Selected Notes gerries Flashcards

(150 cards)

1
Q

What is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A

<ul><li>Sudden episodic attacks of vertigo induced by changes in head position</li></ul>

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2
Q

Describe the epidemiology of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A

<ul><li>Leading cause of vertigo</li><li>Increased incidence in the elderly</li><li>Increased risk in those with gallstones(calcium deposits)</li></ul>

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3
Q

Describe the aetiology of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A

<ul><li>Detachment of otoliths from the utricle of the inner ear</li><li>Detached particles migrate into semicircular canals where they stimulate hair cells and lead to vertigo symptoms</li><li>Acummulation of cholelithiasis in semi circular cells of inner earrr</li></ul>

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4
Q

Describe the presentation of  patient with benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A

<ul><li>Vertigo triggered by changes in head position (e.g. rolling in bed, looking up)</li><li>Recurrent episodes lasting aroung 30secs-1 minute</li><li>May be associated with nausea&nbsp;</li><li>No auditory symptoms</li></ul>

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5
Q

How is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo diagnosed?

A

<ul><li>Positive Dix-Hallpike maneouvre</li><li>Lie down with one ear pointed to ground-&gt; check for nystagmus</li></ul>

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6
Q

Name some differentials for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A

<ul><li>Menieres disease</li><li>Vestibular neuritis</li><li>Labyrinthitis</li></ul>

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7
Q

How is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo managed?

A

<ul><li>Epley manouvere-works in around 80%(aims to detach otoliths out of semicircular canal and back to utricle)</li><li>Usuaully resolves spontaneously after a few weeks/months</li><li>Can teach patients at home exercises: 'vestibular rehab': e.g Brandt-Daroff exercises</li><li>Betahistine not very useful</li></ul>

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8
Q

Describe the prognosis for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A

<ul><li>1/2 will have recurrence of sx 3-5 years after diagnosis</li></ul>

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9
Q

What group of patients are more at risk of developing pressure ulcers?

A

<ul><li>Patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis or advancing age</li></ul>

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10
Q

Where do pressure ulcers typicallly develop?

A

<ul><li>Over bony prminences like the sacrum or heel</li></ul>

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11
Q

Name some risk factors for developing pressure ulcers?

A

<ul><li>Malnourishment</li><li>Incontinence-&gt; urinary and faecal</li><li>Lack of mobility</li><li>Pain-&gt; leads to decreased mobility</li></ul>

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12
Q

What scoring system is used to grade pressure ulcers?

A

<ul><li>Waterlow score</li></ul>

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13
Q

<b>Pressure ulcers grading:</b><br></br>Grade 1: {{c1::non-blanchable erythema of intact skin. Discolourationof skin, warmth, oedema or hardness used as indicators}}<br></br>Grade 2: {{c2::Partial thickness skin loss involving epidermis/dermis or both. Ulcer is superficial and present clinically as an abrasion/blister}}<br></br>Grade 3: {{c3::Full thickness skin loss involving damage to or necrosis of SC tissue that may extend down to but not through underlying fascia}}<br></br>Grade 4: {{c4::Extensive destruction, tissue necrosis ordamage to muscle, bone or supporting structures with/wihtout full thickness skin loss}}

A
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14
Q

How are pressure ulcers manageed?

A

<ul><li>Moist wound environemnt: hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels(no soap)</li><li>Wound swabs not routinely done-&gt; systemic abx use decided on clinical basis(surrounding cellulitis etc)</li><li>Consider referral to tissue viability nurses</li><li>Surgical debriedement for selected wounds</li></ul>

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15
Q

Whata re lower urinary tract sympotms?

A

<ul><li>Group of sx that occur as a result of abnormal storage, voiding or post micturition function of bladder, prostate or urethra</li></ul>

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16
Q

Describe the aetiology of LUTS

A

<ul><li>Neurological</li><li>Bladder</li><li>Prostate</li><li>Urethral</li><li>Other mass effect</li></ul>

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17
Q

How can LUTS be classified?

