Set B

Question 1

All of the following are incorrent assumtions about psychological tests, except for?

a. Pertain only to covert behavior
b. Do not attempt to measure traits
c. Measure ch4r4cteristics of hum4n beh4vior
d. 4lw4ys h4ve right or wrong 4nswers

Answer 1

c. Me4sure ch4r4cteristics of hum4n beh4vior

Question 2

Which of the following is the most impot4nt function of testing?

4. To determine wh4t sort tre4tment ot other intervention is 4ppropri4te
   b. To differenti4te 4mong individu4ls t4king the test
   c. To develop 4ccur4te portr4its of individu4ls
   d. To discrimin4te 4mong rel4ted constructs

Answer 2

b. To differenti4te 4mong individu4ls t4king the test

Question 3

Which of the following is not 4 right of 4 test t4ker 4ccording to the Joint Committee on Testing Pr4ctices?

4. The right to review their test 9uestions
   b. The right of informed consent
   c. The right to be informed of test findings
   d. The right to priv4cy 4nd confidenti4lity

Answer 3

4. The right to review their test 9uestions

Question 4

Which of the following is not 4n 4ssumptions 4bout testing 4nd 4ssessment?

4. Psychologic4l tr4its 4nd st4tes c4n be 9u4ntified 4nd me4sured
   b. Test-rel4ted beh4vior predicts non-test-rel4ted beh4vior
   c. Sources of error c4n be elimin4ted from the 4ssessment process
   d. 4ssessment c4n be conducted in 4 f4ir 4nd unbi4sed m4nner

Answer 4

c. Sources of error c4n be elimin4ted from the 4ssessment process

Question 5

The following situ4tions do not re9uire 4 client’s informed consent in 4ssessment, except for?

4. Ev4lu4ting 4 client’s c4p4city to m4ke sound decisions
   b.

Question 6

Who is credited with being the origin4tor of the psycometric concept of test reli4bility?

4. Spe4rm4n
   b. Pe4rson
   c. G4lton
   d. Cronb4ch

Answer 6

4. Spe4rm4n

Question 7

During the World W4r I, which psychologic4l test, prim4rily non-verbal in nature, was used screen illiterate and foreign-4rmy recruits?

4. 4rmy 4lph4
   b. 4rmy Bet4
   c. Woodworth Person4l D4t4 Sheet
   d. 4SV4B

Answer 7

b. 4rmy Bet4

Question 8

4chievement, 4ptitude, 4nd intelligence c4n be encomp4ssed by the term?

4. hum4n potenti4l
   b. hum4n tr4its
   c. hum4n person4lity
   d. hum4n 4bility

Answer 8

d. hum4n 4bility

Question 9

Which of the following is not 4 typic4l perform4nce test?

4. MMPI
   b. EPPS
   c. 16PF
   d. W4IS

Answer 9

d. W4IS

Question 10

Which is the most widely used multiple 4ptitude test in the United St4tes?

4. W4IS
   b. OLS4T
   c. 4SV4B
   d. MMPI

Answer 10

c. 4SV4B

Question 11

Which of the following would indic4te th4t 4 d4t4set is not bell-sh4ped?

4. The r4nge is e9u4l to 5 st4nd4rd devi4tions
   b. The r4nge is l4rger th4n the inter9u4rtile r4nge
   c. The me4n is much sm4ller th4n the medi4n
   d. There 4re no outliers

Answer 11

c. The me4n is much sm4ller th4n the medi4n

Question 12

Dr. 4r4n4s 4dministered a 100-item exam about psycholigical tests to a class of 40 students, currently in their 3rd year. To his surprise, only 5 students passed with scores of 80, 82, 85, 90, 99 while others obtained scores within the range of 20 to 35. The shape of the distribution with this set of scores is _________, and the most advisable measure of central tendency to use is ___________.

a. normal distribution; mean
b. positively skewed; median
c. leptokurtic; mode
d. negatively skewed; mean

Answer 12

b. positively skewed; median

Question 13

Ms. Salas administered a test acceleration to her physics class. If the scores of the students assume a hypotheticl norml distribution, with a mean of 70 and a standard deviation of 15, a score is equal to 2 standard deviations may possibly be?

