Self-Check/Test Questions Flashcards
1
Q
What is the maximum certified takeoff weight?
A
23,500lbs
2
Q
What is the maximum landing weight?
A
19,500lbs
3
Q
What is the maximum ramp weight?
A
23,750lbs
4
Q
What is the maximum zero fuel weight?
A
17,000lbs
5
Q
With both engines running, what is considered a hazardous area/distance in front of each engine due to air inlet?
A
35 feet
6
Q
What category is the Learjet 60 certified, and under which part of FAR’s?
A
Transport / Part 25
7
Q
Maximum operating altitude for the Lear 60?
A
51,000 feet
8
Q
Maximum takeoff weight with anti-skid inop?
A
18,500 feet
9
Q
Maximum certified Mmo for Lear 60?
A
.81 MACH
10
Q
Maximum landing gear operation speed for Lear 60?
A
200 KIAS
11
Q
Maximum landing gear extended speed?
A
260 KIAS
12
Q
Maximum speed for flaps 8 extension?
A
250 KIAS
13
Q
Maximum speed for flaps 20 extension?
A
200 KIAS
14
Q
Maximum speed for flaps 40 extension?
A
165 KIAS
15
Q
Minimum control speed (Vmca) for flaps 8?
A
120 KIAS
16
Q
Minimum control speed (Vmcg) for rudder boost on?
A
95 KIAS
17
Q
Minimum control speed (Vmca) for flaps 20?
A
110 KIAS
18
Q
Minimum control speed (Vmcg) for rudder boost off?
A
116 KIAS
19
Q
How can you refuel the Lear 60, and where are they located?
A
SPPR on the right fuselage, and over the wings.
20
Q
What is the 4th step in the memory items, during an engine failure above V1? (Emergency Procedures)
A
Positive Rate - Gear Up
21
Q
What is the 3rd memory item for ROLL OR YAW AXIS MALFUNCTION?
A
Airspeed - Reduce
22
Q
If a red STALL WARNING ACTIVATES, what is the 1st step in the memory procedures?
A
Lower pitch attitude to lower the angle of attack.
23
Q
During an overspeed recovery, if the overspeed is severe or pitch attitude is extreme or unknown, what is the next step?
A
Gear - Down
24
Q
The tire speed limitation is?
A
182 knots (Ground speed)
25
Engine failure during approach 1st memory item?
Control wheel master (MSW) - Depress and Release
26
Can you fly with the Spoilers INOP, and if yes, what is the limitation?
Yes, 38,000 feet.
27
Maximum cabin differential?
9.8 PSI
28
Where are aural warnings heard?
Overhead and cockpit headset speakers
29
What controls the annunciator panel brightness?
Light Sensors
30
What does the illumination of an amber or red annunciator cause?
Flashing Master OR Caution Light
31
How can a master caution on the ground be inhibited?
By pressing and holding the master warning/caution light for two seconds or longer.
32
What does a red EXT DOOR light indicate?
Tailcone access door is not closed or latched or aft baggage door is not closed or latched.
33
What does a flashing red AFT CAB DOOR light indicate?
Aft cabin door is closed but locking pin is still installed or one or more Aft door locking pins is not fully engaged
34
What does a flashing red ENTRY DOOR light indicate?
Key is in locked position or one or more of the door locking pins is not fully engaged.
35
If the starter engage light does not extinguish after an engine start, what is the next step per the amber checklist?
Affected Start/Gen switch - Gen
36
What instrument would indicate which current limiter had failed and what would be the indication of both have failed?
EPM/VDC 25 volts or less
37
Can any of the generators be reset inflight?
Yes / Press Gen reset switch momentarily
38
What is the maximum continuous amp limit up to FL310?
400 amps
39
The FADEC is powered by what source above 52% N2?
Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)
40
GPU Limitations for Amps and Volts are?
500-1500 amps / 28 volts
41
What is the output of the Engine Driven Generators?
30 VDC and 400 amps
42
EMER BUS circuit breakers are distinguished by what?
Red ring on the overlay
43
The EPM VDC is reading the voltage from what BUS?
Battery charging BUS
44
What happens when you move the EMER switch to the EMER BUS position?
It supplies power to the battery bus
45
On the EPM panel, what are the amperage readings from?
The AC Inverters
46
What is the function of the inverters?
Convert 28VDC to 115V AC
47
How many DC buses are on the Lear 60?
16
48
What are the lights on the EPM, and their function?
Two lights, amber or red lights indicate out of parameters
49
How do the inverters remain in phase?
The left inverter signals the right inverter
50
Illumination of the amber ELEC PWR annunciator, and amber or red light of the EPM and flashing of the associated VAC indicates what?
AC Bus failure
51
How many current limiters are there and what do they do?
2, they connect the L/R GENS to the battery charging bus
52
What indicates a failed auto-pilot self-test?