A

<ul><li>Voiding</li><li>Storage</li><li>Post-micturition</li></ul>

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18
Q

Name somee voiding symptoms LUTS

A

<ul><li>Hesitancy</li><li>Straining</li><li>Terminal dribbling</li><li>Incomplete emptying</li><li>Weak/intermittent urinary stream</li></ul>

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19
Q

Name some storage sx LUTS

A

<ul><li>Urgency</li><li>Frequency</li><li>Nocturia</li><li>Urinary incontinence</li></ul>

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20
Q

Name some post-micturition sx LUTS

A

<ul><li>Post-micturition dribbling</li><li>Sensation of incomplete emptying</li></ul>

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21
Q

Name some differentials for LUTS

A

<ul><li>Bladder outlet obstruction</li><li>Overactive bladder syndorme</li><li>Urethral stricture</li><li>Prostatitis</li><li>Bladder cancer</li></ul>

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22
Q

What investigations might be done in a patient presenting with LUTS?

A

<ul><li>Urinalysis: exclude infection and check for haematuria</li><li>DRE: size and consistency of prostate</li><li>PSA test may be considered</li><li>Bladder diary</li><li>Urodynamic studies</li></ul>

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23
Q

How are LUTS managed?

A

<ul><li>Treat undelrying cause</li><li>Depends on type of LUTS</li></ul>

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24
Q

How aare voiding LUTS managed?

A

<ul><li>Conservatrive: pelvic floor/bladder trianing</li><li>BPH-5-alpha reductase inhibitor-finasteride</li><li>Alpha blocker if severe-doxazosin</li></ul>

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25
How are voiding and storage LUTS managed?
  • Alpha blocker-doxazosin
  • Add anticholinergic-oxybutinin
26
How are overactive bladder symptoms managed?
  • Conservative: fluid management
  • Antimuscarininc if persistent-oxybutinin, tolteridone
27
How is nocturia managed?
  • Manage fluid intake at night
  • Furosemide 40mg in late afternoon
  • Desmopressin
28
What are the different types of urinary incontinence?
  • Stress-> leaking small amounts when laughing/coughing
  • Urge/overactive-> detrusor overactivityy
  • Mixed: urge/stress
  • Overflow-> bladder outlet obstruction
  • Functional
29
What causes overflow incontinence
  • Bladder outlet obstruction(e.g. prostate enlargement)
30
Name some reversible causes of urinary incontinence
DIAPPERS
  • Delirium
  • Infection
  • Atrophic vaginitis/urethritis
  • Pharmaceutical(medications)
  • Psychiatric disorders
  • Endocrine disorders(diabetes)
  • Restricted mobility
  • Stool impaction
31
What investigations migh tbe done to look for causes of urinary incontinence?
  • Physical exam: organ prolapse ad ability to contract pelvic floor muscles
  • Bladder diary: number and types of incontinence
  • Urinalysis: rule out infection
  • Cytometry: measurees bladder presure whilse voiding(not recommended where clear diagnosis)
  • Cystogram: Contrast in bladder and imaging(fistula)
32
What is stress incontinence?
Leaking of urine when abdominal pressure is high-> increases pressure on bladder
33