a. 100
b. 40
c. 85
d. Both A and B

Answer 13

d. Both A and B

Question 14

For the general population, an intelligence quotient (IQ) of 100 corresponds to intellectual ability in the _____ percentile?

a. 25th
b. 40th
c. 50th
d. 65th

Answer 14

c. 50th

Question 15

Maia and Mia seatmates who recently received their scores for their prelim exam. Because their professor is teaching statistics, he gave their scores in terms of different standard scores. Assuming a normal distribution with a mean of 70 and a standard deviation of 8. Maia received a z-score of 0.8 while Mia has a T-score of 60. What can we say about the relative performance on the exam?

a. Mia received a higher raw score than Maia
b. Maia received a higher raw score than Mia
c. They obtained the same scores
d. There is not enough information to compare Maia and Mia’s exam scores

Answer 15

a. Mia received a higher raw score than Maia

Question 16

Which of the following best describes the term “privilege” in psychological assessment?

a. A general term referring to the right to privacy
b. An ethical term referring to an obligation not to reveal confidential information
c. The legal equivalent of the ethical concept of confidentiality
d. A legal term referring to the protection of confidential information in legal proceedings

Answer 16

d. A legal term referring to the protection of confidential information in legal proceedings

Question 17

Chronological exists at which scale of measurement?

a. Nominal
b. Ratio
c. Interval
d. Ordinal

Answer 17

b. Ratio

Question 18

Which measure of central tendency reflects the most frequently occurring score in a set of data?

a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Range

Answer 18

c. Mode

Question 19

Which of the following is essential in creating normalized standard scores?

a. Percentile
b. Sten
c. Stanine
d. T-score

Answer 19

a. Percentile

Question 20

Which of the following is the mean of the cross-products of the standard scores of two correlated variables?

a. Pearson r
b. Spearman rho
c. Phi coefficient
d. Kappa Statistics

Answer 20

a. Pearson r

Question 21

Which one of these statistics is unaffected by outliers?

a. Mean
b. Interquartile range
c. Standard deviation
d. Range

Answer 21

b. Interquartile range

Question 22

Which of the following refers to the standard error of the difference between the predicted and the observed values?

a. Standard error of measurement
b. Standard error
c. Standard error of the mean
d. Standard error of estimate

Answer 22

d. Standard error of estimate

Question 23

If the range of values of either one of two variables that are correlated using the Pearson product-moment coefficient of correlation (Pearson r) is restricted, what can be expected of the size of the obtained coefficient?

a. Increased
b. Unaffected
c. Reduced
d. Insufficient information

Answer 23

c. Reduced

Question 24

The psychometrician license is renewed every _____ years, with a required _____ CPD points.

a. 3; 40
b. 2; 45
c. 2; 40
d. 3; 45

Answer 24

d. 3; 45

Question 25

Which refers to the restriction of the availability of test materials and test item answers to the general public? a. Test security b. Test safety c. Test sensitivity d. Test specificity

Answer 25

a. Test security

Question 26

Mr. Quinro, a recently licensed psychometrician, administered a test to a batch of incoming grade 1 students. The test he administered aims to measure their general potential, independent of the prior learning. This can be best describe as? a. Achievement Test b. Intelligence Test c. Aptitude Test d. Ability Test

Answer 26

b. Intelligence Test

Question 27

Eunice, a 4th year college student, took the NMAT exam. She received a percentile rank of 85. The NMAT exam she took is what type of test, according to the evaluation of the score? a. Norm-referenced Test b. Criterion-referenced Test c. Intelligence Test d. Typical performance test

Answer 27

a. Norm-referenced Test

Question 28

Your school is thinking about weighting high school class rank more heavily in their admissions criteria. As a pilot test, they conduct a survey of current students and ask them to report the number of colleges to which they applied, the rank of their current school, and their high school class rank. Which of the following statistics would you use for data analysis? a. Mann-Whitney U test b. Spearman correlation c. Chi-square test independence d. Dependent t test

Answer 28

b. Spearman correlation

Question 29

If a test is reliable. It means that is is? a. Given in the same way every time b. Also valid c. A fair assessment d. Can yield consistent results

Answer 29

d. Can yield consistent results

Question 30

In computing for the reliability coefficient, which of the following error components will the values be most affected by? a. Systematic error b. Random error c. Type I error d. Type II error

