which of the following must be registered?

I The exchanges that trade securities
II Member firms
III Sales employees of member firms
IV Clerical employees of member firms

A. III only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is C.

The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 requires the registration of each securities exchange, so that it now becomes a “self-regulatory organization” (SRO), subject to SEC oversight. In addition, FINRA and the MSRB are SROs. The Act requires that member firms register with FINRA; that their officers register; and that their sales employees (you!) register. There is no requirement for clerical employees to register.

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5
Q

Under the provisions of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, which of the following must be registered?

I The exchanges that trade securities
II Member firms
III Officers of member firms
IV Sales employees of member firms

A. IV only
B. I and II
C. III and IV
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is D.

The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 requires the registration of each securities exchange, so that it now becomes a “self-regulatory organization” (SRO), subject to SEC oversight. In addition, FINRA and the MSRB are SROs. The Act requires that member firms register with FINRA; that their officers register; and that their sales employees (you!) register.

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6
Q

Regarding the notification of a broker-dealer’s financial condition to customers, a brokerage firm must send semi-annual statements which include the firm’s:

I Balance sheet
II Income statement
III Net capital computation

A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III

A

The best answer is C.

Broker-dealers must send their customers a semi-annual balance sheet and Net Capital computation. There is no requirement that the customer be sent the income statement of the broker-dealer.

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7
Q

Broker-dealers are required to report their computed Net Capital to customers:

A. monthly
B. quarterly
C. semi-annually
D. annually

A

The best answer is C.

Broker-dealers must send their customers a semi-annual balance sheet and Net Capital computation.

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8
Q

A broker-dealer may hold fully paid customer securities:

A. when authorized in writing by the customer
B. if the securities are segregated and held in safekeeping
C. if the firm notifies the customer every 3 months as to the amount of securities and the fact that they are “not segregated”
D. only if the customer is traveling

A

The best answer is B.

Broker-dealers are obligated to segregate fully paid customer securities and hold them in safekeeping under the 1934 Act. These securities cannot be rehypothecated to a bank.

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9
Q

A foreign broker-dealer that is not SEC registered is permitted to deal with clients in the United States:

A. under no circumstances
B. only if the clients are accredited investors
C. only if the clients are sophisticated
D. only if the clients are major institutional investors

A

The best answer is D.

In order for a broker-dealer to solicit in the U.S., it must be registered with the SEC. For foreign broker-dealers, this means setting up an SEC-registered U.S. subsidiary. However, recognizing the increasingly global nature of the world’s securities markets, the SEC adopted Rule 15a-6, which is intended to permit foreign broker-dealers to engage in limited activities in the U.S. without registering with the SEC. Under Rule 15a-6, foreign broker-dealers that are not SEC registered are permitted to:
effect trades for U.S. persons that contact them on an unsolicited basis;
solicit business from and provide research reports to Major Institutional Investors (an investor with at least $100 million of investments) and Institutional Investors (investment companies, insurance companies, banks, etc.) and
conduct business with foreign nationals temporarily present in the U.S.

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10
Q

Which of the following issuers must report to the SEC under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934?

I Corporations
II Investment Companies
III Municipalities
IV Federal Agencies

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is A.

Only corporations and investment companies (which are either corporations or trusts) file annual and semi-annual reports with the SEC. Municipal and federal issuers are exempt from the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.

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11
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding corporate reports sent to shareholders?

I The 10K report consists of the annual financial statements
II The 10K report consists of the quarterly financial statements
III The 10Q report consists of the annual financial statements
IV The 10Q report consists of the quarterly financial statements

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is B.

Corporate annual reports are 10K reports which are audited reports. The 10Q is a quarterly report which is unaudited. Corporate annual reports contain the following audited financial statements - Income Statement; Balance Sheet; Statement of Changes to Retained Earnings; and Statement of Sources and Uses of Cash.

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12
Q

An issuer is required to make an 8K filing with the SEC for all of the following events EXCEPT:

A. declaration of a cash dividend
B. election of new members of the Board of Directors
C. declaration of bankruptcy
D. proposal of a merger with another corporation

A

The best answer is A.

An 8K filing with the SEC is required by a corporation if a “major event” happens at the company. These include if there is a change in the composition of the Board of Directors; if the company declares bankruptcy; if there is a major acquisition or divestiture of assets; if the company proposes a merger; or if any other major corporate event occurs. The notice must be filed no later than 4 business days after the event. Declaration of a dividend is a regular event, and no filing is required when this occurs.

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13
Q

If a publicly traded corporation declares bankruptcy:

I a 10K report must be filed
II an 8K report must be filed
III the required report must be filed within 1 business day
IV the required report must be filed within 4 business days

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is D.

Corporations are required to file 8K reports within 4 business days of significant events such as a declaration of bankruptcy, merger, change in the Board of Directors, etc. The 8K is filed with the SEC, and is a public document.

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14
Q

A registered representative receives an order from a corporate issuer to buy 100,000 shares of that issuer’s stock in the market just before the market close. The registered representative should:

A. accept the order from the customer
B. inform the company that the trade can only be executed on an upbid
C. reject the order and report the company to the SEC
D. inform the company that this is a possible market manipulation under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934

A

The best answer is D.

