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Comm Multi > Seminole > Flashcards

Seminole Flashcards

1
Q

V speeds

A

Vso - stall speed in landing config - 55
Vmc - minimum controllable airspeed - 56
Vs - stall speed w/ 0 flaps - 57
Vr - rotate speed - 75
Vx - best angle of climb - 82
Vxse - best angle of climb single engine - 82
Vsse - safe speed for intentional engine failure - 82
Vy - best rate of climb - 88
Vyse - best rate of climb single engine - 88 (blue line)
Vfe - maximum flap extension speed - 111
Vlo (up) - maximum gear retraction speed - 109
Vlo (down) - maximum gear extension speed - 140
Vle - maximum speed with gear extended - 140
Vno - maximum structural cruising speed - 169
Vne - never exceed speed - 202
Va - maneuvering speed @ 3800 lbs - 135
Va - maneuvering speed @ 2700 lbs - 112

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2
Q

Max demonstrated crosswind?

A

17

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3
Q

Engine
a. Cylinders
b. Manufacturer
c. Horsepower
d. Fuel injectors or carbureted?
e. Turbo-charged or normally aspirated?
f. Why is the right engine labeled LO-360?
g. How are the cylinders arranged?
h. How is ignition provided?
i. What are the minimum and maximum oil capacities in the 1979 Seminole?

A

a. Cylinders - 4
b. Manufacturer - Lycoming
c. Horsepower - 180 @ 2700 RPM
d. Fuel injectors or carbureted? Carbureted
e. Turbo-charged or normally aspirated? Normally aspirated
f. Why is the right engine labeled LO-360? Rotates counter-clockwise
g. How are the cylinders arranged? Horizontally opposed
h. How is ignition provided? Engine driven magnetos, independent from the electrical system and each other
i. What are the minimum and maximum oil capacities in the 1979 Seminole? 4 to 6 qt

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4
Q

Propellers
a. Who makes the props?
b. What does oil pressure do to the prop?
c. Which lever manipulates oil pressure to the propeller?
d. Which unit regulates oil pressure to the propeller?
e. What is the function of the nitrogen cylinder?
f. What is the purpose of the spring in the prop dome?
g. Define constant speed.
h. What unit adjusts the propeller to maintain a constant RPM and how does it do it?
i. Define full feathering.
j. Will the propeller always feather?
k. What are centrifugal stop pins?
l. What is the true purpose of the centrifugal stop pins?

A

a. Who makes the props? Hartzell
b. What does oil pressure do to the prop? Drives a piston which moves the blades into a low pitch, high RPM (unfeathered) position
c. Which lever manipulates oil pressure to the propeller? Blue propeller control handle
d. Which unit regulates oil pressure to the propeller? Propeller governor
e. What is the function of the nitrogen cylinder? Drives the blades to a high pitch, low RPM (feathered) position
f. What is the purpose of the spring in the prop dome? Same as the nitrogen cylinder - to drive the blades to a high pitch, low RPM (feathered) position
g. Define constant speed. Oil pressure is varied to change the propeller blade pitch in order to maintain a constant engine RPM
h. What unit adjusts the propeller to maintain a constant RPM and how does it do it? Propeller governor. Varies oil pressure in the propeller hub
i. Define full feathering. When the propeller blades are in alignment with the relative wind
j. Will the propeller always feather? Not below 950 RPM
k. What are centrifugal stop pins? Prevent the blades from feathering below 950 RPM
l. What is the true purpose of the centrifugal stop pins? Allows the blades to remain in a low pitch upon engine shutdown, preventing excessive loads on the engine starter during the next engine start

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5
Q

What is the correct action for a propeller overspeed?

A

Retard the throttle, move the propeller control to full “decrease RPM” and then set if any control is available. Reduce airspeed and use throttle to maintain a maximum of 2700 RPM.

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6
Q

Describe the electrical system.

A
  • 14 volt electrical system
  • 35 amp hour, 12 volt lead acid battery
  • Two 60 amp engine driven alternators
  • Voltage regulators maintain a constant 14 volt output from each alternator
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7
Q

What are the indications of a failed alternator?

A

Annunciator light and a zero indication on the loadmeter

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8
Q

Will the engines continue to run with the alternator and battery master switches turned off?

