Set C Volume 1 Self Test Flashcards
Self Test Questions (225 cards)
1
Q
What is the primary wartime mission of all Civil Engineers?
A
To furnish operational assistance to air wings during combat.
2
Q
List three functions of CE’s primary wartime mission.
A
- Perform emergency repairs of war damage to air bases.
- Support force beddown of Air Force units and weapon systems.
- Operate and maintain facilities and utilities.
- Provide crash rescue and fire prevention/suppression.
- Do limited decontamination in a chemical/biological/radiological situation.
- Assist in base denial.
- Identify, safe, and dispose of unexploded ordinance.
3
Q
Which Air Force directive gives guidance on what Civil Engineers do during peacetime?
A
Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD) 32–10, Installations and Facilities.
4
Q
What Civil Engineer organization was organized to provide long-term heavy repair capabilities?
A
RED HORSE
5
Q
What is the Common Installation Picture?
A
It is a high-resolution base map for an installation that includes facilities that all functional communities
typically view for reference.
6
Q
What four unique decision support environments form an installation mission?
A
- Garrison GeoBase.
- Strategic GeoBase.
- GeoReach Process.
- Expeditionary GeoBase
7
Q
Which Air Force form do facility maintenance zones use to record maintenance and repair
requirements?
A
AF Form 1219, BCE Multi-Craft Job Order, or a direct scheduled work (DSW) order
8
Q
Which element of operations is responsible for managing the RWP?
A
Maintenance engineering
9
Q
Which element operates the self-help center?
A
Material acquisition
10
Q
Which element is responsible for pest management?
A
Heavy repair
11
Q
Which element is responsible for exterior electrical distribution?
A
Infrastructure support
12
Q
What is the job of the base civil engineer?
A
The BCE is accountable for the planning, direction,
supervision, and coordination of all CE activities on a base.
13
Q
Why is a CE squadron structured into the objective squadron?
A
It is a format adopted as the official squadron structure for the Air Force in an effort to streamline operations.
14
Q
List the flights in the objective squadron.
A
Housing, Resource, Engineering, Environmental, Fire Protection, Readiness, EOD, and Operations
15
Q
Who can be a flight chief in a CE squadron?
A
Officer, senior NCO, or civilian.
16
Q
Who are your customers?
A
The base population.
17
Q
Who is in the best position to maintain a good rapport with your customers?
A
You are.
18
Q
What can you do to keep CE’s customers “in the loop”?
A
Tell them what is going on with their requests; inform them what you will do for them now—until parts
arrive or are ordered.
19
Q
Define direct scheduled work.
A
Work that is minor in nature; the materials to do the work are either on hand or short-lead-time items; and no
detailed planning is required before the work is done.
20
Q
Why is direct scheduled work so important?
A
Because direct scheduled work makes up the bulk of the work done by CE.
21
Q
What are the two forms used to do direct scheduled work?
A
(1) AF Form 1879, BCE Job Order Record.
(2) AF Form 1219, BCE Multi-Craft Job Order.
22
Q
What are the three types of direct scheduled work priorities?
A
(1) Emergency.
(2) Urgent.
(3) Routine.
23
Q
How fast is emergency work supposed to be completed?
A
Within 24 hours.
24
Q
What distinguishes urgent work from emergency work?
A
Urgent work is work that is not classified as an emergency but that should be done within 5 workdays of receipt.
25
Which type of direct scheduled work becomes delinquent after 30 days?
Routine.
26
What are the two ways of processing direct scheduled work?
(1) Manually.
| (2) By computer.
27
At what level of CE is direct scheduled work authorized?
Delegated to the lowest possible level in writing.
28
Which form is used to request work that does not meet the direct scheduled work criteria?
AF Form 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request.
29
When is minor construction self-help work authorized?
When all costs will be borne by the requester and the work does not require capitalization of real property.
30
Who notifies the requester whether or not his or her request is accepted or rejected?
The CE zone representative.
31
What are the three methods of fulfilling work requests?
(1) In-service.
(2) Contract.
(3) Self-help.
32
Why does the zone representative check the signature block of the work request when it is first
submitted?