SEC Rule 10b-18 sets ground rules for issuers or affiliated persons who wish to buy their shares in the open market. If an issuer aggressively buys its stock in the market, or bids for its stock, it can manipulate the market price upwards. Bids and purchases that are made in compliance with Rule 10b-18 will not be considered manipulative activities under Rule 10b-5 (“catch-all” fraud rule). Rule 10b-18 purchases, as they are known:

Must be effected through 1 broker/dealer on any given day;
Cannot be the opening transaction;
Cannot be executed within 10 minutes of market close if the security is “actively traded,” otherwise it cannot be executed within 30 minutes of market close;
Must be effected at prices no higher than the current market;
Cannot exceed 25% of the trading volume in the security that day (except for block purchases handled outside the normal flow of orders).

Because the issuer is placing the order to buy its stock just prior to market close, it could be accused of trying to manipulate its closing price upwards. The client should be informed of this.

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15
Q

An investor must file a 13D report with the SEC if a:

A. 5% or greater common stock holding is purchased of one issuer
B. 10% or greater common stock holding is purchased of one issuer
C. 15% or greater common stock holding is purchased of one issuer
D. 20% or greater common stock holding is purchased of one issuer

A

The best answer is A.

Investors who accumulate a 5% or greater position in the common stock of one registered issuer are required to file a 13D notice with the SEC within 10 business days of date that the 5% threshold was passed. This information is made public (and is of great interest to the management of the company, since the new large stockholder will probably want a say in how the company is being run!) There is no requirement to file for holding a large portion of a corporation’s debt.

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16
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE about a tender offer for common shares:

I The offer must remain open for at least 20 business days
II Each “sweetening” of the offer must extend the offer for an additional 10 business days
III During the life of the offer, the issuer can buy the stock in the market in addition to buying shares via the offer
IV During the life of the offer, any subscribing investors’ shares that are tendered are held in escrow pending the outcome of the offer

A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is C.

When a tender offer is made for the common shares of an issuer, the maker of the offer is attempting to buy a majority stake in the company. To attract shareholders to tender, the maker usually prices the offer at a premium to the current market price. Such offers are typically contingent on a minimum number of shares being tendered. If the minimum number is not met, the maker might “sweeten” the offer by raising the tender price, or could simply cancel the offer and return the tendered shares to the subscribing shareholders. Note that an escrow agent is used to hold the tendered shares, pending the outcome of the offer.

During the life of the offer, the maker of the offer and its agents are treated as “insiders,” since they have information on how the tender offer is progressing that the general public does not know about. This means that, during the offer, they are prohibited from buying the stock in the market.

The initial offer must be held out for a minimum of 20 business days under SEC rules. Each sweetening of the offer must extend the life of the offer by another 10 business days.

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17
Q

Which statements are TRUE about a tender offer for common shares?

I The offer must remain open for at least 10 business days
II The offer must remain open for at least 20 business days
III Each “sweetening” of the offer must extend the offer for an additional 10 business days
IV Each “sweetening” of the offer must extend the offer for an additional 20 business days

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is C.

When a tender offer is made for the common shares of an issuer, the maker of the offer is attempting to buy a majority stake in the company. To attract shareholders to tender, the maker usually prices the offer at a premium to the current market price. Such offers are typically contingent on a minimum number of shares being tendered. If the minimum number is not met, the maker might “sweeten” the offer by raising the tender price; or could simply cancel the offer and return the tendered shares to the subscribing shareholders.

The initial offer must be held out for a minimum of 20 business days under SEC rules. Each sweetening of the offer must extend the life of the offer by another 10 business days

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18
Q

All of the following statements are true about an issuer making a tender offer for its non-convertible bonds EXCEPT:

A. The initial life of the offer is 5 business days
B. Any increase in the tender price increases the life of the offer by 5 business days
C. The offer is contingent on a minimum amount of bonds being tendered
D. The final price given to all bondholders is not determined until the last business day of the offer

A

The best answer is C.

An issuer would consider tendering for its outstanding bonds when it has debt outstanding that is not callable, but it has excess funds that it believes would be best used to reduce the amount of debt outstanding.

A tender offer is made to the bondholders, who have the choice of tendering or not. Unlike stock tender offers, where the initial offer must be held out for 20 business days, here the initial life of the offer is only 5 business days. (The life is shorter because this tender offer is being made by the issuer, not an outsider.) Unlike stock tender offers, where there is typically a contingency that a minimum number of shares be tendered, these are “any and all offers” - so if a bondholder tenders, he or she will receive the tender price for the bonds.

If the issuer does not get enough bonds tendered, the issuer can “sweeten” the offer. This extends the offer by another 5 business days, and the sweetened price is given to all bonds tendered. (While the initial offer specifies a price to be paid, or a price based on a spread to a benchmark debt security, the actual price paid on the tendered bonds is not set until that last business day of the offer).

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19
Q

Which statements are TRUE about an issuer making a tender offer for its non-convertible bonds?

I The minimum life of the initial offer is 5 business days
II The minimum life of the initial offer is 10 business days
III Each “sweetening” of the offer must extend the offer for another 5 business days
IV Each “sweetening” of the offer must extend the offer for another 10 business days

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is A.

An issuer would consider tendering for its outstanding bonds when it has debt outstanding that is not callable, but it has excess funds that it believes would be best used to reduce the amount of debt outstanding.

A tender offer is made to the bondholders, who have the choice of tendering or not. Unlike stock tender offers, where the initial offer must be held out for 20 business days, here the initial life of the offer is only 5 business days. (The life is shorter because this tender offer is being made by the issuer, not an outsider.) Unlike stock tender offers, where there is typically a contingency that a minimum number of shares be tendered, these are “any and all offers” - so if a bondholder tenders, he or she will receive the tender price for the bonds.