Answer 30

b. Random error

Question 31

If a single test is administered twice to the same sample on different occasions, a computed reliability coefficient of -.90 would suggest that? a. the test is valid b. the test is reliable c. the test is not reliable d. the test is not reliable but valid

Answer 31

c. the test is not reliable

Question 32

What types of reliability estimate is obtained by correlating pairs of scores from the same person (or people) on two different administrations of the same test? a. test-retest b. parallel forms c. internal consistency d. split-half

Answer 32

a. test-retest

Question 33

Poorly worded items that cause students to differentially respond to the same questions contribute to what type of error variance? a. content sampling, test-scoring, interpretation variance b. content sampling c. test administration error d. test-scoring and interpretation variance

Answer 33

b. content sampling

Question 34

Which of the following is correct in describing the parallel forms of a test? a. The means of the observed scores are equal for the two forms b. The variance of the estimated scores are equal for the two forms c. The means and variance of the observed scores are equal for the two forms d. The means and variances of the estimated scores are equal for the two forms

Answer 34

c. The means and variance of the observed scores are equal for the two forms

Question 35

What is the impact of carryover effects on test-retest reliability? a. Test-retest reliaability is not affected by carryover effects b. Carryover effect underestimates test-retest reliability c. Carryover effect overestimates test-retest reliability d. Test-retest reliability inflates carryover effects

Answer 35

c. Carryover effect overestimates test-retest reliability

Question 36

Which of the following is not an acceptable way to divide a test when using the split-half method of reliability? a. randomly assign items to each half b. assign easy items to one half and difficult items to the other half c. assign the first half of the items to one half and the second half of the items to the other half d. assign odd-numbered items to one half and even-numbered to the other half

Answer 36

b. assign easy items to one half and difficult items to the other half

Question 37

Which among the following is not accepted way of computing the reliability of speed tests? a. split-half reliability from two separatelt timed half tests b. test-retest reliability c. alternate forms reliability d. KR 20

Answer 37

d. KR 20

Question 38

If compound inter-rater reliability coefficient is 0, which of that following best conveys its meaning? a. 0% of the variance in the scores assigned by the scores was attributed to true differences and 100% to error b. 100% of the variance in the scores assigned by the scorers was attribited to true differences and 0% to error c. 0% of the scorers are reliable d. 0% of the variance in scores assigned by the scores was attributed to absolute standards

Answer 38

a. 0% of the variance in the scores assigned by the scores was attributed to true differences and 100% to error

Question 39

Two alternative tests, administered on the same sample, both have a reliability coefficient of .7 and a mean of 35. However, the first test has a SD=10, while the second test has a SD=15. Given this information, which test will most likely be preferred? a. First test b. Second test c. Both tests are good since they have a reliability coefficient of .7 d. Create a third test to conclude

Answer 39

a. First test

Question 40

Which is the source of error variance for measures of inter-item consistency? a. homogeneity of content b. practice effect c. motivation d. heterogeneity of content

Answer 40

d. heterogeneity of content

Question 41

What is a likely consequence if a test elicits a variety of opinions about aperson depending on who is rating the person? a. The test will hvve lower interrater reliability b. The test will have a lower redundancy coefficient c. The test will have higher internal consistency d. The test will be able to predict outcomes with greater accuracy

Answer 41

a. The test will hvve lower interrater reliability

Question 42

Which of the following is the best way to determine the level of agreement bentwee three or more raters on a test? a. Fleiss's Kappa b. Cohen's Kappa c. Percentage of agreement d. Phi coefficient

Answer 42

a. Fleiss's Kappa

Question 43

Which of the following tests will most likely obtain the highest reliability coefficient? a. A norm-referenced test b. A test containing few items c. A unidimensional test d. A multidimensional test

Answer 43

c. A unidimensional test

Question 44

Which statistical formula is used to check consistency across terms of an instrument with reponses with varying credit? a. Spearmsn-Brown formula b. Cronbach's alpha c. KR-20 d. KR-21

Answer 44

b. Cronbach's alpha

Question 45

The standard error of measurement of a particular test of anxiety is 8. A student earns a score of 60. What is the confidence interval of this test score at the 95% confidence level? a. 44-76 b. 36-84 c. 40-68 d. 52-68