Name some risk factors for stress incontinence
  • Childbirth(especially vaginal)-> injury to pelvic floor muscles and connective tissue
  • Hysterectomy
34
Name some triggers for stress incontinence
  • Coughing
  • Laughing
  • Sneezing
  • Exercise
  • Anything that increases abdominal pressure
35
Describe the management of stress icontinence
  • Conservative: avoid fizzy, caffeinated drinks, pelvic floor exercises
  • Medical: Duloxetine
  • Surgical: GS: mid urethral slings(minimally nvasive, done as outpatients)
36
Name some risk factors for urge incontinence
  • Recurrent UTI
  • High BMI
  • Increasing age
  • Smoking
  • Caffeine
37
Describe the management of urge incontinence
  • Conservative: Bladder training, avoid alcoholic/caffeinted/sugary drinks
  • Medical: anticholinergics: oxybutinin, tolterodine, fesoterodine
  • Surgical: bladder instillation, sacral neuromodulation
38
Name a side effect of tolterodine
  • Increased risk of delirium
39
Name the causes of overflow incontinence
  • Underactivity of detrusor muscle(e.g from nerve damage) or if urinary outlet pressures are too high(constipation, prostatism)
40
What is functional incontinence?
  • Urge to pass urine but can't access facilities so experience incontinence
41
Name some causes/risk factors for functional incontinence
  • Sedating meds
  • Alochol
  • Dementias
42
What is quamous cell carcinoma?
  • Locally invasive malignant tumour of epidermal keratinocytes
  • With invasion of basement membrane as it is a cancer
43
Name some risk factors for SCC
  • Excessive exposure to sunlight/UV light
  • Actinic keratosis and Bowen's disease-> predisposing lesions
  • Genetics: xeroderma pigmentosum
  • Immunosuppresion
  • Smoking
  • Old age
  • Male
44
How might patients with SCC present?
  • Keratinised, scaly irregular nodules
  • Might be ulcerating or have everted edges
  • Often in sun exposed areas
  • Usually slow growing(months)
  • Pain, tenderness, bleeding
  • Complicaotins for local invasion-distant metastases is rare
45
How is SCC diagnosed?
  • Excision biopsy with 4mm margin
  • Might require 6mm margin if high risk
46
Name some features of a possible SCC that make it more high risk
  • >2cm diameter
  • Located on ear, lip, hands, feet or genitals
  • Elderly or immunosuppressed
  • Histology: poor differentiation, blood/nerve involvement, SC tissue invasion
47
How is SCC treated?
  • Surgical excision
  • Radiotherapy may be needed
  • Lifestyle to prevent further lesions-> sunscreen
48
What is the prognosis for SCC
  • 5 year survival of 99% if detected early
49
Name some poor prognostic factors for SCC
  • Poorly differentiated
  • >2cm diameter
  • >4mm deep
  • Immunosuppression
50
How can constipation be classified?
  • Primary: no organic cause: dysregulation of function of colon/anorectal muscles
  • Secondary: diet, medications, metabolic, endocrinee, neuro, obstruction
51
What criteria is used for classifying constipation?
  • Rome 6 criteria
52
Describe the Rome 6 criteria for constipation
  • <3 bowel movements/week
  • Hard stool in >25% of movements
  • Teenesmus in >25% of movements
  • Increased straining in >25% of movements
  • Need for manual evacuation