New work, a modification, or minor construction and in-service work on a base facility should have the
signature of the organization’s commander.
33
What else does the zone representative review the work request for?
Whether the request was properly completed, the work is a CE responsibility, and the work supports the
planned use of the facility
34
What are the three approval levels for work requests?
(1) CE organization.
(2) Installation commander.
(3) Facilities Board.
35
What are the four types of priority levels for work requests?
(1) Mission essential.
(2) Life and property.
(3) Support.
(4) Necessary.
36
Which form is used to initiate a work order?
AF Form 327, Base Civil Engineer Work Order.
37
What is the basis of the decision to use a work order to do work?
The need for detailed planning and capitalization of real property.
38
What is capitalization?
Work that causes a change to equipment and/or a real property facility.
39
What are three uses of in-service work orders?
(1) Maintenance.
(2) Repair.
(3) Construction.
40
Who is responsible for self-help work orders?
Even though CE is not actually doing the work, we are responsible for all work done by self-help.
41
Who is responsible for the care of government property?
Everyone.
42
What is a supervisor’s responsibility in regards to property accountability?
Instructing his or her people on compliance with Air Force regulations governing property.
43
What is custodial responsibility?
Anyone having possession of government property has custodial responsibility for it.
44
What is pecuniary responsibility?
Being held financially liable for property entrusted to you that was lost, damaged, or destroyed due to your
negligence.
45
What are the three documents used in enforcing pecuniary liability?
(1) DD Form 1131, Cash Collection Voucher.
(2) DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher.
(3) Report of Survey.
46
What is supply discipline rule number 2?
Do not hoard supplies or requisition more than you actually need.
47
What do the first four digits of an NSN indicate?
The stock class of the item.
48
How many different items may be ordered on one AF Form 1445?
Up to 12 items per shop.
49
What is DD Form 1348–6 used for?
To fully identify an item that does not have an NSN.
50
What are the primary responsibilities of the cardholder for a Government Purchase Card?
Cardholders are responsible for ensuring funds are available prior to making a purchase. Upon receipt of
purchases ensure that the quantity and quality of the items furnished are in accordance with the agreement
with the vendor.
51
What is a planner’s responsibilities concerning direct scheduled work?
To fully research the requirements of a project.
52
What should the zone supervisor do when Logistics receives the materials requested for a job?
Make sure that the right materials were ordered.
53
What is the main difference between planning direct scheduled work and planning work orders?
Work orders require detailed planning while DSW usually involves little if any planning.
54
What are the four basic parts of a Comprehensive Plan?
General Plan, Component Plan, Special Plans and Studies, and Maps.
55
What is the objective of the warranty/guarantee program?
To purchase, whenever possible, items that are covered by warranty.
56
Which form should be placed on equipment that has a usable guarantee?
OF 274, Equipment Warranty.
57
Who must approve work that needs to be done on warranted equipment?
The zone manager or NCOIC.
58
What is the purpose of the recurring work program (RWP)?1
To extend the longevity, operability, and reliability of critical facilities and equipment.
59
Usually, where are the Maintenance Action Sheets (MAS) developed?2
At the shop level.
60
Who provides assistance in developing an RWP?3
Maintenance Engineering.
61
How often is the RWP schedule printed for the foreman to verify, review, and schedule work?4
On a weekly basis.
62
Who are the “team players” in the RWP?5
Operations flight chief, zone journeyman, Maintenance Engineering foreman and program manager, and
BCE.
63
Where can you obtain official guidance on RWP?
AFI 32–1032, Planning and Programming Real Property Maintenance Projects Using Appropriated Funds
(APF).
64
What is the craftsman’s function in the RWP?
To complete the task and enter the amount of time taken to do the task in the computer.
65
What does MASs do for the RWP?
Describe the intervals and tasks that are to be done, required hours, and other miscellaneous information.
66
What is a task interval?
The amount of time that will pass before the task is done again.
67
What action keeps an item from coming up on the next week’s RWP schedule?
Worker enters a “C” for complete in the Stat column on the labor screen.
68
What is scheduling?