Answer 45

a. 44-76

Question 46

In a personality test, which one is not possible based on the relationship between reliability and validity? a. The test is high in predictive validity and high in reliability b. The test is high in predictive validity and low in reliability c. The test is low in predictive validity and high in reliability d. The test is low in predictive validity and low in reliability

Answer 46

b. The test is high in predictive validity and low in reliability

Question 47

A team of psychologists are interested in the effects of sleep deprivation on new learning. College students (N=10) stay in a sleep lab for 2 days. Five participants are randomly assigned to an experimental condition in which they are not permitted to sleep during that period; the other five participants are allowed to sleep when they wish. At the end of two days, all participants attended a class that taught the principles of gene combination. Which of the following statistics would you recommend to test their hypothesis? a. Mann-Whitney U test b. t test for dependent means c. t test for independent means d. Chi-square test of independence

Answer 47

c. t test for independent means

Question 48

Which is not a method of evaluating the validity of a test? a. examining te test's content b. examining the percentage of passing and failing grades c. relating test scores to scores obtained on other tests d. relating test scores to the framework of a theoretical construct

Answer 48

b. examining the percentage of passing and failing grades

Question 49

Which of the following is not in the traditional "trinitarian" conceptualization of validity? a. construct validity b. content validity c. face validity d. criterion-related validity

Answer 49

c. face validity

Question 50

For ther final exam in clinical psychology, Dr. Felipe announced that the 150-item exam will cover all 20 chapters of the book. Tina Tamad, being procastinatorm studied the night before and only finished until chapter 5. Despite this, she managed to outscore others, getting a score of 145. She boasts that only the chapters she studied were included in the exam. In this situation, you may best conclude that? a. the exam lacked face validity b. the exam lacked content validity c. the exam lacked concurrent validity d. the exam lacked predictive validity

Answer 50

b. the exam lacked content validity

Question 51

Suppose you created a new measure of revding comprehension and you wanted to test its validity. Therefore, you compare the results of your new measure to existing validated measures of reading comprehension and find that your measure compares well with these other measures. Which type of validity evidence is evident in this scenario? a. concurrent criterion-related b. predictive criterion-related c. content d. convergent validity

Answer 51

a. concurrent criterion-related

Question 52

A researcher administered a test of extraversion anchored on McCrae and Costa's definition for his study. To test the predictive validity of the test, which of the following can be used as a criterion measure? a. their scores on another extraversion test b. their scores on the same extraversion test at a lter date c. another person's ratings of their extraversion d. their frequency of attending parties over a two-month period

Answer 52

d. their frequency of attending parties over a two-month period

Question 53

Fator analysis of the Stanford-Binet, 4th Edition suggests that, at most ages, the test has four factors just as the underlying theory predicts. In terms of psychometric properties, this is an evidence of? a. internal consistency b. incremental validity c. criterion validity d. contruct validity

Answer 53

d. contruct validity

Question 54

With regards to aptitude tests, which type of validity evidence must be established? a. Concurrent criterion-related validity b. Construct validity c. Convergent validity d. Predictive criterion-related validity

Answer 54

d. Predictive criterion-related validity

Question 55

Pauline saw her ex-boyfriend with her ex-bestfriend and felt very jealous. With her upcoming thesis requirement, she decided to make a test which will measure jealousy. However, she cannot precisely define the concept of jealousy. To solve her problem, which validation study would be most beneficial to use? a. Face Validity b. Construct Validity c. Criterion Validity d. Content Validity

Answer 55

b. Construct Validity

Question 56

It is amethod proposed by D.T. Campbell and Fiske (1959) that refers to a validation strategy that requires the collection of data on two or more distinct traits by two or more different methods. a. Exploratory Factor Analysis b. Multitrait-multimethod matrix c. Meta-analysis d. Structural Equation Modeling

Answer 56

b. Multitrait-multimethod matrix

Question 57

A test measuring self-esteem has a reliability coefficient of .8 and a validity coefficient of .3/ Which of the following statements would best describes this test based on psychometric properties? a. The test is reliable b. The test is valid c. The test is neither reliable nor valid d. The test is both reliable and valid