A

Yes, after start, the engines are self-sustaining

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9
Q

Describe the vacuum system.
a. Which instruments are vacuum operated?
b. What are the normal vacuum operating limits?
c. How many vacuum pumps does the PA-44 have?
d. What indications would occur in the event of a vacuum pump failure?

A

a. Which instruments are vacuum operated? Attitude gyro, and the HSI
b. What are the normal vacuum operating limits? 4.8 to 5.2 inches of mercury at 2000 RPM
c. How many vacuum pumps does the PA-44 have? 2 engine driven pumps
d. What indications would occur in the event of a vacuum pump failure? Annunciator panel light and a red pump inoperative indicator on the vacuum gauge

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10
Q

Describe the stall warning system.

A

Two electric stall detectors located on the left wing
- The inboard detector provides stall warning at flaps 25 and 40
- The outboard detector provides stall warning at flaps 0 and 10

The horns are deactivated on the ground through the use of a squat switch on the left main landing gear (‘79), or the right main landing gear (2000’s).

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11
Q

Describe the fuel system.

A
  • 100 LL avgas
  • Two 55 gallon bladder nacelle tanks (1 gal unusable in each)
  • Two engine driven and two electrically driven fuel pumps
  • One 3 position fuel selector for each engine. On, off, and X-feed.
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12
Q

Explain how to cross feed fuel

A
  • Electric boost pump on
  • Fuel selector set to X-feed
  • Check fuel pressure
  • Electric boost pump off
  • Check fuel pressure
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13
Q

Describe the landing gear system.

A. How is the landing gear actuated? Describe the pump.
B. What keeps the gear in the up position?
C. What keeps the gear in the down position?
D. If Hydraulic pressure is suddenly lost in flight, what indication, if any, would you have?
E. In what three situations will the landing gear horn activate?
F. What unit will not allow the gear to be retracted on the ground?
G. What is the procedure to extend the gear manually (Emergency Gear Extension)?
H. What airspeed is of importance during manual gear extension?
I. Are the brake and the landing gear hydraulics interconnected?
J. If you lose gear hydraulics, will you still have brakes?
K. What indicates that the gear is in transit and the hydraulic pump is activated?

A

A. How is the landing gear actuated? Describe the pump. Hydraulic pressure is provided by an electrically powered reversible hydraulic pump
B. What keeps the gear in the up position? Solely by hydraulic pressure
C. What keeps the gear in the down position? After the gear is down and the downlock hooks engage, springs maintain force on each hook to keep it locked
D. If Hydraulic pressure is suddenly lost in flight, what indication, if any, would you have? The gear will free fall and the three green annunciator lights would come on??
E. In what three situations will the landing gear horn activate? The gear isn’t locked down with the throttle lever positioned below approximately 15” (ATP supplement), 14” (‘79 POH) manifold pressure on one or both engines, the gear isn’t locked down with flaps selected to 25 or 40, and the gear handle is in the up position on the ground.
F. What unit will not allow the gear to be retracted on the ground? A squat switch located on the left main landing gear. On the ground the switch is open, preventing electrical current from reaching the hydraulic pump.
G. What is the procedure to extend the gear manually (Emergency Gear Extension)? Place the gear selector in the down position, pull the red emergency gear extension knob to release the hydraulic pressure holding the gear in the up position.
H. What airspeed is of importance during manual gear extension? 100
KIAS due to air load on the nose gear
I. Are the brake and the landing gear hydraulics interconnected? No, the hydraulic system for the brakes is independent of that for the gear.
J. If you lose gear hydraulics, will you still have brakes? Yes
K. What indicates that the gear is in transit and the hydraulic pump is activated? The GEAR UNSAFE annunciator at the top of the instrument panel.

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14
Q

What type of braking system is used by the Seminole? Where is the brake fluid serviced?

A

Hydraulically actuated disk brakes on the main gear wheels. The hydraulic fluid reservoir is located in the nose cone

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15
Q

What type of flaps does the Seminole have?
a. What are the flap settings?

A

Manual flaps
a 0, 10, 25, 40 degrees

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16
Q

What are the maximum taxi, takeoff and landing weights?