If the issuer does not get enough bonds tendered, the issuer can “sweeten” the offer. This extends the offer by another 5 business days, and the sweetened price is given to all bonds tendered. (While the initial offer specifies a price to be paid, or a price based on a spread to a benchmark debt security, the actual price paid on the tendered bonds is not set until that last business day of the offer).

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20
Q

A tender offer is announced for ABC common stock. Which of the following customer accounts can tender 100 shares of ABC on the offer?

I Long 100 shares of ABC
II Long 100 shares of ABC; Short 100 shares of ABC
III Long 200 shares of ABC; Short 100 shares of ABC
IV Long 100 shares of ABC; Short 200 shares of ABC

A. I only
B. III and IV
C. I and III
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is C.

Under the “short tender rule,” a person cannot tender borrowed shares. To tender stock, the person must be in a “net long” position in that security. Choice I is net long 100 shares and can tender; Choice II is net “0” and cannot tender; Choice III is net long 100 shares and can tender; Choice IV is net short 100 shares and cannot tender.

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21
Q

A customer is long 1,000 shares of ABCD stock and has gone “short against the box” 400 shares of ABCD stock. If there is a tender offer for the shares of ABCD Corporation, the customer:

A. cannot tender any shares
B. can tender 400 shares
C. can tender 600 shares
D. can tender 1,000 shares

A

The best answer is C.

A customer is only considered to be “long” to the extent of his or her “net” long position in a security. This customer is long 1,000 shares of ABCD and short 400 shares of ABCD, for a net long position of 600 shares. This is the amount that can be tendered (remember that the customer must replace the 400 shares borrowed to sell short, leaving him or her with the remaining 600 shares out of the 1,000 owned.)

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22
Q

During a tender offer, all of the following activities are prohibited EXCEPT:

A. purchasing the stock in a cash account and tendering 4 business days after trade date
B. purchasing a call option in a cash account and tendering 4 business days after trade date
C. tendering shares held in an arbitrage account where the position is “short against the box”
D. purchasing a warrant in a cash account and tender 5 business days after trade date

A

The best answer is A.

Under the short tender rule, a customer can only hand in shares on a tender offer to the extent of his or her “net long” position. A customer who has bought the stock is “long” and can tender. A customer who has bought a call option or a warrant is not “long” until the option or warrant is exercised, so he or she cannot tender. A customer who is “short against the box” has a net “zero” position and cannot tender.

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23
Q

During a tender offer, which of the following activities are prohibited?

I Purchase the stock in a cash account and tender 2 business days after trade date
II Purchase a call option in a cash account and tender 2 business days after trade date
III Tender shares held in an arbitrage account where the position is “short against the box”
IV Exercise a call option held in a cash account and issue irrevocable instructions to deliver the acquired shares

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is C.

Under the short tender rule, a customer can only hand in shares on a tender offer to the extent of his “net long” position. A customer who has bought the stock (Choice I) is “long” and can tender. A customer who has bought a call option is not “long” until the option is exercised, so he cannot tender. A customer who is “short against the box” has a net “zero” position and cannot tender. A customer who has exercised a call option is “long” since the stock is being delivered to him. Therefore, he can tender.

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24
Q

Under Federal law, stock can be tendered from which of the following accounts?

I Restricted margin account
II Short margin account
III Long margin account
IV Cash account

A. IV only
B. I and III only
C. I, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is C.

Under the “short tender rule,” a person cannot tender borrowed shares. To tender stock, the person must be in a “net long” position in that security. Long stock can be held in a cash or margin account. Restriction (an account below 50% initial Regulation T margin) has no bearing on tendering shares. If shares are tendered from a margin account, the account must still meet the exchange minimum maintenance margin after those shares leave the account. If not, a maintenance call will be generated to bring the account back to minimum margin.

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25
Q

A registered representative receives an order from a corporate issuer to buy 500,000 shares of that issuer’s stock in the market, 5 minutes prior to market close. The registered representative should:

A. reject the order
B. accept the order as given
C. inform the company that this is a possible market manipulation under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934
D. route the order to an ECN

A

The best answer is C.

SEC Rule 10b-18 sets ground rules for issuers or affiliated persons who wish to buy their shares in the open market. If an issuer aggressively buys its stock in the market, or bids for its stock, it can manipulate the market price upwards. Bids and purchases that are made in compliance with Rule 10b-18 will not be considered manipulative activities under Rule 10b-5 (“catch-all” fraud rule). Rule 10b-18 purchases, as they are known:

Must be effected through 1 broker/dealer on any given day;
Cannot be the opening transaction;
Cannot be executed within 10 minutes of market close if the security is “actively traded,” otherwise it cannot be executed within 30 minutes of market close;
Must be effected at prices no higher than the current market;
Cannot exceed 25% of the trading volume in the security that day (except for block purchases handled outside the normal flow of orders).

Because the issuer is placing the order to buy its stock 5 minutes prior to market close, it could be accused of trying to manipulate its closing price upwards. The client should be informed of this.

26
Q

A registered representative receives an order from a corporate issuer to buy 100,000 shares of that issuer’s stock in the market just before the market close. The registered representative should:

A. accept the order from the customer
B. inform the company that the trade can only be executed on an upbid
C. reject the order and report the company to the SEC
D. inform the company that this is a possible market manipulation under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934

A

The best answer is D.