The act of matching work requirements with in-service personnel resources.
69
What is the purpose of the weekly scheduling meeting?
The meeting is held before the schedule is prepared so that problems concerning materials, equipment, and
the work force may be resolved before a job is scheduled.
70
Who normally attends the weekly scheduling meeting?
Programmer/scheduler, shop supervisors, Material Control representative, the chief of operations, and
superintendents.
71
What is the scheduler’s function in the weekly scheduling meeting?
To determine and record the number of workers and hours to each job for the next week.
72
What is the difference between labor scheduling and labor reporting?
Labor scheduling is programming the hours needed to do a job, while labor reporting is logging where the
hours actually go on a daily basis.
73
What is the difference between ETA and ATA cost centers in relation to labor reporting?
ATA cost centers report labor hours using the weekly-scheduling-meeting concept, while ETA cost center
hours are reported monthly
74
What is the difference between direct and indirect LUC codes?
Direct LUCs identify productive work. Indirect LUCs identify nonproductive work.
75
Who develops the weekly work schedule?
Either the supervisor or the controller.
76
What is the difference between the top part (Sections I and II) and the bottom part (Section III) of
AF Form 561?
Sections I and II show work-hour allocations; Section III shows work-hour estimates.
77
What constitutes a schedule deviation?
A work requirement that was not started or completed as scheduled.
78
Who manages the daily work schedule?
Superintendent and shop supervisor through the scheduler.
79
What is the purpose of the daily work schedule?
To know the location of each worker and the status of all work.
80
How do workers receive their work assignments?
From the shop supervisor through the scheduler.
81
List two responsibilities that a worker has in the daily work schedule.
(1) Tells scheduler when each job is finished and how much time the job took.
(2) Tells scheduler his or her location.
82
What is the purpose of the Civil Engineer IWIMS management system?
The purpose of IWIMS is to provide base and major command (MAJCOM) CE managers with real-time
data input and information output necessary for effective resource allocation.
83
What information is presented in the IWIMS control files?
A control file organizes and displays the data record in the appropriate fields giving meaning to the entries.
84
List some good planning techniques.
Read the request thoroughly, talk to the customer, visit the job, make sketches, and develop a good work
package.
85
What is a work package? Describe what can be found in it.
A folder or paper jacket containing the work request, drawings or sketches, other pertinent information, and
Job Phase Summary Sheet.
86
What is the difference between a craft phase and a job phase?
Job phase refers to step-by-step procedures particular to a trade on the job site. Craft phase refers to the
sequence (or order of work accomplishment) in which trades appear on the job site.
87
What should you do if you are having trouble brainstorming a job?
Use the EPS craft handbook or consult a subject-matter expert.
88
What are the two types of Air Force publications?
(1) Departmental.
| (2) Field.
89
Why were all Air Force publications renumbered and rewritten?
To facilitate information retrieval.
90
What should you do with the old publications that have not been superseded?
Keep them. They remain in effect until superseded by newer publications.
91
What is the main difference between departmental and field publications?
The level of origination and application. Departmental publications apply to a minimum of two MAJCOMs or FOAs and are issued by the order of the SECAF. Field publications originate at the MAJCOM level and
apply all units under the control of the issuing headquarters.
92
What are the five different categories of Air Force publications?
(1) Standard.
(2) Special.
(3) Periodical.
(4) Nonrecurring pamphlets.
(5) Non-Air Force publications.
93
How do the various categories of Air Force publications differ from each other?
They mainly differ in their mode of delivery.
94
What are the two types of standard publications?
(1) Directive.
| (2) Nondirective.
95
What type of publication is this CDC?
Special.
96
What types of publications are printed on a recurring basis?
Periodicals, staff digests, and base bulletins.
97
Why should you know how to quickly locate a publication listing?
To prevent wasting time and effort.
98
What is the series number for Civil Engineering publications?
32–XXXX.
99
Where can you find a listing of all current standard and recurring publications?
The Master Catalog.
100
What is the series number for Personnel publications?
36–XXXX.
101
What methods are used to locate a publication in the Master Catalog?
By organization, subject area, product type, or by conducting a product search.