Answer 57

d. The test is both reliable and valid

Question 58

An index of utility can be distinguished from an index of reliability and an index of validity in that an index of utility gives? a. the practical value of the information derived from what a test measures b. whether a test measures what it purports to measure in a particulr context c. how consistently a test measures what it measures in a particulvr context d. the value of people and their performance can be estimated

Answer 58

c. how consistently a test measures what it measures in a particular context

Question 59

Which of the following is not an assumption of utility analysis? a. the performance of people in organization can affect organizational viability b. large amounts of information can be integrated to make good decisions c. psychological tests are always preferred over other means of assessment d. the value of people and their performance can be estimated

Answer 59

c. psychological tests are always preferred over other means of assessment

Question 60

Which refers to scores that divide a set of data into two or more classifications and are usually set as reference points in making decisions? a. Base scores b. Standard scores c. Raw scores d. Cut scores

Answer 60

d. Cut scores

Question 61

Which of the following statement is not true regarding the use of cut scores? a. The setting of cut scores impact utility though the accurcy of decisions made based on test scores b. In multiple hurdle selection, there will be a cut score for each predictor used in the selection process c. An instructor who assigns an "A" to the top 10% of students after a battery is using a fixed cut score d. Absolute cut scores are preferred when applicants must demonstrate a minimum level of competence

Answer 61

c. An instructor who assigns an "A" to the top 10% of students after a battery is using a fixed cut score

Question 62

A newly hired psychometrician is purchasing new selection test for the company she works at. Having many tests endorsed by different test publishers, which claim may have the biggest impact on her decision to purchase and use a new selection test? a. the test significantly improves workers' interest, motivation, and output b. the test identifies a large number of false positives c. the test identifies a large base rate d. the test improves the hit rate

Answer 62

d. the test improves the hit rate

Question 63

If the selection ratio goes down, which of the following is the likely result? a. Top-down selection policy can become discriminatory b. Hiring becomes less selective c. Competition for the position is likely to increase d. Both a and b

Answer 63

c. Competition for the position is likely to increase

Question 64

Which of the following will be the effect of raising the cutoff score on a predictor test? a. Increasing true positives b. Decreasing false positives c. Decreasing true negatives d. Decreasing false negatives

Answer 64

b. Decreasing false positives

Question 65

A researcher believes that recall of verbal material differs with the level of processing. He divided his subjects into three groups. In the low processing group, participants read each word and were instructed to count the number of letters in the word. In the medium processing group, participvnts were asked to read each word and think of a word that rhymed. In the high processing group, participants were asked to read each word and try to memorize it for later recall. Each group was allowed to read the list of 30 words three times, then they were asked to recall as many of the words on the list as possible. If the researcher wants to know whether the three groups hae different amounts of recall, what type of statistical test should be used? a. Regression analysis b. t-test for Independent Samples c. One-way ANOVA d. Two-way ANOVA

Answer 65

c. One-way ANOVA

Question 66

Which does not represent a type of question to be raised and answered during the test conceptualization stage of test development? a. Is there a need for the test? b. What types of responses will be required of the test-taker? c. How valid are the test items? d. What is the objective of the test?

Answer 66

c. How valid are the test items?

Question 67

Which stage in the test development aims to ascertain how numbers should be assigned to psychological attributes and determining which scales of measurement should be used? a. Test Revision b. Test Construction c. Test Conceptualization d. Item analysis

Answer 67

b. Test Construction

Question 68

Which of the following is a basic assumption of scaling? a. Traits and abilities can be quantified and measured b. Test's reliability and validity can be measured c. Traits and abilities can be attributed to a variety of causes d. All of the above

Answer 68

a. Traits and abilities can be quantified and measured

Question 69

Tristan took a personality test as a requirement in his job application. The test he answered required him to make an absolute judgement. In terms of responding to the questions, which format did this personally test have? a. Categorical b. Guttman c. Multiple-choice d. Dichotomous

Answer 69

d. Dichotomous

Question 70

What is the semantic differential rating technique composed of? a. An alphabetical 7-point rating scale with letters keyed to descriptors b. A 7-point numerical scale with numbers keyed to descriptors c. Bipolar adjectives and a 7-point rating scale d. An open-ended format

