Set 2.4 (General Pathology) Flashcards

(90 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following will NOT promote fluid retention in the interstitial compartment?
A. Lymphatic obstruction
B. Increased capillary permeability
C. Decreased osmotic pressure of the blood
D. Increased hydrostatic pressure of the blood
E. Decreased osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid

A

E. Decreased osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid

*Interstitial compartment aka “Tissue space” opposite of circulation (Artery/vein)

A. Lymphatic obstruction - to drain excess tissue space
- retention
B. Increased capillary permeability - retention
C. Decreased osmotic pressure of the blood -

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2
Q

Which of the following white blood cells predominate within 6–24 hours after tissue injury?
A. Macrophage
B. Basophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Lymphocytes

A

C. Neutrophils

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3
Q

Heart-failure cells are
A. Aschoff’s giant cells
B.Anitschkow’s myocytes
C. Hypertrophic myocardial fibers
D. Hemosiderin-laden macrophages in alveoli

A

D. Hemosiderin-laden macrophages in alveoli

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4
Q

A benign tumor arising from voluntary muscle is a
A. Leiomyoma
B. Papilloma
C. Rhabdomyoma
D. Leiomyosarcoma
E. Rhabdomyosarcoma

A

C. Rhabdomyoma

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5
Q

Osteoporosis, metastatic calcifications, renal stones, increase serum calcium level are manifestations of:
A. Hyperadrenalism
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Hypoparathyroidism
D. Hyperthyroidism

A

B. Hyperparathyroidism

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6
Q

Peutz-Jegher’s Syndrome has a tendency to develop malignant transformation in the
A. Liver
B. Colon
C. Oral Mucosa
D. Pharynx

A

B. Colon

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7
Q

Each of the following endocrine disorders can contribute to secondary hypertension EXCEPT
A. Cushing syndrome
B. diabetes
C. pheochromocytoma
D. hypoaldosteronism
E. hyperthyroidism

A

D. hypoaldosteronism

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8
Q

Ag–Ab (antigen–antibody) reaction due to the presence of antibody at the surface of cell is
A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

A. Type I hypersensitivity

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9
Q

Marie Strumpell Disease affects the:
A. Knee joint
B. Spine
C. Pelvis
D. Heart

A

B. Spine

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10
Q

What is the most reliable test used in the diagnosis of syphilis?
A. VDRL
B. Skin Test
C. FTA
D. CBC

A

C. FTA

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11
Q

A 60-year-old male patient reports of painless swelling of maxilla since 4 years. On examination the maxilla was expanded bilaterally. Laboratory diagnosis reveal that the patient had increased alkaline phosphatase levels. What can be the diagnosis?
A. Fibrous dysplasia
B. Cherubism
C. Paget’s disease
D. Osteosarcoma

A

C. Paget’s disease

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12
Q

The host tissue response in acute inflammation is all, except
A. Exudative
B. Necrotizing
C. Granulomatous
D. Cytopathic

A

C. Granulomatous

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13
Q

Which of the following statements about carcinoma of the colon is NOT true?
A. The transverse colon is the most common site
B. Carcinoma of the colon is more common in industrialized nations
C. Tumors of the left side are more likely to cause symptoms
D. Symptoms generally occur only in advanced disease state
E. Sigmoidoscopic examination can disclose a majority of tumors

A

A. The transverse colon is the most common site

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14
Q

The etiology of acute diffuse glomerulonephritis seems to be
A. Circulatory deficiency associated with prolonged shock
B. Bacteremia with localization of organisms in kidney tissue
C. Injury of glomeruli by exogenous inorganic toxins
D. Degenerative changes induced by sclerotic alterations of blood vessels
E. Allergic reaction of glomerular and vascular tissue to beta-hemolytic streptococcal products

A

E. Allergic reaction of glomerular and vascular tissue to beta-hemolytic streptococcal products

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15
Q

Some microorganisms produce a diffuse spreading inflammatory reaction due to the elaboration of
A. Coagulase
B. Peroxidase
C. Bradykinin
D. Hyaluronidase

A

D. Hyaluronidase

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16
Q

A Substance which promotes the proliferation of T-helper cells that assist in the activation of B-lymphocytes to respond effectively to an antigen
A. Opsonin
B. Interleukin
C. Bradykinin
D. Immunoglobulin

A

B. Interleukin

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17
Q

The following may be transmitted from mother to fetus except one. Which is it?
A. Hepatitis B
B. HIV
C. Rubeola
D. HSV

A

C. Rubeola

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18
Q

A possible autoimmune vasculitis that may have mouth and genital ulcers with inflamed cartilage is _
A. Ramsy-Hunt syndrome
B. Reiter syndrome
C. Gorlin’s syndrome
D. Behcet syndrome

