Self-Check/Test Questions Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Self-Check/Test Questions Deck (103):
1

What is the maximum certified takeoff weight?

23,500lbs

2

What is the maximum landing weight?

19,500lbs

3

What is the maximum ramp weight?

23,750lbs

4

What is the maximum zero fuel weight?

17,000lbs

5

With both engines running, what is considered a hazardous area/distance in front of each engine due to air inlet?

35 feet

6

What category is the Learjet 60 certified, and under which part of FAR's?

Transport / Part 25

7

Maximum operating altitude for the Lear 60?

51,000 feet

8

Maximum takeoff weight with anti-skid inop?

18,500 feet

9

Maximum certified Mmo for Lear 60?

.81 MACH

10

Maximum landing gear operation speed for Lear 60?

200 KIAS

11

Maximum landing gear extended speed?

260 KIAS

12

Maximum speed for flaps 8 extension?

250 KIAS

13

Maximum speed for flaps 20 extension?

200 KIAS

14

Maximum speed for flaps 40 extension?

165 KIAS

15

Minimum control speed (Vmca) for flaps 8?

120 KIAS

16

Minimum control speed (Vmcg) for rudder boost on?

95 KIAS

17

Minimum control speed (Vmca) for flaps 20?

110 KIAS

18

Minimum control speed (Vmcg) for rudder boost off?

116 KIAS

19

How can you refuel the Lear 60, and where are they located?

SPPR on the right fuselage, and over the wings.

20

What is the 4th step in the memory items, during an engine failure above V1? (Emergency Procedures)

Positive Rate - Gear Up

21

What is the 3rd memory item for ROLL OR YAW AXIS MALFUNCTION?

Airspeed - Reduce

22

If a red STALL WARNING ACTIVATES, what is the 1st step in the memory procedures?

Lower pitch attitude to lower the angle of attack.

23

During an overspeed recovery, if the overspeed is severe or pitch attitude is extreme or unknown, what is the next step?

Gear - Down

24

The tire speed limitation is?

182 knots (Ground speed)

25

Engine failure during approach 1st memory item?

Control wheel master (MSW) - Depress and Release

26

Can you fly with the Spoilers INOP, and if yes, what is the limitation?

Yes, 38,000 feet.

27

Maximum cabin differential?

9.8 PSI

28

Where are aural warnings heard?

Overhead and cockpit headset speakers

29

What controls the annunciator panel brightness?

Light Sensors

30

What does the illumination of an amber or red annunciator cause?

Flashing Master OR Caution Light

31

How can a master caution on the ground be inhibited?

By pressing and holding the master warning/caution light for two seconds or longer.

32

What does a red EXT DOOR light indicate?

Tailcone access door is not closed or latched or aft baggage door is not closed or latched.

33

What does a flashing red AFT CAB DOOR light indicate?

Aft cabin door is closed but locking pin is still installed or one or more Aft door locking pins is not fully engaged

34

What does a flashing red ENTRY DOOR light indicate?

Key is in locked position or one or more of the door locking pins is not fully engaged.

35

If the starter engage light does not extinguish after an engine start, what is the next step per the amber checklist?

Affected Start/Gen switch - Gen

36

What instrument would indicate which current limiter had failed and what would be the indication of both have failed?

EPM/VDC 25 volts or less

37

Can any of the generators be reset inflight?

Yes / Press Gen reset switch momentarily

38

What is the maximum continuous amp limit up to FL310?

400 amps

39

The FADEC is powered by what source above 52% N2?

Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)

40

GPU Limitations for Amps and Volts are?

500-1500 amps / 28 volts

41

What is the output of the Engine Driven Generators?

30 VDC and 400 amps

42

EMER BUS circuit breakers are distinguished by what?

Red ring on the overlay

43

The EPM VDC is reading the voltage from what BUS?

Battery charging BUS

44

What happens when you move the EMER switch to the EMER BUS position?

It supplies power to the battery bus

45

On the EPM panel, what are the amperage readings from?

The AC Inverters

46

What is the function of the inverters?

Convert 28VDC to 115V AC

47

How many DC buses are on the Lear 60?

16

48

What are the lights on the EPM, and their function?

Two lights, amber or red lights indicate out of parameters

49

How do the inverters remain in phase?

The left inverter signals the right inverter

50

Illumination of the amber ELEC PWR annunciator, and amber or red light of the EPM and flashing of the associated VAC indicates what?

AC Bus failure

51

How many current limiters are there and what do they do?

2, they connect the L/R GENS to the battery charging bus

52

What indicates a failed auto-pilot self-test?

"FD" flag is displayed on the PFD

53

The Integrated Avionics Processor System (IAPS) houses what?

The Flight Control Computers

54

How is the Auto-Pilot Self-Test performed?