102
Where can the Master Catalog be viewed?
On the Air Force Departmental Publishing web site.
103
How often is the AFEPL CD-ROM containing publications and forms put out for distribution?
Quarterly.
104
What is the definition of a commercial publication?
Any publication that is produced for profit by nongovernmental agencies.
105
How are commercial publications identified when they become part of the TO system?
A one-sheet “identifying” TO is issued as a title sheet to describe the commercial publication and, when
necessary, to supply additional instructions.
106
How are commercial publications filed when they become part of the TO system?
These publications may be filed in the TO binders in numerical order with the regular TOs, or they may be
filed in a separate file in numerical order. In the regular TO file, the identifying title sheet is filed just in
front of the commercial publication.
107
What is the main reason some commercial publications (commercial manuals) needed by the Air
Force are not included in the TO system?
Mainly economics. It is cheaper to buy previously printed commercial material if it meets Air Force needs.
108
How does the Air Force purchase publications that are not in the publications system?
Through local procurement.
109
How are commercial publications not in the TO system indexed and filed?
In some logical order. Designate a section of a shelf of the publications filing cabinet for these publications
and make them readily available to everyone.
110
What are ETLs used for?
To maintain high professional standards in facility engineering and design.
111
How long are ETLs valid?
Until canceled, rescinded, or superseded by a later ETL.
112
To whom are ETLs distributed?
Major commands, design agents, and other special-interest organizations.
113
What type of TO gives instructions issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatal
accident or severe injury to personnel or damage to property?
Immediate action TCTO.
114
What does the time limit for completion of work depend on when dealing with TCTOs?
The degree of danger caused by the unsafe condition.
115
What are the two basic types of indexes?
(1) Numerical.
| (2) Alphabetical.
116
Where are TO numbers and titles found?
TO indexes.
117
Which is the only index that comes in book form?
TO 0–2–1, the alphabetical index.
118
How are other indexes stored?
On microfiche.
119
What does Part I of the 0–1–01 index show?
New, updated, and inactivated indexes.
120
What does Part II of the 0–1–01 index show?
The index number, date, and titles of all TO indexes.
121
Which technical order covers the procedures for reporting needed improvements in TOs?
TO 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System.
122
Which type of TO deficiency recommendation is submitted if fatal or serious injury to personnel
can result?
Emergency.
123
Which type of TO deficiency recommendation is submitted if a hazardous condition can exist if
the equipment is used for a long period of time?
Routine.
124
Which type of TO deficiency recommendation is submitted if TO improvement is needed for a
condition that can reduce operational life of a piece of equipment?
Routine.
125
When does the supervisor create an OJT Record for new personnel?
Upon the initial training needs review.
126
Summarize the process used to determine an airman’s abilities.
The evaluation is based on the task items the airman has been certified on or should have learned during
technical training, based on the code listed for the task(s).
127
Where can you find the proficiency code key?
It is listed in every STS for quick reference.
128
What is “certification”?
A formal indication of an individual’s ability to do a task to required standards.
129
Who designates certification officials?
The unit commander.
130
What is CerTest?
It is an interactive computer-based program.
131
What is CerTest designed to do?
Augment and enrich a variety of training requirements to ensure that you are qualified to accomplish the
Civil Engineering mission.
132
What happens if a student scores high enough in a block on a pretest?
The student is not required to watch the instructional video for the block in which the pretest was passed.
133
What is the purpose of the classification system?
To identify the duties and responsibilities of each career field so that they can be matched to an individual’s
abilities. It also provides the Air Force a systematic way of assigning the right people to the right job to
ensure the highest order of mission accomplishment.
134
What is the specialty description?
It is a job description of the specific AFSC. It summarizes in detail what the majority of personnel do in the field in that specific AFS.
135
Explain why some jobs that you may do may not be in the specialty description.
These jobs are done by a minority of personnel in the field.
136
What does the “5” in 3E051 stand for?
The “journeyman” skill level.
137
What does a prefix designate?
An ability, skill, special qualification, or system designator not restricted to a single AFSC.
138
What does a suffix designate?