Answer 70

c. Bipolar adjectives and a 7-point rating scale

Question 71

The following item appears on an end-of-semester subject evaluation in psychologial assessment: "This subject was more work than I thought it would be." The possible responses are: (1) strongly agree; (2) agree; (3) unsure; (4) disagree; (5) strongly disagree. This is an illustration of what type of scaling? a. Likert b. Nomothetic c. Guttman d. Ipsative

Answer 71

a. Likert

Question 72

Who are essential in creating a Thurstone scale? a. Judges b. Observers c. Professionals d. Assessor

Answer 72

a. Judges

Question 73

With respect to item analysis, which of the statements is correct regarding speed tests? a. Results of the item analysis are relatively easy to interpret and are clear b. Item-difficulty levels are higher toward the end of the test c. Item-discrimination levels are higher toward the end of the test d. Later items tend to hae low item-total correlations

Answer 73

c. Item-discrimination levels are higher toward the end of the test

Question 74

In a quiz, 40 out of 50 students answered number 25 incorrectly. What is the "p" value of the particular item? a. .20 b. .80 c. .25 d. .40

Answer 74

a. .20

Question 75

In what situation does an item-difficulty index of 1 occur? a. all examinees evenly respond to the item correctly and incorrectly b. all examinees answer the item incorrectly c. all examinees answer the item correctly d. all examinees failed the test

Answer 75

c. all examinees answer the item correctly

Question 76

If 60 students were administered a classroom test, how many would be included in each group for the purpose of calculating the item-dicrimination index (d)? a. 16 b. 13 c. 30 d. 17

Answer 76

a. 16

Question 77

What is the purpose of the empirical criterion keying method? a. To make certain that a matched standardization group is used b. To increase the size of the sample of test takers c. To retain items that discriminate between the two groups d. To make certain people with a variety of personalities are represented in the normative sample

Answer 77

c. To retain items that discriminate between the two groups

Question 78

Why is it important to obtain a standardized sample? a. To prevent bias in the development and scoring of the test b. To provide a reference sample to which the results of a new subject can be compared c. To separate the intellectually subnormal from the normal individual d. To ensure the representativeness of a sample

Answer 78

b. To provide a reference sample to which the results of a new subject can be compared

Question 79

When is the risk of committing a sampling error at the greatest? a. Sample size is small b. Test has low reliability c. Test has low validity d. Confounding variable exists

Answer 79

a. Sample size is small

Question 80

Which is true regarding the cross-validation of a test after standardization has occurred? a. Cross-validation creates confusion regarding the meaning of the original standardization data b. The cross-validation sample is composed of the same test-takers that participated in the original test standardization c. Cross-validation often results in validity shrinkage d. Cross-validation is seldom used under such circumstances

Answer 80

c. Cross-validation often results in validity shrinkage

Question 81

From the perspective of a test developer, which best describes a "goog" test item? a. The correct answer cannot be guessed b. Almost all test-teakers respond correctly indicating the item is well-written c. Almost all test-takers respond incorrectly, indicating the item is a challenging item d. The item distinguishes high scorers from low scorers

Answer 81

d. The item distinguishes high scorers from low scorers

Question 82

Which of the following is implied when a revised version of a test is released? a. Psychologists may still used the old version but is is advised to use the updated version b. The previous version is no longer reliable and valid c. Psychologists may still base ther decisions or recommentdations from the previous versions of the test d. The previous version is considered outdated and obsolete

Answer 82

d. The previous version is considered outdated and obsolete

Question 83

Citing only positive attribuite in a self-report measure of personality is a phenomenon referred to as? a. Social desirability b. Amplifying c. Self-deception d. Projecting

Answer 83

a. Social desirability

Question 84

Which of the following is true about obtaining an "informed consent" from a client? a. Must always be in writing b. Must always be in writing and in the client's native language c. May be either verbal or in writing d. May be either verbal or in writing but must be documentted

Answer 84

d. May be either verbal or in writing but must be documentted

Question 85

A school psychologist assesses your child's intelligence and explains that your child's cognitive ability to you in terms of the manner in which she processes information and solves problems. This school psychologists is employing which theory of intelligence? a. Information-processing b. Multiple-factor-analytic c. Componential d. Global factor

Answer 85

a. Information-processing

Question 86

Which of the following is not a primary mental ability, according to Thurstone? a. Word fluency b. Verbal comprehension c. Perceptual speed d. Declarative reasoning