SEC Rule 10b-18 sets ground rules for issuers or affiliated persons who wish to buy their shares in the open market. If an issuer aggressively buys its stock in the market, or bids for its stock, it can manipulate the market price upwards. Bids and purchases that are made in compliance with Rule 10b-18 will not be considered manipulative activities under Rule 10b-5 (“catch-all” fraud rule). Rule 10b-18 purchases, as they are known:
Must be effected through 1 broker/dealer on any given day;
Cannot be the opening transaction;
Cannot be executed within 10 minutes of market close if the security is “actively traded,” otherwise it cannot be executed within 30 minutes of market close;
Must be effected at prices no higher than the current market;
Cannot exceed 25% of the trading volume in the security that day (except for block purchases handled outside the normal flow of orders).
Because the issuer is placing the order to buy its stock just prior to market close, it could be accused of trying to manipulate its closing price upwards. The client should be informed of this.

27
Q

Margins on government and municipal securities are set by (the):

A. MSRB
B. FINRA
C. FRB
D. SEC

A

The best answer is B.

Because municipals and governments are exempt, the Federal Reserve has no power to set margins. However, FINRA sets minimum maintenance margins for these securities that member firms must meet.

28
Q

Stabilization of new issues is:

I a provision of the Securities Act of 1933
II a provision of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934
III permitted at, or above, the Public Offering Price
IV permitted at, or below, the Public Offering Price

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is D.

Since a stabilizing bid is placed in the trading (secondary) market, the rules for stabilizing bids come under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. Stabilizing bids are permitted at, or below, the Public Offering Price - never above.

29
Q

Stabilization rules for new issues are:

A. set by FINRA
B. covered under the Securities Act of 1933
C. covered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934
D. covered under the Securities Investor Protection Act of 1970

A

The best answer is C.

The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 prohibits market manipulation - with one exception. Stabilization of new issues is permitted as long as the stabilizing trades (which take place in the secondary market) conform to the requirements of the 1934 Act.

30
Q

Which statements are TRUE about stabilizing bids?

I A stabilizing bid is placed by the syndicate manager
II A stabilizing bid is placed by each syndicate member
III Only 1 stabilizing bid is permitted at any time
IV Any number of stabilizing bids can be placed at any time

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is A.

Only 1 stabilizing bid is permitted at any time. The manager of the syndicate places the stabilizing bid on behalf of the syndicate.

31
Q

Stabilizing bids can be entered at which of the following?

I Below the public offering price
II At the public offering price
III Above the public offering price

A. I only
B. I or II
C. II or III
D. I, II, or III

A

The best answer is B.

Stabilizing bids can only be entered at or below the public offering price, never above. If the bid were allowed to be placed above the public offering price, it would make the issue instantly “hot” and this is prohibited.

32
Q

Under Regulation M, which statement is FALSE regarding stabilizing bids entered by market makers?

A. Only the syndicate manager placed a stabilizing bid
B. There is no time limitation on the period that a stabilizing bid can be maintained
C. A stabilizing bid cannot be placed unless a “Notice of Stabilization” is included in the prospectus D. A stabilizing bid can be placed at any price that is reasonably related to the market

A

The best answer is D.

Only 1 stabilizing bid, placed by the manager, is permitted at any time after registration becomes effective. The stabilizing bid is placed at, or just below the Public Offering Price. It can never be placed above the P.O.P. There is no time limitation on the period that a stabilizing bid can be maintained under Regulation M. However, stabilization must cease when the syndicate is broken by the manager. A “Notice of Stabilization” must be included in the prospectus (on the inside front cover) that details the fact that the manager can start and stop stabilizing at any time and that when stabilization stops, the price of the issue may drop.

33
Q

Rule 103 of Regulation M requires that a market maker in a stock that is also a syndicate member in an “add-on” offering of that issue, during the 20-day cooling off period:

A. must effect all trades in that stock on an upbid
B. must resign as a market maker
C. cannot fill any orders for that security
D. can only sell the stock “long” and cannot sell “short”

A

The best answer is B.

Rule 103 of Regulation M covers the situation where a firm in the underwriting group for an add-on securities offering also happens to be a market maker in the stock. The worry of the SEC is that the market maker, during the 20-day cooling off period, would be tempted to aggressively buy the stock to push up the market price. This, in turn, would push up the POP when it is set just prior to the effective date, which would increase the underwriters’ spread.

To stop this, the SEC requires that either the market maker stop making a market until the effective date; or alternatively, the market maker must act as a “passive” market maker - meaning that it cannot buy the stock at a price higher than the current high bid.

34
Q

Under Regulation M, the maximum restricted period for trading a subject security by a syndicate member that is NOT a market maker is:

A. 1 day
B. 5 days
C. 10 days
D. 20 days

A

The best answer is B.

During the cooling off period for “add-on” offerings, Regulation M places restrictions on syndicate members that are not market makers from trading that issuer’s securities. The idea is that the syndicate members will not attempt to bid up the price of the issuer’s outstanding shares, in order to be able to raise the POP of the additional issue. The rule states that:
If the security is actively traded (average daily trading volume of $1,000,000 or more and public float of at least $150,000,000), there are no restrictions placed on market makers trading the issue prior to the distribution. The idea here is that this issue is too big for the price to be manipulated. This is called a “Tier 1” issue.

If the security has an average daily trading volume of $100,000 and a public float of at least $25,000,000, the restricted period is the business day prior to the effective date. This is called a “Tier 2” issue.
Any other security not meeting these minimums is a “Tier 3” issue and is subject to a restricted period of 5 business days prior to the effective date.