A position associated with a particular piece of equipment, thus identifying experience with a piece of
equipment.
139
Which AFI provides specific guidelines for career advancement?
AFI 36–2101, Classifying Military Personnel (Officers and Airmen).
140
Which AFMAN gives detailed duty descriptions of each Air Force specialty?
AFMAN 36–2108, Airman Classification.
141
What is the main reason for maintaining a training record?
So that all of your training is annotated for the record.
142
Which enlisted grades require that an AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record, be kept?
Airman basic (AB) through technical sergeant (TSgt).
143
Which documents are inserted into the AF Form 623 to make up an OJT Record?
STS (CFETP), JQS, and AF Form 623a.
144
What topics must be included in a safety briefing for newly assigned workers?
(1) Hazards of the job tasks they will do.
(2) Hazards of the work area.
(3) AFOSH standards and other standards applicable to the work area must be available at the workplace.
(4) Personal protective equipment they will need and how to use it.
(5) Location and use of emergency and fire protection equipment.
(6) Emergency procedures that apply to their jobs and workplaces.
(7) How to identify and report hazards.
(8) How to report work-related injuries and illnesses.
145
List five actions you can take to train your people to be safety conscious.
(1) Safety suggestions on bulletin board.
(2) Pass out safety literature each week.
(3) Group instruction.
(4) Use movies and slides in a classroom.
(5) Pass out Air Force and commercial publications for self-study.
146
You have a worker who does a good job for you but has a tendency to overlook some safety
precautions to save time. State the action you should take in this case.
When you see a safety precaution being skipped or only partially used, you should stop the worker, explain
what the safety hazard is, and insist that full safety procedures be used. You may need to watch this worker
closely to catch the safety violations and correct them on the spot and document these actions.
147
Who should exercise safety control over a job?
The supervisor on the job.
148
Why should the supervisor look over blueprints or sketches with employees?
To point out existing and potential hazards and to construct a plan to control them.
149
Who must attend SST?
Noncommissioned officers when first assigned to a supervisory position. Commissioned officers when first
assigned as a supervisor. Civilian personnel upon initial assignment to a supervisory position. Any
supervisor who needs refresher training or who demonstrates a lack of safety knowledge or initiative.
150
On what form do supervisors document safety, fire protection, and health training?
AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record.
151
Whose job safety training does not require documentation?
Commanders, functional managers, supervisors, and staff members whose work environments are primarily
low-risk, administrative areas.
152
What are the two types of inspection programs you may use in your shop?
(1) Scheduled inspections.
| (2) Unscheduled inspections.
153
What are the essential elements of a maintenance program?
The scope of work, intervals of performance, and methods of application.
154
List four types of equipment records you need to maintain for base equipment and facilities.
(1) Instruction leaflets and manuals.
(2) Installation drawings.
(3) Wiring diagrams.
(4) Distribution maps.
155
What is shown on maintenance records?
Date, type of work, test results, and other remarks.
156
Where are power outages, surges, and low voltages recorded?
The power outage log.
157
What information is needed on an emergency operations checklist?
What is to be done in step-by-step procedures. List of personnel by name, title, and telephone number.
Emphasis on safety under conditions of stress, power failure, and similar emergencies.
158
When are you certified to do electrical work?
When you are properly trained and familiar with the equipment and procedures.
159
What factors can require you to work on energized lines?
Requirements to support a critical mission, to prevent personal injury, or to protect property.
160
Who certifies work to be done on energized lines?
BCE or designated subordinate.
161
What responsibilities does the electrical supervisor have before live-line maintenance is done?
Plan the job, make sure the right tools are available, and conduct a briefing before the job.
162
When you are using rubber protective equipment, what conductor do you cover first?
Lowest or nearest.
163
If the bucket truck is being used around energized conductors, what must you do?
Ground the truck or barricade the truck and work area.
164
Should you use rubber gloves to work on a 23-kV energized circuit?
Yes, if you’re in an electrically isolated basket or platform.
165
Whose signature appears in the “Individual Ordering Tag on Equipment” block on an AF Form
979?
Individual directly in charge at the work site.