A

Taxi 3816 lbs
Takeoff 3800 lbs
Landing 3800 lbs

17
Q

What is the maximum baggage capacity?

A

200 lbs

18
Q

Define Vsse

A

Safe speed for intentional engine failure

19
Q

What are the drag factors on light twins?

A

Per the Seminole POH:
- Flaps 25: -240 FPM
- Flaps 40: -275 FPM
- Windmilling prop: -200 FPM
- Gear extended: -250 FPM

20
Q

Who determines Vmc for a particular aircraft?

A

The manufacterer, BUT, the pilot for a specific weight and critical configurations used in takeoff and landing operations

21
Q

Define Vmc

A

Calibrated airspeed at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is possible to maintain control of the airplane with that engine still inoperative and maintain straight flight with an angle of bank of not more than 5 degrees.

22
Q

Why is an aft CG used in determining Vmc?

A

With an aft CG, the moment arm between the rudder and the CG is the shortest, thus giving the rudder the least amount of leverage and effectiveness. Vmc is higher with an aft CG, providing a safety buffer for why it is determined this way.

23
Q

What are the factors in determining Vmc?

A

SMACFUM
- Standard day sea level
- Most unfavorable weight and CG
- Critical engine prop windmilling
- Flaps takeoff position, landing gear up, trimmed for takeoff
- Up to 5 degree bank into the operating engine
- Maximum power on the operating engine

24
Q

Define critical engine and list the factors used to determine it.

A

The engine that, when it fails, most adversely affects the performance and handling qualities of the airplane.
- P-factor
- Accelerated slipstream
- Spiraling slipstream
- Torque

25
Q

What causes an aircraft to sideslip with the loss of an engine, and what action is required to correct this?

A

Asymmetric thrust and drag. Additional rudder pressure on the side of the operating engine is needed.

26
Q

How much climb performance is lost when an engine fails?

A

80% of the excess power and climb performance

27
Q

Define absolute and single engine service ceiling.

A
  • Absolute single engine service ceiling - Maximum density altitude that an aircraft can attain or maintain with the critical engine inoperative.
  • Single engine service ceiling - Maximum density altitude at which the single engine best rate of climb airspeed (Vyse) will produce a 50 FPM rate of climb with the critical engine inoperative.
28
Q

Explain the pitot static system.
a. Does the PA-44 have an alternate static source? If so, how is it activated and what actions are necessary to acquire the most accurate reading?

A

a. Yes, rotating the lever under the left side of the instrument panel. The storm window and cabin vents must be closed and the heater and defroster must be on.

29
Q

How do you prevent a heater overheat?

A

On the ground, turn the three position switch to FAN for two minutes with the air intake lever in the open position before turning the switch off. During flight, leave the air intake open for a minimum of 15 seconds after turning the switch to off.

30
Q

When are the electric fuel pumps to be used?

A

Engine start, takeoff, landing, and fuel selector changes.

31
Q

What are the various positions on the fuel selector control?

A

ON, OFF, X-FEED

32
Q

If an engine failure occurred at 5000 MSL, or a high density altitude, what would you do to get max performance from the operating engine after performing the in flight engine failure checklist?

A

Operating engine cowl flap open, full throttle, 2700 RPM, 88 KIAS/blue line, mixture leaned as required.

32
Q

If an engine failure occurred at 5000 MSL, or a high density altitude, what would you do to get max performance from the operating engine after performing the in flight engine failure checklist?

A

Operating engine cowl flap open, full throttle, 2700 RPM, 88 KIAS/blue line, mixture leaned as required.

33
Q

If the cylinder head temperature and oil temp approach the caution range, what can be done to assist in cooling?

A

Open the cowl flaps, enrich the mixture, increase airspeed, decrease MP

34
Q

Why does manifold pressure decrease approximately 1” every 1000 during climb?

A

The engine is less efficient due to an increase in air density.

35
Q

When an engine is inoperative or feathered, what indication will be observed on the manifold pressure gauge?

A

The atmospheric pressure

36
Q

Why is the manifold pressure gauge not necessarily a good indicator in determining an inoperative engine?

A

Atmospheric pressure may be close to what you’d expect on an operating engine MP gauge.

Comm Multi (3 decks)

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