35
Q

Under Regulation M, which statements are TRUE?

I Syndicate members that are not market makers are restricted from buying Tier 1 securities for the 5 business day window of time prior to the effective date
II Syndicate members that are not market makers are permitted to buy Tier 1 securities anytime prior to the effective date
III Syndicate members that are not market makers are restricted from buying Tier 3 securities for the 5 business day window of time prior to the effective date
IV Syndicate members that are not market makers are permitted to buy Tier 3 securities anytime prior to the effective date

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is C.

Rule 101 of Regulation M covers syndicate members who are not market makers in that stock that are in an underwriting group for an “add on” stock offering. The intent is to make sure that they do not try and manipulate the price of the security upwards prior to the effective date, so that a higher POP could be set. They are subject to a restricted period for secondary offerings, of either 1 business day or 5 business days prior to the effective date, where they are prohibited from purchasing, making a bid for, or inducing the purchase of, the underwritten security. If the security is very actively traded, there is no restricted period. Note that they can accept unsolicited orders to buy the security. The rule states that:

Tier 1 Issue - if the security is actively traded (average daily trading volume of $1,000,000 or more and public float of at least $150,000,000), there are no restrictions placed on market makers trading the issue prior to the distribution. The idea here is that this issue is too big for the price to be manipulated. This is called a “Tier 1” issue.

Tier 2 Issue - if the security has an average daily trading volume of $100,000 and a public float of at least $25,000,000 the restricted period is the business day prior to the effective date. This is called a “Tier 2” issue.

Tier 3 Issue - any other security not meeting these minimums is a “Tier 3” issue and is subject to a restricted period of 5 business days prior to the effective date.

36
Q

A short seller is prohibited from covering short sales with offered securities purchased from an underwriter participating in the offering if the short sale occurred how many days prior to the pricing of the offered securities?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10

A

The best answer is C.

SEC Regulation M (Rules 101-105) covers secondary market activities related to registered public offerings, and addresses such items as prohibitions or limits on syndicate members buying the stock in the secondary market during the 20-day cooling off period (this is for add-on offerings); stabilization rules (because stabilizing bids are placed in the secondary market); and also, under Rule 105, addresses a rather nasty market manipulation that occurred in secondary offerings.

Prior to the adoption of this rule, a common trading practice was for overly aggressive independent traders to short that stock in the market - pushing the price down during the 20-day cooling off period. The fall in the market price would force the underwriters to lower the Public Offering Price of the issue. Thus, when registration became effective, the independent trading firms could buy the issue from the underwriters at the lower P.O.P., cover their short positions, and have a nice profit. The problem was, however, that this activity was clearly manipulative. The SEC took a dim view of this activity, and under Rule 105, prohibits broker-dealers from purchasing shares of stock from the underwriters at the offering price to cover short positions established within 5 business days of the effective date.

37
Q

All of the following meet the statutory definition of an “insider” EXCEPT:

A. an officer of a company
B. the holder of 10% of the equity securities of a company
C. the holder of 10% of the debt of a company
D. a director of a company

A

The best answer is C.

The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 defines a statutory “insider” as any officer, director, or 10% shareholder of the equity securities of the issuer.

38
Q

A research analyst at PDQ Securities mentions to a registered representative at that firm that a new research report is coming out about ACME Corporation that is “highly positive.” Prior to the issuance of the research report, the registered representative calls his customers and tells them to buy ACME stock. Based on this information, which statements are TRUE?

I The research analyst has violated the insider trading rules
II The research analyst has not violated the insider trading rules
III The registered representative has violated the insider trading rules
IV The registered representative has not violated the insider trading rules

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is A.

Under the Insider Trading Act of 1988, any person who uses material non-public information to trade in a company’s stock for profit can be considered to be an “insider.” In addition, the Act extends the definition of an insider to “controlling” persons - in this case, the provider of the information. A person who “communicates” material non-public information can be held liable under the Act unless “that person acted in good faith and did not directly or indirectly induce the act constituting the violation.” Therefore, both the person trading on the inside information (the “tippee”) and the communicator of the information (the “tipper”) can be held liable under the Act.

39
Q

The civil penalty for being found guilty of insider trading is:

A. double damages
B. treble damages
C. quadruple damages
D. quintuple damages

A

The best answer is B.

If an individual is found guilty of insider trading, he or she must pay back the profit achieved or loss avoided, and in addition must pay a penalty equal to 3 times that amount. This is called “treble damages.”

40
Q

If a person is convicted of insider trading:

I the amount of any profit achieved or loss avoided must be paid
II three times the amount of any profit achieved or loss avoided must be paid
III payments are made to the Department of Treasury
IV payments are made to the Securities and Exchange Commission

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is C.

Fines assessed for insider trading convictions are paid to the Department of Treasury. The fines are not paid to the SEC. If they were, then the SEC might be tempted to “go crazy” prosecuting insider trading cases to pump up its operating budget (raises for everyone!) The amount to be paid is 3 times (treble damages) the profit achieved or loss avoided.

41
Q

Which of the following brokerage firm units would need to be separated under “Chinese Wall” requirements?

I U.S. equities trading desk separated from Asian equities trading desk
II U.S. equities trading desk separated from the firm’s U.S. investment banking unit
III U.S. equities trading desk separated from the firm’s U.S. research unit
IV U.S. equities trading desk separated from the firm’s foreign equities trading desk

A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. I only
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is B.