Any or all of them can constitute a diagnosis of constipation
53
Name some risk factors for constipation
  • Increasing age
  • Inactivity
  • Low calorie diet
  • Low fibre diet
  • Certain medications
  • Female
54
Name some possible causes of constipation
  • Inadequate fibre or fluid intake
  • Behavioural: inactivity of avoidance of defaecation
  • Electrolyte distrubances like hypercalcaemia
  • Drugs: opiates, CCBs, antipsychotics
  • Neurological: spinal cord lesions, Parkinson's, diabetic neuropathy
  • Endocrine-> hypothyroidism
  • Colon disease-> strictures/cancer/obstruction
  • Anal disease-> fissures
55
Name some red flag associated features of constipation
ALARMS
  • Anaemia
  • Lost weight
  • Anorexia
  • Recent onset
  • Melaena/bleeding
  • Swallowing difficulties
56
What investigations might be done in a patient with constipation?
  • Constipation/diarrhoea+ weight loss+ >60yrs-> 2wwk wait urgent CT/US to rule out pancreatic cancer
  • Often no need for further ix
  • PR exam
  • Stool sample: mcs, ova, cysts, parasites
  • FIT testing
  • Faecal calprotectin
  • Bloods: anaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothyroidism
  • Barium enema if suspicion of impaction/rectal mass
  • Colonoscopy-> lower GI malgnancy
57
Describe the management of constipation
  • Conservative: dietary imrpovements and increase exercise
  • Laxatives
58
What are the different types of laxatives
  • Bulking agents
  • Stool softeners
  • Stimulants
  • Osmotic laxatives
  • Phosphate enemas
59
Give an example of a bulking agent
  • Ipsaghula husk
60
How do bulking agents work?
  • Increase faecal bulk and peristalsis
61
When might bulking agents be contraindicated?
  • Dysphagia
  • GI obstruction
  • Faecal impaction
62
Name a side effect of bulking agents
  • Cramps
63
Give an example of a stool softener
  • Docusate
  • Macrogol
64
How do stool softeners work and when might they be used
  • Soften bowel movements
  • Good for fissures
65
When are stool softeners contraindicated?
  • IBD
  • Ileus
  • Risk of inttestinal perforation
66
Name some side effects of stool softeners
  • Flatulence
  • Nausea
67
Give an example of a stimulant laxative
  • Senna
  • Biisacodyl
68
How do stimulant laxatives work?
  • Increase intestinal motility
69
When might stimulant laxatives be contraindicated?
  • Obstruction
  • Colitis
70
Give a side effect of stimulatn laxatives
  • Cramps
71
Give an example of on osmotic laxative
  • Lactulose
  • Movicol
72
How do osmotic laxatives work?
  • Retain fluid in the bowel
  • Decrease NH3
73
Give a side effect of osmotic laxatives
  • Electrolyte imbalances
  • Diarrhoea
74
What must be done before a phosphate enema?
  • DRE first
  • Will cause rapid bowwel evacuation
75
Give some contraindications to a phosphate enema
  • Renal faioure
  • Heart failure
  • Electrolyte abnormalities
76
Give some side effects of a phosphate enema
  • Abdominal cramps
  • Dehydration
77
Define malnutrition
  • BMI<18.5 OR
  • Unintentional weight loss >10% in the last 3-6 mths OR
  • BMI<20 and unintentional weight loss >5% in the last 3-6 mths
78
How is malnutrition diagnosed?
  • Malnutrition Universal Screen Tool (MUST)
  • Takes into account BMI, unplanned weight loss score and acute disease effect
  • Should be done on admission of if there is cause for concern
  • Categorises patients into low, medium and high risk
79
How is malnutrition managed?
  • Dietician support if patient is high risk
  • 'Food-first' approach with clear instructions(add full fat cream to potatoes etc)
  • Oral nutritional supplements between meals
80
What is re-feeding syndrome?
  • Caused by reintroduction of glucose into the body after a period of malnutrition or fasting
81
Describe the pathophysiology of re-feeding syndrome?
  • Reintroduction of glucose-> insulin secretion resumes-> shift in electrolytes
82
How might patients with re-feeding syndrome present?
  • Low phosphate: weakness, resp failure, delirium, seizures
  • Low magnesium: muscle weakness, arrhythmias, NM excitability
  • Low potassium: weakness, paralysis, cardiac arrhythmias
  • High glucose: diabetes sx: increased thirst, urination, fatigue, blurred vision
83
How is re-feeding syndrome managed?
  • Monitoring and correctin of electrolyte imbalances
  • Slow reintroduction of food and fluids to avoid sudden shiffts in electrolytes
  • Thiamine replacement for at risk patients to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy
