Security, Safety, Compliance, and Admin Procedures Flashcards

(78 cards)

1
Q

The simplest measuring and transmitting device is _____.
a. Float type
b. Bubbler units
c. Pressure activated
d. Sonic type

A

a. Float type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A confined space is defined as _____.
a. A space that must have a limited means of entry and exit
b. A space that must not be designed for continuous human occupancy
c. A space that must be of a size and configuration that humans can enter and perform work
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What organization approves self-contained breathing apparatuses (SCBAs)
a. ANSI
b. NIOSH
c. OSHA
d. USEPA

A

b. NIOSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

An operator needs to pour some dilute acid into some water; what should be used for eye protection?
a. Eye protection is not needed for this procedure
b. Safety goggles
c. Regular safety glasses
d. Prescription safety glasses

A

b. Safety goggles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Under the American National Standards Institute guidelines, as a general rule, what is considered as a last resort for safety?
a. Engineering changes
b. Administration changes
c. Supervisor changes
d. Personal protective equipment

A

d. Personal protective equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. The compliance for chlorite is based on the __ ___ of __ ___ chlorite monitoring locations each __ ___.
    a. Average, three, month
    b. Average, five, quarter
    c. Running annual average, three, month
    d. Running annual average, five, quarter
A

a. Average, three, month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Radon is a gas most often found in _____.
a. Metamorphic rock formations
b. Sedimentary clays and silts
c. Granite formations
d. Volcanic rocks

A

c. Granite formations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The Interim Enhance Surface Water Treatment Rule requires that the water industry provide a minimum __ ___ of __ ___.
a. 2-log removal, Cryptosporidium
b. 3-log removal, Cryptosporidium
c. 2-log removal, Giardia
d. 3- log removal, Giardia

A

b. 3-log removal, Cryptosporidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What gas will cause olfactory fatigue?
a. Radon
b. Methane
c. Hydrogen sulfide
d. Nitrous oxide

A

c. Hydrogen sulfide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the main cause of THMs when chlorination is used?
a. Algae
b. Bacteria
c. Humic and fulvic acids
d. Proteins

A

c. Humic and fulvic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Eyewashes should be located _____.
a. In every pump room
b. Within 25 feet of all chemical storage areas
c. In every laboratory
d. Within 10 ft of every chemical storage tank

A

b. Within 25 feet of all chemical storage areas
c. In every laboratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The original SWDA and the 1986 amendments focused on what aspect to provide safe drinking water?
a. Treatment
b. Water source water protection
c. Water quality out of the treatment plant and in the distribution system
d. Funding for water system improvements

A

a. Treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If phosphates are used for corrosion control, mains should be flushed regularly with phosphate results recorded _____.
a. In 5-, 10-, and 15-min intervals
b. In 10-min intervals for 1 hour
c. In 15-min intervals for 1 hour
d. Every hour for 4 hours

A

a. In 5-, 10-, and 15-min intervals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Systems that use chlorine dioxide will have to monitor for _____.
a. Chlorite
b. Chlorate
c. Bromate
d. Bromide

A

a. Chlorite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If a boil water notice is issued by a water utility, customers should boil water for at least ___ __ or longer, if at a high altitude.
a. 3 min
b. 5 min
c. 10 min
d. 12 min

A

b. 5 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What regulation specifies the percentage removal of TOC?
a. Interim Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule
b. Surface Water Treatment Rule
c. Stage 1 Disinfectants and Disinfectant Byproduct Rule
d. Stage 2 Disinfectants and Disinfection Byproduct Rule

A

c. Stage 1 Disinfectants and Disinfectant Byproduct Rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What percentage of deaths in confined spaces are the deaths of would-be-rescuers?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 67%
d. 75%

A

c. 67%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What emergency repair kit is used for a chlorine cylinder?
a. Kit A
b. Kit B
c. Kit C
d. Kit D

A

a. Kit A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What organization provides testing for point-of-use or point-of-entry devices?
a. County public health departments
b. State public health departments
c. NSF International
d. Water Quality Association

A

c. NSF International

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What water use system regulates water use so that overdraft cannot occur?
a. Appropriative rights
b. Appropriative-permit system
c. Riparian doctrine
d. Correlative rights

A

b. Appropriative-permit system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In the Total Coliform Rule, the USEPA has set the health goal for total coliforms at ___ ___.
a. Zero
b. One positive per 40
c. 5% of samples
d. <5% of samples