Both Avionics master ON

55

How would a pilot know that menu is available on FMS?

A "M" Icon will appear

56

What Avionics component manages all information?

IAPS Unit

57

Can you dispatch with an inoperative EFIS display? What must be operative?

Yes, Two PFD's and one MFD

58

If your PFD fails, what is an option?

Select manual reversion on your EFIS panel

59

After a failure of the "ADC or AHS", how can you retrieve the information?

Depressing the appropriate reversion button on the ONSIDE EFIS panel

60

What mode would you select if you were cleared for ILS approach?

APPR mode on flight director panel

61

What mode would you select if you were cleared for a GPS approach?

"NAV" and "VNAV" on flight director panel

62

If you see an amber "E" "R" or "A" on the PFD, what does it indicate?

Elevator, Rudder, and Aileron mistrim

63

AHS 1 supplies critical heading information to what instrument?

Standby Display unit (SDU)

64

If the "INST FAN" is illuminated on the annunciator panel, what color is it and what does it mean?

White, Avionics cooling fan failure.

65

When using SPPR, what is an indication that the aircraft is being fueled properly?

Green fuel vent light illuminated

66

What is the required time interval between engine start attempts?

3/15/30 minutes

67

During the lights check on preflight. what should the N1 gauges display?

188.8

68

What drives the accessory gear box, and by what mechanism?

HP rotor drive through a tower shaft

69

The surge bleed control system provides what benefit?

Bypasses air to regulate thrust

70

How is the positioning of the bleed off valve (BOV) controlled?

EEC via the solenoid control valve

71

When do the green ignition lights come on/off during engine start?

On at 6% N2 / Off at 40% N2

72

What causes the L/R OIL PRESS annunciator to illuminate?

Oil pressure drops below 20 PSI

73

How would a pilot stow a TR after an inadvertent deployment?

FADEC auto stows the effective TR

74

What would cause the L/R HYDR PRESS light to illuminate?

Pressure drops below a designated value

75

How can the landing horn be muted? When can it not be muted?

Panel, Right Throttles / Flaps below 25 degrees (Gear Up)

76

If an Anti-Skid light is illuminated, can you depart? What is the malfunction?

Yes, if only ONE light is illuminated, there is a fault in the Ant-Skid, check the MEL

77

What does the Yaw Damper system augment?

Stability about the Yaw Axis, and Rudder Coordination

78

What purpose does the Spoilerons serve, and when do they activate?

Roll control / 25 Degrees Flaps

79

What does a flashing SPOILER EXT light mean, and what color is it?

Flaps beyond 3 degrees / White / Spoilers Extended

80

Under what condition is it recommended that the Yaw Damper be disengaged?

Partial Flap Landing

81

Which trim motor deactivates if the MACH monitor detects a fault?

Primary Pitch Trim

82

What is the function of the green indicator on the fuselage?

If missing, indicates an over-pressurization of the O2 system

83

The preflight check of the oxygen gauge should be?

1850 PSI

84

When do the EMERGENCY cabin lights automatically display?

Cabin altitude above 14,500 feet

85

What two lights operate in pulse mode?

Recognition and landing lights

86

What is the limitation on the flood light?

On FULL for 2-3 minutes before selecting DIM

87

The emergency pressurization aneroid actuates at what cabin altitude?

9,500 cabin altitude

88

If the pylon structure exceeds 250 degrees Fahrenheit, what lights will illuminate?

BLEED AIR L or R annunciator will illuminate

89

If the pylon DUCTING exceeds 600 degrees Fahrenheit, what lights will illuminate?

DUCT OV HT L or R annunciator will illuminate

90

The flow control valve is controlled by what switch?

CABIN AIR switch

91

If cabin alt is greater than 8,600 feet, what light illuminates?

PRESS SYS in auto mode

92

What source provides pressurization to the cabin during EMER pressurization?

LP bleed air

93

The COCKPIT blower is regulated by what switch?

CREW FAN

94

What pressurization is lost after a complete loss of DC power?

EMER cabin pressurization

95

The low-limit windshield heat switches are functional when?

On the ground only

96

What is a Rosemount probe?

Optional anti-ice equipment

97

What happens when you turn the NAC heat switch on?

One NAC Heat Green light/ Two amber Briefly

98

What color is the PITO HT light and, if illuminated, means what?

Amber solid/ Fault

99

What renders anti-skid inoperative on the ground?

EMER Depress Activated

100

Determining Vr flaps 8 is a function of?

Gross weight

101

What chart do you use to determine the first or second net climb gradient?

Close-in takeoff flight path chart

102

How do you determine the factored landing distance?

Actual landing distance divided by .60

103

What is the minimum second segment climb gradient?

If not limited by runway or obstacles, 2.4 percent