84
Name some risk ffactors for non-accidental injury
  • Caergive substance abuse
  • Caregiver mental health issues
  • Socioeconomic disadvantage
85
How might elderly patients with non accidental injury ppresent-history?
  • Delayed presentation followwing injury
  • Inconsistencies in caregiver's narratives
  • Unwitnessed injuries
  • Evidence of drug/alcohol use 
86
How might elderly patients with non accidental injury present-examination?
  • Injuries of varying ages
  • Subconjunctival/retinal haemorrhages
  • Bruises on arms, legs, or face consisten with grippping, burns, scalds
87
Name some differentials for non accidental injury
  • Accidental injury
  • Bleeding disorders
  • Haematological malignancy
88
What investigations might be done if non accidental injury is suspected?
  • Radiology: comprehensive skeletal survey(rib fractures, skull, finger, clavice etc)
  • Bloods: organic causes like clotting problems and blood cancers
89
How should non accidentl injury be managed?
  • Report suspicions to informed senior or safeguarding lead
  • Measures: admit and ensure safety of anyone else in the home
  • Treat other injuries
  • Document everything
  • Contact social care liaison
90
What is a DoLS?
  • Procedure used by law when necessary to deprive a patient or resident of their liberty as they lack capacity to consent to treatment/care to keep them safe from harm
91
How must a DoLS be authorised by?
  • Supervisory authority(e.g. local authority)
92
What conditions must be met to put a DoLS in place?
  • >18yrs and mental disorder
  • In hospital or care home
  • Pt lacks capacity to decide for themselves about the roposed restrictions
  • Proposed restrictions in person's best interest and would deprive person of their liberty
  • Not suitablee for detention under the MHA
93
What is Power of Attorney
  • Legal document that nominates another person to make decisions on their behalf related to financial/property or health/welfare
94
What is an advanced decision?
  • Legally binding document to ensure an individual can refuse a specific treatment(s) they don't want in the future
95
What criteria must be met for an advanced decision to be put into place?
  • Valide(made when person had capacity)
  • Applicable(wording specific to medical decision)
  • >18 yrs and fully informed wheen made
  • Not made under duress or influence of other people
  • Writeen down, signed and witnessed(if it concerns life saving treatment)
96
What does an advanced decision cover?
  • Refusal of treatments including life sustaining treatments
  • Can't refuse basic care, food/drink by mout, measures designed purely for comfort(painkillers) or treatment of a mental health disorder if sectoined under the MHA
  • Can't demand specific treatment/somethign illegal
97
What is an advanced statement?
  • Statement of wishes and care preferences
  • Not legally binding by itself but legally must be taken into account when making a 'best interests' decision
98
What creiteria must be met to make an advanced statement?
  • Can be made verballyy butbetter written down for documentation
  • Copies can be given t anyone like GPs, carers, relatives
99
What kind of things might be covered in n advanced statement?
  • Religious/personal views and how these relate to care
  • Food preferences
  • Info about dialy routine
  • People who youw ould like to be consulted when best interest decisions are being made on your behalf(not the same as creaitng a lasting power of attorney)
100
What is osteoporosis?
  • Systemic skeletal disease characterised by decreased bone mass and altered micro-architecture of bone tissue resultin in increased bone fragility and fracture risk
101
Describe the pathophysiology of osteoporosis
  • Primary: post menopausal(Type 1) and age related(type 2)-most commmon
  • Secondary: hyperthyroidism/hyperparathyroidism/alcohol abuse/immobilisation
  • Increased bone breakdown by osteoclasts and decreased bone formation by osteoblasts
102
What genes are involved in osteoporosis?
  • Collagen 1A1
  • Vitamin D receptor
  • Oestrogen receptor gene
103
How does oestrogen deficiency result in osteoporosis?
  • Increases number of remodelling units
  • Premature arrest of osteoblastic synthetic activity and trabeculae perforation
  • Loss of resistance to fracture
104
How do glucocorticoids cause osteoporosis?
  • Increase turnover atate initially(increased fracture risk in first 3 months)