A

D. Behcet syndrome

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19
Q

Nephrolithiasis is most likely to be associated with which of the following conditions?
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Myxedema
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Wilson’s disease
E. Thrombocytopenia

A

A. Hyperparathyroidism

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20
Q

T1 N1 MO lesion is
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV

A

C. Stage III

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21
Q

What does HAART stand for?
A. Highly Accurate Antiretroviral Therapy
B. Human Activated Antiretroviral Therapy
C. Histiocyte Active Antiretroviral Therapy
D. Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy

A

D. Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy

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22
Q

The characteristic feature of irreversible injury is
A. Cell swelling
B. Fatty change
C. Surface blebs
D. Cell membrane defects

A

D. Cell membrane defects

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23
Q

The phase at which cells are most radiosensitive
A. S-phase
B. M-phase
C. G1-phase
D. GO-phase

A

B. M-phase

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24
Q

Type of necrosis seen in hemorrhagic infarction of the lung is
A. Caseous necrosis
B. Coagulation Necrosis
C. Fibrinoid necrosis
D. Gangrenous necrosis

A

B. Coagulation Necrosis

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25
Which of the following conditions are characterized by a reduction in size and a condensation of nuclear material A. Pyknosis B. Apoptosis C. Karyolysis D. Hypoplasia E. Karyorrhexis
A. Pyknosis
26
Hypertensive heart disease is consistently associated with which of the following anatomic findings? A. Aortic stenosis B. Tricuspid stenosis C. Pericardial effusion D. Left ventricular hypertrophy E. Right ventricular hypertrophy
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy
27
Difference in transudate and exudate is that the former has A. Low protein B. Cloudy appearance C. Increased specific gravity D. High protein
A. Low protein
28
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. Plasma cells come from T-lymphocytes B. Neutrophils can increase in chronic bacterial infections C. Prostaglandins cause pain D. Multinucleated giant cells are fusion of many macrophages
A. Plasma cells come from T-lymphocytes
29
cART is also known as what? A. Combination antiretroviral therapy B. Complex antiretroviral therapy C. Combination antiretroviridae treatment D. Complex antiretroviridae treatment
A. Combination antiretroviral therapy
30
What immunologic dysfunction presents an erythematous rashes on the malar processes and bridge of the nose A. Discoid lupus B. Systemic lupus C. Erythema multiforme D. Kaposis sarcoma
B. Systemic lupus
31
DiGeorge syndrome is characterized by a deficiency of A. B lymphocytes B. T lymphocytes C. Both B and T cells D. antibodies
B. T lymphocytes
32
Edema occurs due to A. Increased capillary permeability B. Decreased capillary permeability C. Decreased interstitial fluid D. Decreased blood flow
A. Increased capillary permeability
33
Statements that best defines the term “labile cells” is A. Cells in a continuous cycle of cell division B. Cells incapable of mitotic division C. Cells which have a constant but irregular mitotic rate D. Cells which rarely divide but proliferate in response to injury
A. Cells in a continuous cycle of cell division
34
Venous emboli are most often lodged in A. Intestines B. Kidneys C. Lungs D. Heart
C. Lungs
35
Bifid ribs, multiple radiolucent lesions of the maxilla and the mandible, multiple skin lesions and calcification of the falx cerebri are characteristic of A. Horner's syndrome B. Gardner's syndrome C. Sturge-Weber syndrome D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome E. basal cell nevus syndrome
E. basal cell nevus syndrome
36
Which of the following is a SIGNIFCANT effect of pheochromocytoma? A. Myxedema B. Acromegaly C. Glycosuria D. Hypertension E. All of the above
D. Hypertension
37
Cullen’s sign and Turner’s sign are usually associated with of the following conditions? A. Acute Pancreatitis B. Appendicitis C. Gastroenteritis D. Oophoritis
A. Acute Pancreatitis
38
Incidence of most common malignant tumors in women is A. Breast B. Lung C. Cervix D. Ovary
A. Breast
39
A disease of skeletal system characterized by abnormalities of the skull, teeth and jaws with missingclavicles is known as: A. Cleidocranial dysostosis B. Achondroplasia C. Craniofacial dysostosis D. Fibrous dysplasia
A. Cleidocranial dysostosis
40
Gustatory sweating is the chief symptom in A. Bell’s palsy B. Meniere’s disease C. Orolingual paresthesia D. Auriculotemporal syndrome E. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