The “Chinese Wall” as used in the securities industry, is the complete separation of a broker-dealer’s investment banking unit or research unit from its trading unit. In its normal operations, an investment banking unit may advise on takeovers; or receive other confidential information that could influence the price of an issuer’s securities once the information is public. Broker-dealers establish a “wall” between the investment banking unit and the trading unit, so that this information is not received by the firm’s traders in advance of its release to the public. This is accomplished by referring to the issuer’s name as a codeword only; by severely restricting the number of people that work on sensitive projects, etc. In this manner, the firm’s traders cannot profit from the information in advance of its release to the public. This is critical, since to do so would be a violation of the “Insider Trading” provisions of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. The same problem applies to the flow of information between a firm’s research unit and trading unit, so a Chinese Wall must be established here as well.

42
Q

A “short swing” profit is defined as a profit achieved by an insider who trades his or her company’s stock within:

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months

A

The best answer is B.

A “short swing” profit is defined as one achieved by an insider (officer, director or 10% shareholder) trading that company’s stock within a six month period. Short swing profits must be returned to the corporation under the Act.

43
Q

Corporate officers who wish to trade their own company’s stock must comply with all of the following rules EXCEPT:

A. filing change of holding reports with the SEC
B. prohibitions on short sales of that company’s stock
C. purchase restrictions through the exercise of stock options
D. trading is restricted to decisions based on publicly available information

A

The best answer is C.

There is no restriction on corporate officers’ buying their company’s stock through the exercise of stock options. Many companies compensate their officers with stock option packages. Officers must report their trades to the SEC within 2 business days of the trade, since they are classed as “insiders;” insiders are prohibited from selling their company’s stock short except for year-end “short against the box” trades; and insiders can only trade based on publicly available information.

44
Q

An officer of a publicly traded company is prohibited from all of the following actions EXCEPT:

A. selling short the common stock of that company
B. retaining a profit generated from the purchase and sale of the company’s stock within a 6 month period
C. trading that company’s stock based upon material, non-public information
D. exercising call options or pre-emptive rights on that issuer’s stock

A

The best answer is D.

Under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, insiders are prohibited from selling their own company’s stock short; must disgorge any profits obtained from short swing trading of that company’s stock (defined as gains earned over a 6 month period); and are prohibited from trading based upon material, non-public (“inside”) information. There is no prohibition on an insider exercising pre-emptive rights or call options held on that company’s stock. However, these transactions would be reported to the SEC within 2 business days of the trade.

45
Q

A customer inherits 3,000,000 shares of ABC stock, a company listed on the NYSE which has 10,000,000 shares outstanding. The customer is not a director or officer of the company. Which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

I The customer is defined as an “insider” under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934
II The customer is prohibited from selling ABC stock short; however, the customer may short against the box at year end, as long as the position is covered within 20 days
III If the customer trades ABC stock at a profit after having held the stock for less than 6 months, the gain is forfeited
IV The customer must report trading activity to the SEC

A. I only
B. II and IV
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is D.

This person falls into the definition of an “insider” because he holds 10% or more (in this case he holds 30%) of the company’s common stock. Insiders cannot sell their stock short (except to short against the box at year end to lock in a gain, in which case the position must be closed within 20 days); they must forfeit any short swing profits derived from trading their own company’s shares; and trading activity must be reported within 2 business days of the trade to the SEC.

46
Q

A woman is the owner of 200,000 shares of XYZ stock. XYZ is a publicly traded company with 1,000,000 shares outstanding. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

I She is considered an “insider” under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934
II She is prohibited from selling XYZ stock short
III She must report trading activity to the SEC
IV She must be registered with the SEC as a holder of more than 5% of the company’s stock

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is D.

All of the statements are true. A holder of 10% or more is considered an insider. Insiders are prohibited from selling that company’s stock short and must report their trading activity to the SEC (within 2 business days of each trade). Any holder of 5% or more of a company’s stock must file with the SEC under Section 13D.

47
Q

An officer of a listed company calls his registered representative and tells him to sell the maximum amount of that company’s common shares in accordance with Rule 144. Prior to placing the order to sell, the registered representative calls five of his customers and tells them to sell that company’s stock. Which statement is TRUE?

A. There is no violation of FINRA rules
B. There is no violation of Securities and Exchange Commission rules
C. This action violates the Securities Act of 1933
D. This action violates the insider trading provisions of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934

A

The best answer is D.

When the registered representative received the sell order from the officer, he is obligated to execute that order before acting on the information he has received. Once the order is executed, the Form 144 has been filed (it must be filed either at or prior to execution of the order) and the order is public information. At this point, he can trade for himself or his customers, and he is no longer considered to be an “insider.” In effect, the registered representative is “front running” the officer by telling his other customers to sell before placing the officer’s sell order. This is a violation of the Securities Exchange Act Rule 10b-5. This is not a violation of the Securities Act of 1933, which solely covers the registration and sale of new issues.

48
Q

A corporate executive holds a meeting with a select group of research analysts and gives information about the company’s expected revenue and income for the upcoming quarter. If the analysts use the information to make recommendations, which statements are TRUE under Regulation FD?

I The corporate officer is considered to be a tipper
II The corporate officer is considered to be a tippee
III Each analyst is considered to be a tipper
IV Each analyst is considered to be a tippee

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is B.