  • The decreased turnover rate with net loss due to decreased synthesis by osteoblasts
  • Usually when used minimum 10mg OD for >3 months
105
How does ageing contribute to osteoporosis?
  • Increased turnover at the bone/vascular interface with cortical bone-> weak structure for stresses in long bones9trabeculazation of cortical bone)
106
Name some risk factors for osteoporosis
SHATTERED
  • Steroid use
  • Hyperthyroidism/hyperparathyroidism
  • alcohol and smoking
  • thin: BMI<22
  • testosterone deficiency(men wwith long term androgen deprivation therapy for prostate cancer)
  • early menopause
  • renal/liver failure
  • erosive/inflammatory bone disease
  • diabetes
Also family history
107
How do patients with osteoporosis present?
  • Pathological or fragility fractures(often from a fall at first
  • Most commonly vertebral compression fractures of appendicular fractures
108
What are the most common frfactures for patients with osteoporosis?
  • Vertebral compression fractures
  • Appendicular fractures(proximal femur/distal radius)
109
How do patients present with a vertebral fracture?
  • Sudden episode of acute back pain on rest/bending/lifting
  • restricted spinal felxion and intensified pain with prolonged standing
  • Dowager's hump: thoracic kyphosis-. anterior thoracic spine
  • Paravertebral muscle spams and tenderness on deep palpation
110
How do patient with appendicular fractures present?
  • NOF: hip pain, inability to weight bear, shortened and externally rotated leg
  • Colles: fall on outstrtched arm: wrist pain and decreased range of motion
111
What is the gold standrad for diagnosing osteoporosis?
  • DEXA sacn(dual energy x-ray absorptiometry)
Can also use x-rays/MRI for suspected vertebral/other fractures
112
How might you identify secondary causes of osteoporosis?
  • History and full exam
  • FBC, U&Es-Creatinine, calcium phosphate TFTs
  • LFTs
  • 25OH vit D and 1-25 OH vit D
  • Serum testosteerone and prolactin
  • Lateral radiographs of thoracic and lumbar spine
  • Protein immunoelectrophoresis and urinary Bence Jones proteins
113
Name some differentials for osteoporosis
  • Osteomalacia: similar but also generalised bone pain and myopathy
  • Paget's: bone pain, joint pain, bone deformities, neuro complications
  • Malignancies: myeloma, lymphoma, metastatic/primary bone disease
  • Secondary causes: hyper(para)thyroidism, mastocytosis, Cushing's, sickle cell
114
For a patient with osteoporosis, what would their calcium, phosphate, ALP and PTH look like?
All normal
115
For a patient with osteomalacia, what would their calcium, phosphate, ALP and PTH look like?
  • Low calcium
  • Low phosphate
  • High ALP
  • High pTH
116
For a patient with Paget's, what would their calcium, phosphate, ALP and PTH look like?
  • Normal calcium
  • Normal phosphate
  • High ALP
  • Normal PTH
117
How should you interpret DEXA scan scoring?
  • T>-1: normal
  • -1>T>-2.5: osteopenia
  • T<-2.5: osteoporosis
118
How is osteoporosis diagnosed?
  • DEXA scan and T score
119
What scoring tool is used to determine the risk of fracture in a patient with osteoporosis?
  • FRAX score
  • Estimates 10 year probability of a major osteoporotic fracture
120
What factors are used when calculating FRAX score?
  • Age: 40-90yrs
  • Gender
  • Previous fracture
  • Parental hip fracture
  • Smoking
  • Gluccocorticoid use(>3 months at >5mg OD)
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Secondary osteoporosis causes
  • Alcohol consumption
  • BMD
121
How is FRAX score interpreted?
  • <10% :normal
  • 10-20%: osteopenia
  • >200%: osteoporosis
122
How is osteoporosis managed?
  • Lifestylee: decrease risk factors
  • Bisphosphonates
  • Denosumab
123
What lifestyle modifications might be suggested in a patient with osteoporosis?
  • Decrease risk factors(smoking etc)
  • Increase calcium and vitamin D intake
  • Increase weight bearing and muscle stengthening exercises
124
When might bisphosphonates be used as a treatment?
  • T score<-2.5 OR
  • -1->-2.5 with a FRAX >20%
125
How do bisphosphonates work?
  • Adhere to hydroxyapatite and inhibit oscteoclasts
126
Give some examples of bisphosphonates and how they are used
  • Oral alendronate and risedronate(1 weekly doses)
  • Xoledronic acid(once a year infusion)
127
How should bisphosphonates be taken?
  • On an empty stomach with water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes afterwards
128