D. Auriculotemporal syndrome
41
Females with Turner Syndrome have the following sex chromosomes: A. XO B. XXX C. XO D. XXY
C. XO
42
Stage of syphilis presenting non-painful lesions known as chancre sores A. Primary B. Secondary C. Latent D. Tertiary
A. Primary
43
In left ventricular cardiac failure there is A. Passive congestion of lungs B. Passive congestion of liver C. Active hyperemia in lungs D. None of the above
A. Passive congestion of lungs
44
Which of the following groups of cells are characteristic of a chronic inflammatory process? A.Neutrophils, mast cells and basophils B. Neutrophils, eosinophils and histiocytes C. Lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages D. Basophils, eosinophils, and Reed-Sternberg cells E. Histiocytes, Reed-Sternberg cells, and mast cells
C. Lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages
45
The characteristic cells of the herpetic lesion are known as: A. Lipschutz bodies B. Civatte bodies C. Lisch nodules D. Reed-Stemberg cells
A. Lipschutz bodies
46
Addison’s disease is an endocrine disturbance caused by hypofunction of the A. Adrenal cortex B. Adrenal medulla C. Anterior lobe of the pituitary D. Posterior lobe of the pituitary
A. Adrenal cortex
47
An infant with cleft lip, palate, polydactyly, microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, and ectodermal scalp defect is suffering from A. Trisomy 21 B. Trisomy 18 C. Trisomy 13 D. Turner syndrome
C. Trisomy 13
48
Guarneri bodies are seen in what type of virus A. Adenovirus B. Poxvirus C. Herpes Simplex Virus D. Yellow Fever Virus
B. Poxvirus
49
The predominant cells after 48 hours of inflammation are A. Monocytes B. Macrophages C. Neutrophils D. A & B
D. A & B
50
All of the following are features of Albers-Schonberg disease EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception? A. Anemia B. Multiple bone fractures C. Decreased bone density D. Blindness E. Deafness
C. Decreased bone density
51
Each of the following may be indicative of congenital syphilis EXCEPT A. 8th nerve deafness B. Notching of central incisors C. Saddle deformity of the nose D. Radiating scars around the mouth E. Pulmonary hyaline membrane formation
E. Pulmonary hyaline membrane formation
52
In iron deficiency anemia there is A. Decrease in hemoglobin B. Increase in hemoglobin C. Increase in platelets D. Decrease in platelets
A. Decrease in hemoglobin
53
Which of the following potential carcinogens is most like to produce free radicals? A. An alkylating agent B. Ultraviolet light C. A virus D. Ionizing radiation
D. Ionizing radiation
54
Difference in transudate and exudate is that the former has A. Low protein B. Cloudy appearance C. Increased specific gravity D. High protein
A. Low protein
55
Nephrotic Syndrome , a glomerular disease is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION A. Heavy Proteinuria B. Lipiduria C. Hyperalbuminemia D. Hyperlipidemia E. Severe Edema
C. Hyperalbuminemia
56
Condensing Osteitis I. Involves anterior surface of maxilla II. In young patients III. Cotton-wool appearance IV. Tissue reaction is proliferation V. Patient with very high resistance A. II, IV, V B. III, IV, V C. I, III, IV D. I, II
A. II, IV, V
57
Each of the following illnesses is a histiocytosis X disease EXCEPT A. Letterer-Siwe disease. B. Hand-Schüller-Christian disease. C. Haberman disease. D. eosinophilic granuloma. E. none of the above.
C. Haberman disease.
58
A disease characterized by small, papulovesicular greyish-white lesions commonly found at the soft palate and pharynx A. Summer Illness B. Hand-Foot-Mouth disease C. Herpes Simplex D. German Measles
A. Summer Illness
59
Characteristics of plasma cell myeloma EXCEPT A. Malignant condition B. Produces functional immunoglobulins C. Bence-Jones proteins are found in the urine D. Radiographic findings include “punched-out” radiolucencies in bones E. Usually arises in the bone marrow
B. Produces functional immunoglobulins
60
Which of the following is known as the membrane attack complex? A. C3b B. C67 C. C5b9 D. C1b3
C. C5b9
61
Liquefaction necrosis is most commonly found in the: A. Kidney B. Liver C. Brain D. Heart
C. Brain
62
Rubeola commonly produces an exanthem of the buccal mucosa designated as A. Negri bodies B. Fordyce’s spots C. Paschen bodies D. Koplik spots E. Guarnieri bodies
D. Koplik spots
63
Pernicious Anemia is associated with the follow condition: A. Hyperacidity B. Microcytic Anemia C. Glossitis D. Iron-Deficiency
C. Glossitis
64
This is the type of Human Herpesvirus that is commonly associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma. A. HHV-1 B. HHV-2 C. HHV-4 D. HHV-8
D. HHV-8
65
The general causes of pathologic atrophy include I. Disuse II. Pressure III. Loss of innervation IV. Chemical stimulation V. Decreased nourishment A. I, II, III, IV B. I, II, III, V C. I, II, IV, V D. I, III, V E. II, IV, V