Regulation FD (Fair Disclosure), passed in 2000, is basically an elaboration of the insider trading rules. It prohibits issuers from making selective disclosure of non-public information to research analysts, mutual fund managers, and other industry professionals, unless at the same time, the information is broadly disseminated to the public. If such selective disclosure is made and trades result, the corporate officers giving the information become “tippers” and the recipients become “tippees.”

49
Q

An officer of a company has been invited by a large mutual fund company to give a talk to the fund company’s analysts about its business plans and prospects. At the talk, the officer inadvertently discloses material information that could affect the stock’s price. Which statement is FALSE?

A. The officer is considered to be a “tipper”
B. The analysts are considered to be “tippees”
C. The company must make an immediate public disclosure of the information to avoid insider trading liability
D. The company must file a 10K with the SEC disclosing the information to avoid insider trading liability

A

The best answer is D.

If an officer of a company makes an accidental disclosure of material non-public information at a presentation to analysts, Regulation FD considers the officer to be a tipper and the analysts to be tippees. To avoid insider trading liability, the company can either make an immediate public disclosure of the information or can file an 8K Report (a special report of significant events with the SEC, which makes the information public). A 10K is the corporation’s annual audited financial statements and has nothing to do with Regulation FD.

50
Q

An officer of a company has been invited by a large mutual fund company to give a talk to the fund company’s analysts about its business plans and prospects. At the talk, the officer inadvertently discloses material information that could affect the stock’s price. Which statements are TRUE?

I A public announcement of the news must be made within 24 hours
II A public announcement of the news must be made within 10 business days
III The company must file an 8K with the SEC disclosing the information to avoid insider trading liability
IV The company must file a 10K with the SEC disclosing the information to avoid insider trading liability

A. I or III
B. I or IV
C. II or III
D. II or IV

A

The best answer is A.

If an officer of a company makes an accidental disclosure of material non-public information at a presentation to analysts, Regulation FD considers the officer to be a tipper and the analysts to be tippees. To avoid insider trading liability, the company can either make an immediate public disclosure of the information (defined as public disclosure within 24 hours of the inadvertent disclosure) or can file an 8K report (a special report of significant events with the SEC, which makes the information public). A 10K is the corporation’s annual audited financial statements and has nothing to do with Regulation FD.

51
Q

An officer of a company has been invited by a large mutual fund company to give a talk to the fund company’s analysts about its business plans and prospects. At the talk, the officer inadvertently discloses material information that could affect the stock’s price. Which statement is FALSE?

A. The officer is considered to be a “tipper”
B. The analysts are considered to be “tippees”
C. The company must file an 8K report immediately with the SEC disclosing the information to avoid insider trading liability
D. The company must file a 10K report immediately with the SEC disclosing the information to avoid insider trading liability

A

The best answer is D.

If an officer of a company makes an accidental disclosure of material non-public information at a presentation to analysts, Regulation FD considers the officer to be a tipper and the analysts to be tippees. To avoid insider trading liability, the company can either make an immediate public disclosure of the information or can file an 8K Report (a special report of significant events with the SEC, which makes the information public). A 10K is the corporation’s annual audited financial statements and has nothing to do with Regulation FD.

52
Q

SEC Rule 10b-5-1:

A. is the “catch all” fraud rule that makes any deceptive or manipulative practice in connection with the sale of a security potentially fraudulent under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934
B. gives officers of publicly held companies a safe harbor from being charged with an insider trading violation if they establish a pre-arranged trading plan for that issuer’s securities
C. prohibits the purchase or sale of an issuer’s securities based on material nonpublic information in breach of duty of trust owed to the issuer or shareholders of that security
D. prohibits any person, in connection with a tender offer for securities, to bid for or purchase the security which is subject of the tender offer through any means other than via the offer

A

The best answer is B.

SEC Rule 10b-5-1 allows officers of publicly held companies (statutory insiders) to establish “pre-arranged trading plans” that set future transaction dates and amounts of that issuer’s securities; or that specify algorithms that establish the transaction dates and amounts. As long as the officer does not deviate from the plan, the officer is given a “safe harbor” from being accused of insider trading based on those trades

53
Q

The “penny stock” rule applies to equity securities which are:

I listed on an exchange or on NASDAQ
II not listed on an exchange or on NASDAQ
III priced at $5 or over
IV priced under $5

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

A

The best answer is D.

The “penny stock” designation only applies to equity securities which are not listed on an exchange or NASDAQ; and that are under $5 per share. Translated, we are talking about “penny stocks” included in the OTCBB or Pink Sheets. To solicit the purchase of such securities requires that a detailed suitability determination be performed; that the customer be sent the determination; and that the customer sign and return this form before the sale can be confirmed.

54
Q

A registered representative solicits an order from a new customer to purchase a “penny stock” that is trading over-the-counter. What must be disclosed to the customer on the trade confirmation?

A. The percentage of outstanding shares held by institutional investors
B. The company’s earnings per share for each of the last 5 years
C. The compensation received by the representative and the broker-dealer in the transaction
D. The execution price of the 3 most recent transactions in that security

A

The best answer is C.

Under the SEC’s “penny stock rule” (Rules 15g-1 through 15g-6), if a registered representative solicits a new customer to buy a non-NASDAQ over-the-counter stock priced under $5 (translated, this is an OTCBB or Pink OTC Markets issue under $5), the registered representative must complete a detailed suitability statement for the customer, and the customer must sign this statement before the order can be confirmed. This rule was enacted to curb unethical sales practices of so-called “penny stocks.”