Name some side effects of bisphosphonates
  • Oesophagitis
  • Dyspepsia
129
What is denosumab and when is it used?
  • Monoclonal antibody
  • Used for extensive osteoporosis
130
How is denosumab administered?
SC injection every 6 months
131
How does denosumab work?
  • Anti-resorptive agent that increases BMD and decreases fracture risk at spine
132
Name some side efffects of denosumab
  • Limited mobility
  • Increased fracture risk
  • Depression
  • Pain
  • Complications of medication
133
What systems are required to function to have a normal gait?
  • Neurological: basal ganglia and cortical basal ganglia loop
  • MSK: appropriate tone and strength
  • Senses: sight, sound and sensation(including fine touch and proprioception)
134
Name some risk factors for falls
  • lower limb muscle weakness
  • Vision problems
  • balance/gait disturbances
  • polypharmacy
  • postural hypotension
  • psychoactive drugs
  • incontinence
  • >65 years
  • fear of falling
  • depression
  • cognitive impairment
135
Name some drugs that can cause postural hypootension
  • Nitrates
  • Diuretics
  • Anticholinergics
  • Antidepressants
  • Beta blockers
  • Levodopa
  • ACE inhibitors
136
Name some drugs that can cause falls through mechanisms other than postural hypotension
  • benxos
  • antipsychotics
  • opiates
  • anticonvulsants
  • codeine
  • digoxin
  • sedative agetns
137
What investigations might be done in patients who have had a fall?
  • Full hx, risk assessment and examination
  • Bedside: Obs, BP, glucose, urine dip, ECG
  • Bloods: FBC, U&Es, LFTs, bone profile
  • Imaging: x-rays of injured limbs, CT head, cardiac echo
138
Describe the management of patients with falls
  • 'Turn 180 test' or 'Timed get up and go' test
  • Consider MDT assessment
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Manage risk factors
  • Lifestyle/home changes
139
When should an MDT assessment be considered in patients with falls?
>65 yrs with:
  • >2 falls in the last 12 months
  • Fall requiring medical treatment
  • Poor performance or failure to complete above tests
140
What is delirium?
  • Acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention and cognition, often accompanied by a change in consciousness
141
What are the 3 subtypes of delirium?
  • Hyperactive: increased psychomotor activity, restlessness, agitation and hallucinations
  • Hpoactive: lethargy, reduced responsiveness and withdrawal
  • Mixed: features of both hyper and hypo
142
Descrieb the epidemiology of delirium
  • Common
  • Elderly
  • Incidence increases with age, severity of illness and pre-existing cognitive impairment
143
Describe the aetiology of delirium
DELIRIUMS
  • Drugs and alcohol
  • Eyes, ears and emotional disturbances
  • Low output state(MI, ARDS, PE, CHF, COPD)
  • Infection
  • Retention(urine or stool)
  • Ictal
  • Under-hydration or under-nutrition
  • Metabolic(electrolyte imbalances, thyroid disorders, Wernicke's
  • Subdural haematoma, sleep deprivation
144
Name some drugs that can cause delirium?
  • Anti-cholinergics
  • Opiates
  • Anti-convulsants
  • Recreational
145
Name some symptoms of delirium
  • Disorientation
  • Hallucinations
  • Inattention
  • Memory problems
  • Change in mood or personality
  • Sundowning-> worse agitation/confusion in late afternoon/evening
  • Disturbed sleep
  • Hpoactive can be easily misssed
146
Give some differential diagnoses for delirium
  • Dementia
  • Psychosis
  • Depression
  • Stroke
147
How is delirium diagnosed/assessed?
  • 4AT and CAM: tools
  • Bedside: bladder scan, review meds, ECG, urine MCS
  • Bloods: FBC, U&E,LFTs, TFTs, blood cultures
  • Imaging: CXR, US, neuroimaging if suspected cause
148
Describe the management of delirium
  • Treat unerlying cause
  • Good lighting, regular sleep-wake cycle, regular orientation and reassurance, glassess and hearing aids if needed
  • If severely agitated: haloperidol/lorazepam, olanzapine as last resort due ot side effects
  • Don't give haloperidol for Parkionsonism(blocks dopamine receptors)
149
Name some factors favouring delirium over dementia
  • Acute onset
  • Impairment of consciousness
  • Fluctuation of symptoms(worse at night, periods of normality)
  • Abnormal perception(hallucinations, illusions)
  • Agitation, fear
  • Delusions
150
Name some risk factors for delirium
  • Age >65 yrs
  • Backgound of dementia
  • Significant injury(hip fracture)
  • Frailty or multimorbidity
  • Polypharmacy