Answer 86

d. Declarative reasoning

Question 87

Which of the following theory emphasized the differences between the ability to solve novel problems and learned knowledge? a. Cattell's fluid and crystallized intelligence b. Spearman's general intelligence c. Gardner's multiple intelligence d. Thurstone's primary mental abilities

Answer 87

a. Cattell's fluid and crystallized intelligence

Question 88

According to Howard Gardner, which of the following is a type of intelligence? a. Naturalist b. Practical c. Fluid d. General

Answer 88

a. Naturalist

Question 89

Which of the following was an innovation in the 1937 Stanford-Binet scale? a. Tasks for use with adolescents b. Two equivalent forms c. A new cognitive section d. All of th above

Answer 89

b. Two equivalent forms

Question 90

Which of the following is first introduced in the 1916 Stanford-Binet? a. Representative sampling b. The concept of IQ c. Verbal and performance subtests administered in alternating order d. None of the above

Answer 90

c. Verbal and performance subtests administered in alternating order

Question 91

Lalya, a 10-year old girl, obtained a full scale IQ of 114 in the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale 5th edition. Which will be the nominVl cVtegory of her FSIQ? a. average b. above average c. high average d. slightly above average

Answer 91

c. high average

Question 92

Which is the best example of crystallized intelligence? a. Jino, who uses his exceptional vocabulary to excel at Scrabble b. Kimmy, who quickly learns to use a computerized statistics program for her class c. Erine, who changes jobs and adapts to the demands of the new environment d. Donny, who is able to perform complex mathematical calculations in his heada. Jino, who uses his exceptional vocabulary to excel at Scrabble

Question 93

If a test assigns to each item and that all items with a particular content can be grouped together, which concept does it follow? a. Age scale b. Polytomous scale c. Point scale d. Performance scale

Answer 93

c. Point scale

Question 94

Which Wechsler subtest best taps what is known as common sense? a. Coding b. Symbol Search c. Comprehension d. Similarities

Answer 94

c. Comprehension

Question 95

If a clinician wisher to administer an intelligence test to 10-year old boy, which of the following tests developed by David Wechsler would be most appropriate to use? a. WISC-V b. WPPSI-III c. WAIS-IV d. None of the above

Answer 95

a. WISC-V

Question 96

On the Wechsler tests of intelligence, the verbal, performance scales, and FSIQ have a mean of _____ and a standard deviation of _____. a. 10; 3 b. 100; 15 c. 50; 100 d. 100; 10

Answer 96

b. 100; 15

Question 97

A test-taler who repeatedly answers 'fales' on a personality inventory with true/false response options is showing which response bias? a. Malingering b. Faking bad c. Nay-saying d. Self-deception

Answer 97

c. Nay-saying

Question 98

Ms. Flores believes that her adolescent client would not talk to her if she knew that Ms. Flores was speaking to the cclient's parents. Therefors, Ms. Flores promises the client confidentiality and secretly arranges to call the client's parents when the client is at school. Which ethical principle is Ms. Flores violating? a. Autonomy b. Fidelity c. Justice d. Veracity

Answer 98

b. Fidelity

Question 99

A graduate student designed and conducted a research project for her dissertation and subsequently wrote a journal article describing the study and its results. The original idea for the study was derived from the work of the student's faculty advisor who also provided the facilities for the student's research. The faculty advisor wants to be listed as first author on the article when it is published. In this situation: a. The student should be listed as the first author b. It is up to the student to determine authorship credit c. It is up to the advisor to determine authorship credit d. The student should file a complaint against the advisor

Answer 99

a. The student should be listed as the first author

Question 100

A college psychology professor gives a battery of psychological tests to some of his students who volunteered to be participants. He obtained their informed consents for the battery of tests. Based on these tests, he finds that one of the participants is at risk for emotional disturbance. He talks to this student and suggests counselling. At the same time, he informs the director of the college counseling office who is a friend of his. According to the code of ethics, the professor acted? a. unethically, because he revealed this information to a third party b. ethically, because he acted in accord with the student's welfare c. ethically, because he had reponsibilities to the college as well as to the student d. unethically, because he isn't a clinician

Answer 100

a. unethically, because he revealed this information to a third party