A

a. Zero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The Long-Term 1 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule applies to surface water systems and groundwater under the direct influence of surface water (GWUDI) serving fewer than _ ____ people.
a. 3,300
b. 5,000
c. 10,000
d. 25,000

A

c. 10,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of process control is used when the process needs a wide proportional band for stable operations?
a. Floating proportional control
b. Proportional control
c. Proportional plus reset control
d. Proportional plus reset plus derivative control

A

c. Proportional plus reset control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What log removal is required for viruses under the Groundwater Rule?
a. 2.5 logs
b. 3 logs
c. 3.5 logs
d. 4 logs

A

d. 4 logs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
The Filter Backwash Recycle Rule is particularly associated with _____. a. Viruses b. Cryptosporidium c. Bacterial pathogens d. Coliforms
b. Cryptosporidium
26
In the Stage 1 Disinfectant and Disinfection Byproducts Rule, the maximum chlorine dioxide level is set at _____. a. O.8 mg/L b. 1.0 mg/L c. 1.2 mg/L d. 1.5 mg/L
a. O.8 mg/L
27
There is not a maximum contaminant level for Total Dissolved Solids (TDS), but there is a secondary standard for TDS of _ ____. TDS is a gross measure of the __ ___ of the water because __ ___ substances are usually a minor part of the total. a. 250 mg/L, organics, volatile b. 500 mg/L, organics, volatile c. 250 mg/L, inorganics, organic d. 500 mg/L, inorganics, organic
d. 500 mg/L, inorganics, organic
28
__ ___ is the organization responsible for testing and approving water treatment chemicals and components. a. AWWA b. NSF International c. Association of State Drinking Water Administrators d. Conference of State Health and Environmental Managers
b. NSF International
29
What type of process control will not lose action when the signal is lost? a. Feedback control b. Proportional reset control c. Floating control d. Floating proportional control
d. Floating proportional control
30
Cryptosporidium is very susceptible to _____. a. Chlorine dioxide b. Chlorine c. Ultraviolet light d. Ozone
c. Ultraviolet light
31
What parameter has an MCL? a. Ammonia b. Lead c. Phosphate d. Nitrite
d. Nitrite
32
Tasting a little bit of a laboratory reagent is _____. a. Permissible for bases only b. Permissible for acids only c. Permissible as long as there is no skull and crossbones on the label d. Dangerous and can even be fatal
d. Dangerous and can even be fatal
33
Operators that use a self-contained breathing apparatus need a medical review every __ ___. Which organization requires fit testing of tight-fitting respirators? a. Year, OSHA b. Year, state public health departments c. Two years, OSHA d. Two years, state public health departments
a. Year, OSHA
34
What is the primary reason for developing and maintaining safe working conditions and practices? a. To eliminate lost work time as much as possible b. To eliminate injuries c. To eliminate or reduce medical costs d. To reduce costs and litigation for the Utility
b. To eliminate injuries
35
Water systems that fail to meet the lead and copper action levels required by the Lead and Copper Rule must take corrective action as directed by the _____. a. USEPA b. County regulatory agency c. State regulatory agency d. Utility’s management
c. State regulatory agency
36
Exposure over many years of drinking water containing copper above the action level could increase the risk of _____. a. Liver and kidney damage b. Heart failure c. Thyroid failure d. Intestinal cancer
a. Liver and kidney damage
37
If a filter’s turbidity exceeds _____ ntu in the first 4 hours of a given filter run for two consecutive _____ min samples, the results must be reported within _____ days following the month of occurrence. a. 0.3, 5 – min, 5 b. 0.3, 15 – min, 10 c. 0.5, 15 -min, 10 d. 1.0, 30 – min, 14
c. 0.5, 15 -min, 10
38
Who is responsible for knowing the hazards of a confined space? a. Entry supervisor b. Authorized attendant c. Authorized entrant d. All of the above
d. All of the above
39
Laboratories should be equipped with __ ___ and _ ____. a. Class A, Class B fire extinguishers b. Class B, Class C fire extinguishers c. All-purpose fire extinguishers, fire blankets d. All-purpose fire extinguishers, a burn kit
c. All-purpose fire extinguishers, fire blankets
40
If a system changes from free chlorine to chloramines, hospitals and kidney dialysis centers must be alerted because it can cause _____. a. Hyperanemia b. Hyperhomocysteinaemia c. Hemolytic anemia d. Hypochromic anemia