C. I, II, IV, V
66
A severe polyostotic fibrous dysplasia of bone involving nearly the entire skeletal system including the jaws with “cafe-au-lait” spots of the skin and precocious puberty in affected females is _ syndrome A. Albright’s B. Weil’s C. Jaffe’s D. Costen’s
A. Albright’s
67
Addison’s disease is an endocrine disturbance caused by hypofunction of the A. Adrenal cortex B. Adrenal medulla C. Anterior lobe of the pituitary D. Posterior lobe of the pituitary
A. Adrenal cortex
68
Christmas disease is due to deficiency of A. Factor IX B. Factor X C. Factor VIII D. Factor V
A. Factor IX
69
Hairy Leukoplakia affects the tongue and is due to A. Fungal Infection B. HIV Infection C. Tobacco Chewing D. Prolonged Antibiotic Therapy
B. HIV Infection
70
Small pin-point hemorrhages that occur on the skin are A. Purpura B. Hematomas C. Petechiae D. Ecchymoses E. Any of the above
C. Petechiae
71
Epithelioid cells are seen in all of the following except A. Tuberculosis B. Granulation tissue C. Syphilis D. Sarcoidosis
B. Granulation tissue
72
Sutton’s disease refers to A. Mercury poisoning B. Recurrent apthous ulcer C. Lead poisoning D. Recurrent herpetic ulcer
B. Recurrent apthous ulcer
73
The most aggressive type of bronchogenic carcinoma A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Adenocarcinoma C. Small cell carcinoma D. Large cell carcinoma
C. Small cell carcinoma
74
A chromosomal aberration in chromosome number 22 is associated with: a. Down’s Syndrome b. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia c. Aplastic Anemia d. Turner’s Syndrome
b. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
75
A lysosomal storage disease characterized by deficiency of hexosaminidase A with “cherry-red spot formation” in the retina leading to blindness is: A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Pompe’s disease C. Tay-Sach’s disease D. Gaucher’s disease E. Her’s disease
C. Tay-Sach’s disease
76
Which of the following is not a mediator of inflammation? A. Interferon B. Prostaglandin C. TNF D. Myeloperoxidase
D. Myeloperoxidase
77
Which of the ff is a very serious complication of an infant delivered of a mother with gonorrhea? a. Mulberry molar b. Hutchinson’s incisor c. Congenital gonorrhea d. Ophthalmia neonatorum
d. Ophthalmia neonatorum
78
Ascites is the accumulation of excess fluid in the pleural cavity. In 85% of the cases, ascites is caused by cirrhosis A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second statement is false D. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
D. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
79
Plummer’s Disease is described as, except: A. Second most common cause of hyperthyroidism B. Exopthalmos is always present C. Toxic multinodular goiter D. Increases / Worsens with age
B. Exopthalmos is always present
80
Sunburst appearance and Codman’s triangle are seen in A. Osteosarcoma B. Osteoma C. Chondrosarcoma D. None of the above
A. Osteosarcoma
81
Choose a tumor suppressor gene A. myc B. fos C. ras D. Rb
D. Rb
82
The ff are differential diagnosis for Kaposis sarcoma except? A. Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Ecchymosis C. Amalgam tattoo D. Vascular malformations
A. Hodgkin's lymphoma
83
Of the following, the MOST radiosensitive cell is the A. Lymphocyte B. Nerve Cell C. Muscle Cell D. Cartilage Cell E. Endothelial Cell
A. Lymphocyte
84
The MOST feared consequence of graft therapy in a patient with an immunodeficiency is A. Autoimmunity B. Immunoproliferation C. Immune complex injury D. Host versus graft reaction E. Graft versus host reaction
E. Graft versus host reaction
85
The most common cause of hypothyroidism in adults is Graves’ Disease. Hypothyroidism can be caused by Iodine deficiency. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
86
Hepatitis C virus infection is MOST often transmitted through A. Sexual contact B. Oral secretions C. Blood transfusions D. The fecal-oral route E. Respiratory droplets
C. Blood transfusions
87
The In Myelocytic Leukemia, the cells involved are the A. Plasma cells B. Monocytes C. Lymphocytes D. Granulocytes
D. Granulocytes
88
An individual with Addison’s disease is most likely to experience which of the following? A. Decreased ACTH levels B. Hypernatremia C. Hypoglycemia D. Water retention E. Weight gain
C. Hypoglycemia
89
Characteristics of plasma cell myeloma EXCEPT A. Malignant condition B. Produces functional immunoglobulins C. Bence-Jones proteins are found in the urine D. Radiographic findings include “punched-out” radiolucencies in bones E. Usually arises in the bone marrow
B. Produces functional immunoglobulins
90
Serum sickness syndrome is A. A transparent immunity B. An Anaphylactic shock C. Systemic Arthus reaction D. None of the above
C. Systemic Arthus reaction