166
What form is placed on an air switch that has been closed to backfeed an area?
AF Form 980.
167
How long must the safe clearance form be retained?
1 year after release.
168
Who issues the safe clearance?
Electrical superintendent or a designated supervisor.
169
Who coordinates between safe clearances when more than one is issued?
Electrical supervisor.
170
What is the best way to block a switch?
With a padlock.
171
Who is responsible for the release of all safe clearances?
Electrical superintendent.
172
When working on the airfield, why must you stay in radio contact with the control tower?
For the tower to clear you off the runway for approaching aircraft.
173
Who is responsible for providing IBR management support?
Base communications officer.
174
List, in correct order, the eight steps involved in pole-top rescue.
(1) Evaluate the situation.
(2) Provide for your protection.
(3) Climb to the rescue position.
(4) Determine the victim’s condition immediately.
(5) Give first aid, if necessary.
(6) Lower the victim.
(7) Check for consciousness (give follow-up care or first aid).
(8) Summon help.
175
Why is it important to know the voltages you are working with?
So you know whether to use rubber gloves or hot-line tools.
176
How many breaths are given to a victim who is unconscious and not breathing?
Two full breaths.
177
On what side of the crossarm is the rescue line positioned?
The rescue line may be run over either side of the crossarm, depending on the position of the victim and
rescuer.
178
How many wraps are put around the fall line?
Two.
179
Where is the victim’s safety strap cut?
Opposite the desired swing.
180
In a two-person rescue, who controls the victim’s rate of descent?
Person on the ground.
181
When should CPR be started?
Once the victim is on the ground.
182
You are working with a crew of four workers at a manhole. One of the workers in the manhole is
injured and must be raised out of the manhole. Briefly, what steps do you take?
(1) Evaluate the situation.
(2) One rescuer goes to the aid of the victim while another goes for the rescue rope.
(3) Pass the rescue rope down to the rescuer who ties it around the victim’s body.
(4) Raise the victim out of the manhole.
(5) Administer first aid.
183
What is the rescuer’s prime concern?
The rescuer’s own safety.
184
Which of the two methods of manhole rescue is the best? Why?
Two-person method. Because the smallest individual can rescue the largest victim.
185
In the two-person method, why is the knot placed in front of the victim?
This allows the victim’s head to tilt back, keeping the air passage open.
186
What two items are needed to set up a bucket truck for a rescue?
(1) A strap.
| (2) A set of rope blocks suitable for hot-line work.
187
What is the first step in performing bucket-truck rescue?
Evaluate the situation.
188
Which controls should you use to lower the bucket during a rescue?
The secondary controls (deadman switch) located on the turntable.
189
When was the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) established and what was the mission of
this organization?
In 1970, the mission of the EPA is to protect human health and the environment.
190
What are some areas of responsibility of the Environmental Protection Agency?
The EPA leads the nation’s environmental science, research, education, and assessment efforts. They
develop and enforce regulations, offer financial assistance, perform environmental research, and sponsor
voluntary partnerships and programs.
191
What is the basic national charter for protection of the environment?
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA).
192
Where are National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) regulations found?
In 40 CFR 1500–1517.
193
How does the Air Force ensure compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act?
Through the environmental impact analysis process.
194
What must every Environmental Assessment lead to?
A Finding of No Significant Impact or an Environmental Impact Statement.
195
```
Under federal law, what requirement does the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-
Know Act (EPCRA) place on all companies?
```
It requires that detailed information about the nature of hazardous substances in or near communities be
made available to the public.
196
List the four major provisions of EPCRA.
(1) Planning for chemical emergencies.
(2) Emergency release notification.
(3) Hazardous chemical reporting.
(4) Toxic chemical release reporting.
197
How often are major and minor installations, support sites, and GOCO facilities required to
receive an external environmental compliance assessment?
At least once every 3 years.
198
List the three phases of ECAMP.
(1) Preassessment activities.
(2) Site assessment activities.
(3) Post-assessment activities.
199
What is the first step in post-assessment activities?
The creation of the draft report.
200
What is the difference between friable and nonfriable asbestos-containing materials?