c. Hemolytic anemia
41
The Locational Running Annual Average (LRAA) applies to what USEPA regulation? a. Interim Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule b. Ground Water Rule c. Stage 1 Disinfectant and Disinfection Byproducts Rule d. Stage 2 Disinfectant and Disinfection Byproducts Rule
d. Stage 2 Disinfectant and Disinfection Byproducts Rule
42
The Revised Total Coliform Rule eliminated the MCLG and MCL for _____, and established an MCLG and MCL of zero for _____. a. Giardia, total coliforms b. Cryptosporidium, total coliforms c. Giardia, E. coli d. Total coliforms, E. coli
d. Total coliforms, E. coli
43
No antibiotic treatment currently exists for _____. a. Salmonella b. Shigella c. Cryptosporidium d. Entamoeba
c. Cryptosporidium
44
What radioactive contaminant will most probably cause lung cancer? a. Radium b. Uranium c. Radon d. Plutonium
c. Radon
45
The Maximum Contaminant Level (MCL) is the allowable concentration of a contaminant in drinking water. Who establishes the MCLs? a. USEPA and AWWA b. State and federal regulations c. AWWA and local public health departments d. NSF/ANSI
b. State and federal regulations
46
Who is responsible for maintain safe working conditions, the physical condition of their facilities, and supporting policies that encourage the safe performance of work duties? a. Utility manager b. Supervisor c. Chief operator d. Every individual associated with the water utility
a. Utility manager
47
Hydrogen sulfide is a poisonous gas and is colorless ___ __ and _ ____ than air. a. Inert, heavier b. Explosive, lighter c. Explosive, heavier d. Inert, lighter
c. Explosive, heavier
48
To comply with the Enhanced Coagulation requirements, a softening plant would need to remove __ ___ of __ ___ hardness. a. 5 mg/L, carbonate b. 10 mg/L, carbonate c. 5mg/L, magnesium d. 10 mg/L, magnesium
d. 10 mg/L, magnesium
49
Just before an operator enters a non-permit confined space, what should be done first? a. The paperwork should have been filled out near the confined space b. The gas monitor should have been calibrated or bump tested with a calibration within the last 30 days c. The operator should have checked the atmosphere of the confined space to declassify it as a non-permit space d. All of the above
c. The operator should have checked the atmosphere of the confined space to declassify it as a non-permit space
50
In the Stage 1 Disinfectants and Disinfection Byproducts Rule, the maximum level of chloramines is set at _____. a. 3.0 mg/L b. 4.0 mg/L c. 5.0 mg/L d. 6.0 mg/L
b. 4.0 mg/L
51
The color of copper staining of fixtures is usually _____. a. Greenish red b. Blue green c. Pinkish red d. Reddish brown
b. Blue green
52
The combined filter effluent turbidity must be _____ ntu for _____ % of the samples collected each month; and none of the samples can be _____ ntu. a. =0.3, 95, >1 b. =0.3, 98, =1 c. <0.3, 98, =0.5 d. =0.3, 95, >1
d. =0.3, 95, >1
53
A positive total coliform result requires three repeat samples; one at the site of the positive total coliform sample, and two others within _ ____ service taps upstream an downstream of the positive site. a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five
d. Five
54
In the Long-Term 1 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule, water systems are required to achieve a _ ____ removal of __ ___. a. 2-log, Giardia cysts b. 2-log, Cryptosporidium c. 3-log, Giardia cysts d. 3-log, Cryptosporidium
b. 2-log, Cryptosporidium
55
Who is primarily responsible for safety at a water plant? a. Utility supervisor b. Supervisor c. Chief operator d. Every individual associated with the water utility
d. Every individual associated with the water utility
56
What USEPA rule may require a system to provide a special customer education program? a. Total Coliform Rule b. Surface Water Treatment Rule c. Stage 2 Disinfectant and Disinfection Byproducts Rule d. Lead and Copper Rule
d. Lead and Copper Rule
57
What gas can come from/off storage batteries, requiring batteries to be in well-ventilated areas? a. Carbon monoxide b. Carbon dioxide c. Hydrogen d. Hydrogen sulfide
c. Hydrogen
58
How does fluoride adversely affect the human body, besides possible mottled teeth? a. Cause bone damage b. Cause heart damage c. Cause liver damage d. Sause kidney damage
a. Cause bone damage
59
What is the maximum residual disinfectant level for chlorine? a. 4.0 mg/L free chlorine b. 4.0 mg/L total chlorine c. 5.0 mg/L free chlorine d. 5.0 mg/L total chlorine
b. 4.0 mg/L total chlorine
60