The rule also requires that the trade confirmation disclose the compensation earned by the representative and the broker-dealer in the transaction; and that account statements showing the position at market value be sent monthly, even if there is no activity in the account (as opposed to the regular quarterly statement requirement for inactive accounts).

55
Q

If a registered representative solicits an order from a new customer to purchase a “penny stock” that is trading over-the-counter, which procedure is required?

A. Send a prospectus to the customer
B. Have the customer sign a statement that he or she understands the risks involved prior to executing the order
C. Have the branch manager approve the order and then fill the customer’s order in the same manner as with any other security
D. Send the customer a Subscription Agreement to be signed before filling the order

A

The best answer is B.

Under the SEC’s “penny stock rule” (Rules 15g-1 through 15g-6), if a registered representative solicits a new customer to buy a non-NASDAQ over-the-counter stock priced under $5 (translated, this is an OTCBB or Pink Sheet issue under $5), the registered representative must complete a detailed suitability statement for the customer, and the customer must sign this statement before the order can be confirmed. This rule was enacted to curb unethical sales practices of so-called “penny stocks.”

56
Q

Under the “penny stock rule,” an established customer that is exempt from the rule is defined as a person who has effected a securities transaction or made a deposit of funds or securities with that broker-dealer more than:

A. 1 year previously
B. 2 years previously
C. 3 years previously
D. 5 years previously

A

The best answer is A.

Suitability statements are not required under the “penny stock rule” for so-called “established customers.” These are customers who have either had cash or securities in custody of that broker-dealer for at least 1 year; or customers who have bought 3 or more “penny stock” issues previously from that broker-dealer.

57
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE about listed securities?

I Under Regulation T, all listed securities are marginable
II Listed securities are subject to “Regulation SHO”
III Listed issuers must register any new issue offerings with the SEC
IV Listed issuers must report their results to the SEC

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is D.

Listed securities (those listed on an exchange) are marginable under Regulation T. Under the Exchange Act of 1934, Regulation SHO requires that before any equity security (either listed or unlisted) can be sold short, the member firm must affirmatively determine that the security can be borrowed and delivered on settlement. This is called the “locate” requirement. Listed securities trade in the first (exchanges), third (OTC trading of exchange listed securities) and fourth (direct trades between institutions via ECNs) markets. The second market is trading of unlisted securities over-the-counter. These are OTCBB and Pink Sheet issues. Listed companies must register with, and report their results to, the SEC.

58
Q

All of the following statements are true about listed securities EXCEPT:

A. listed securities trade in the Second Market
B. under Regulation T, all listed securities are marginable
C. listed securities are subject to Regulation SHO
D. listed companies must be registered with, and report their results to, the SEC

A

The best answer is A.

Listed securities (those listed on an exchange) are marginable under Regulation T. Under the Exchange Act of 1934, Regulation SHO requires that before any equity security (either listed or unlisted) can be sold short, the member firm must affirmatively determine that the security can be borrowed and delivered on settlement. This is called the “locate” requirement. Listed securities trade in the first (exchanges), third (OTC trading of exchange listed securities) and fourth (direct trades between institutions via ECNs) markets. The second market is trading of unlisted securities over-the-counter. These are OTCBB and Pink Sheet issues. Listed companies must register with, and report their results to, the SEC.

59
Q

All of the following actions require a filing with the SEC EXCEPT:

A. the purchase of a 5% position in one company’s stock
B. an officer selling 1% of that company’s stock
C. a broker-dealer’s net capital computation
D. a company declaring a cash dividend to stockholders

A

The best answer is D.

Anyone who accumulates a 5% position in one company must make a 13D filing with the SEC; officers must report their sales of that company’s stock under the insider rules by filing a Form 4 within 2 business days of the trade; and broker/dealers must report their Net Capital to the SEC. A corporate 8K filing is required for any unusual corporate announcements such as a merger or divestiture - it is not required for a dividend announcement, which is rather typical.

60
Q

Which of the following requires filing with the SEC?

I Purchase of a 5% position in one company’s stock
II An officer selling 1% of that company’s stock
III Corporation declaring bankruptcy
IV Corporate proxy materials

A. I only
B. II only
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is D.

All of the items listed are filed with the SEC. Anyone who accumulates a 5% position in one company must make a 13D filing with the SEC; officers must report their sales of that company’s stock under the insider rules by filing a Form 4 within 2 business days of the trade; a corporate 8K filing is required for any unusual corporate announcements such as a merger or divestiture, or bankruptcy declaration; and corporate proxy materials must be filed with the SEC 10 business days before use.

61
Q

Which of the following requires filing with the SEC?

I Purchase of a 5% position in one company’s stock
II An officer selling 1% of that company’s stock
III Broker-Dealer Net Capital computation
IV Corporate proxy materials

A. I only
B. II only
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is D.

All of the items listed are filed with the SEC. Anyone who accumulates a 5% position in one company must make a 13D filing with the SEC; officers must report their sales of that company’s stock under the insider rules by filing a Form 4 within 2 business days of the trade; broker/dealers must report their Net Capital to the SEC; corporate proxy materials must be filed with the SEC 10 business days before use.

62
Q

All of the following are covered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 EXCEPT:

A. registration of broker-dealers
B. registration of new issues
C. stabilization of new issues
D. registration of exchanges

A

The best answer is B.

The Securities Act of 1933 requires registration of non-exempt new issues. The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 requires registration of exchanges and their members with the SEC, and allows stabilization of new issues in the secondary market under prescribed conditions.