"FD" flag is displayed on the PFD
53
The Integrated Avionics Processor System (IAPS) houses what?
The Flight Control Computers
54
How is the Auto-Pilot Self-Test performed?
Both Avionics master ON
55
How would a pilot know that menu is available on FMS?
A "M" Icon will appear
56
What Avionics component manages all information?
IAPS Unit
57
Can you dispatch with an inoperative EFIS display? What must be operative?
Yes, Two PFD's and one MFD
58
If your PFD fails, what is an option?
Select manual reversion on your EFIS panel
59
After a failure of the "ADC or AHS", how can you retrieve the information?
Depressing the appropriate reversion button on the ONSIDE EFIS panel
60
What mode would you select if you were cleared for ILS approach?
APPR mode on flight director panel
61
What mode would you select if you were cleared for a GPS approach?
"NAV" and "VNAV" on flight director panel
62
If you see an amber "E" "R" or "A" on the PFD, what does it indicate?
Elevator, Rudder, and Aileron mistrim
63
AHS 1 supplies critical heading information to what instrument?
Standby Display unit (SDU)
64
If the "INST FAN" is illuminated on the annunciator panel, what color is it and what does it mean?
White, Avionics cooling fan failure.
65
When using SPPR, what is an indication that the aircraft is being fueled properly?
Green fuel vent light illuminated
66
What is the required time interval between engine start attempts?
3/15/30 minutes
67
During the lights check on preflight. what should the N1 gauges display?
188.8
68
What drives the accessory gear box, and by what mechanism?
HP rotor drive through a tower shaft
69
The surge bleed control system provides what benefit?
Bypasses air to regulate thrust
70
How is the positioning of the bleed off valve (BOV) controlled?
EEC via the solenoid control valve
71
When do the green ignition lights come on/off during engine start?
On at 6% N2 / Off at 40% N2
72
What causes the L/R OIL PRESS annunciator to illuminate?
Oil pressure drops below 20 PSI
73
How would a pilot stow a TR after an inadvertent deployment?
FADEC auto stows the effective TR
74
What would cause the L/R HYDR PRESS light to illuminate?
Pressure drops below a designated value
75
How can the landing horn be muted? When can it not be muted?
Panel, Right Throttles / Flaps below 25 degrees (Gear Up)
76
If an Anti-Skid light is illuminated, can you depart? What is the malfunction?
Yes, if only ONE light is illuminated, there is a fault in the Ant-Skid, check the MEL
77
What does the Yaw Damper system augment?
Stability about the Yaw Axis, and Rudder Coordination
78
What purpose does the Spoilerons serve, and when do they activate?
Roll control / 25 Degrees Flaps
79
What does a flashing SPOILER EXT light mean, and what color is it?
Flaps beyond 3 degrees / White / Spoilers Extended
80
Under what condition is it recommended that the Yaw Damper be disengaged?
Partial Flap Landing
81
Which trim motor deactivates if the MACH monitor detects a fault?
Primary Pitch Trim
82
What is the function of the green indicator on the fuselage?
If missing, indicates an over-pressurization of the O2 system
83
The preflight check of the oxygen gauge should be?
1850 PSI
84
When do the EMERGENCY cabin lights automatically display?
Cabin altitude above 14,500 feet
85
What two lights operate in pulse mode?
Recognition and landing lights
86
What is the limitation on the flood light?
On FULL for 2-3 minutes before selecting DIM
87
The emergency pressurization aneroid actuates at what cabin altitude?
9,500 cabin altitude
88
If the pylon structure exceeds 250 degrees Fahrenheit, what lights will illuminate?
BLEED AIR L or R annunciator will illuminate
89
If the pylon DUCTING exceeds 600 degrees Fahrenheit, what lights will illuminate?
DUCT OV HT L or R annunciator will illuminate
90
The flow control valve is controlled by what switch?
CABIN AIR switch
91
If cabin alt is greater than 8,600 feet, what light illuminates?
PRESS SYS in auto mode
92
What source provides pressurization to the cabin during EMER pressurization?
LP bleed air
93
The COCKPIT blower is regulated by what switch?
CREW FAN
94
What pressurization is lost after a complete loss of DC power?
EMER cabin pressurization
95
The low-limit windshield heat switches are functional when?
On the ground only
96
What is a Rosemount probe?
Optional anti-ice equipment
97
What happens when you turn the NAC heat switch on?
One NAC Heat Green light/ Two amber Briefly
98
What color is the PITO HT light and, if illuminated, means what?
Amber solid/ Fault
99
What renders anti-skid inoperative on the ground?
EMER Depress Activated
100
Determining Vr flaps 8 is a function of?
Gross weight
101
What chart do you use to determine the first or second net climb gradient?
Close-in takeoff flight path chart
102
How do you determine the factored landing distance?
Actual landing distance divided by .60
103
What is the minimum second segment climb gradient?
If not limited by runway or obstacles, 2.4 percent