The 1986 Safe Drinking Water Act set up a timetable under which the USEPA was required to develop primary standards for __ ___ contaminants among other provisions, including __ ___. a. 63, a requirement to assess and possibly regulate 10 new contaminants every 5 years b. 83, prohibiting use of lead products to convey drinking water c. 63, a specific MCLG for carcinogens d. 83, lowering the arsenic MCL
b. 83, prohibiting use of lead products to convey drinking water
61
Safety showers should _ ____. a. Always be turned off manually, never by themselves b. Flow a torrent of water in a uniform pattern c. Be easy to reach and turn on d. All of the above
d. All of the above
62
Usually, pathogen exposure presents __ ___ rather than __ ___ risk, and if pathogens are detected, it will result in _ ____. a. Acute, chronic, boil-water notices b. Acute, chronic, steep fines on the utility c. Chronic, acute, boil-water notices d. Chronic, acute, steep fines on the utility
a. Acute, chronic, boil-water notices
63
Noncarcinogenic organic chemical effects are usually on the _ ____. a. Central nervous system b. Pancreas c. Gastrointestinal system d. Small intestines
a. Central nervous system
64
What is a disadvantage of biological treatment? a. It often causes tastes and odors b. The risk of introducing pathogenic organisms c. Higher chlorine demand d. Increased microbial growth in the distribution system
b. The risk of introducing pathogenic organisms
65
If soda ash dust gets into your eyes, they should be flushed with warm water for at least _____. a. 10 min b. 15 min c. 20 min d. 30 min
b. 15 min
66
Ingesting drinking water contaminated with copper can lead to _____. a. Lesch Nyhan Syndrome b. Pseudomyxoma peritonei c. Wilson’s disease d. Menkes disease
c. Wilson’s disease
67
68. The burning of coal will produce __ ___. A process known as __ ___ converts the sulfur-containing molecule into sulfuric acid. a. Sulfur oxide, UV oxidation b. Sulfur dioxide, photochemical oxidation c. Sulfur oxide, photochemical oxidation d. Sulfur dioxide, UV oxidation
b. Sulfur dioxide, photochemical oxidation
68
Hydrogen sulfide is a very dangerous gas because at high concentrations it _____. a. Disrupts the nervous system b. Paralyzes one’s sense of smell c. Kills in about 1 hour d. Destroys one’s ability to think clearly
b. Paralyzes one’s sense of smell
69
In drinking water, the coliform group of bacteria is used as an indicator organism for the presence of fecal contamination, which may indicate the presence of pathogens. The criteria for an ideal organism for pathogens in drinking water should be that they __ ___. a. Are present at least 98% of the times when coliforms are present b. Are absent more than 98% of the time when fecal contamination is absent c. Survive about as long as pathogens in the water d. Are easily identified
d. Are easily identified
70
Currently, what is the principal use of reclaimed water? a. Golf courses and lawn strips along streets b. Agricultural c. Flushing toilets d. Domestic lawn watering
b. Agricultural
71
The Safe Water Drinking Act of 1990 requires water systems to _____. a. Disinfect the water b. Disinfect and filter the water c. Implement conventional treatment processes d. Have a 4-log removal of Giardia and Cryptosporidium
b. Disinfect and filter the water
72
What is the unit of gamma radiation? a. Coulombs b. Neutrinos c. Rem d. Ergs
c. Rem
73
If variances and waivers are not granted after initial sampling, a public water system should sample for Phase I, II, and V contaminants every _____. a. Year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 5 years
c. 3 years
74
Ammonia may be fatal at concentrations of _____. a. 500 ppm b. 1,000 ppm c. 1,500 ppm d. 2,000 ppm
d. 2,000 ppm
75
Records need to be reported for any testing required for filter exemptions under the _____. a. Surface Water Treatment Rule (SWTR) b. Groundwater Rule c. Interim Enhanced SWTR d. Long-Term 1 or 2 Enhanced SWTR
c. Interim Enhanced SWTR
76
What is the main focus of the Groundwater Rule? a. Synthetic organic contamination b. Nitrite and Nitrate contamination c. Inorganic contamination d. Fecal contamination
d. Fecal contamination
77
Water treatment facilities should keep a 30-day supply of chemicals because __ ___, but not more than a 60-day supply because _ ____. a. Natural man-made disasters might occur, of storage issues b. Delivery problems may occur, the chemicals overtime lose their effectiveness c. Natural or man-made disasters might occur, the chemicals over time lose their effectiveness d. Delivery problems may occur, of storage issues
b. Delivery problems may occur, the chemicals overtime lose their effectiveness
78