Friable materials are loosely bound and the asbestos fibers can be easily crushed or pulverized; nonfriable
materials have the asbestos fibers “locked in.”
201
How do asbestos fibers get into a worker’s body?
The worker inhales them.
202
What diseases can be caused by asbestos exposure?
Lung, colon, and stomach cancer as well as asbestosis.
203
When is the hazard of asbestos exposure greatest?
When the asbestos-containing material is disturbed.
204
Whom should you contact if you discover what you suspect is asbestos-containing material?
Bioenvironmental Engineering Services.
205
What is the most reliable method you can use to keep asbestos fibers from becoming airborne?
Keep the material wet.
206
What are CE responsibilities in support of the base LBP abatement program?
CE ensures facilities are inspected on a prioritized basis for deteriorated painted surfaces, ensures
appropriate in-place management and abatement are performed, provide occupant relocation actions when a
LBP hazard determination deems it necessary, and ensures precautions for occupants and workers, and
environmental protection requirements for proper disposal of LBP debris.
207
What tasks must be accomplished before performing a Lead base paint abatement project?
(1) Find a qualified contractor.
(2) Develop an abatement plan.
(3) Develop a testing plan.
(4) Coordinate and schedule the abatement work correctly.
(5) Perform various types of testing.
208
Which LBP abatement strategy has the greatest potential for generation of lead dust and debris?
Replacement/removal.
209
Describe the characteristic odor and appearance of PCB mixtures.
They have a hydrocarbon odor and can range from a colorless to a dark-brown, syrup-like liquid.
210
What are some of the toxic effects of PCBs?
Chloracne and irritation to eyes, nose, and throat. Acute and chronic exposure can cause liver damage.
211
How do PCBs enter the body?
Through inhalation, skin absorption, ingestion, or eye contact.
212
What safety equipment must you wear when cleaning a surface contaminated by PCB?
A supplied-air or self-contained breathing apparatus with full-face protection, neoprene gloves, boots, and
body-protection clothing.
213
What first-aid steps should you take if a PCB substance contacts your skin?
Thoroughly wash the affected area with soap and water. Change your clothing if contaminated. Seek
medical aid immediately.
214
What first-aid steps should you take if you swallow a PCB substance?
Seek immediate medical aid. If medical aid is not available, stick your finger down your throat or drink
large amounts of warm salt water to make yourself vomit.
215
How often must PCB equipment located in food and feed areas be inspected?
Weekly.
216
What is oil-filled electrical equipment that contains a PCB concentration of 350 PPM considered
to be?
PCB-contaminated electrical equipment.
217
What information must be included on the inventory of oil-filled electrical equipment?
Type of item, rating, volume of oil, manufacturer, fluid trade name, and facility where equipment is located.
218
If you conducted an inspection of a PCB transformer located in a food storage warehouse on 15
March, between what time periods would you have to complete the next inspection?
It must be completed sometime between 15 and 22 March.
219
Under what conditions may the inspection of PCB-filled equipment located in nonfood and nonfeed
areas be conducted annually?
If the equipment has secondary containment available that has the capability to contain 100 percent of the
total dielectric fluid volume, or the equipment contains less than 60,000 PPM PCB.
220
In addition to the information obtained during the inventory phase of oil-filled electrical
equipment, what type of information is contained in the maintenance and inspection records?
The date of the inspection, the name of the inspector, the location of any leaks, the amount of the fluid
released, date of cleanup, method of containment, repairs or replacement done, description of any work
done, and results of any containment or follow-up inspection.
221
What features must a temporary storage facility for PCB include?
(1) It must be above the 100-year flood plain.
(2) It must have a roof and walls.
(3) The floor must be constructed of impervious material with a 6-inch curb and cannot have any openings
(drains, seams, etc.).
(4) Containment volume of the floor must be equal to the
222
What protective equipment must personnel engaged in PCB cleanup wear?
Disposable apron or coveralls, gloves, boot covers, and safety face shields.
223
How are PCB soiled rags disposed of?
They are placed in an approved, removable-head, drum-type container with EPA-type PCB labels. The rags
are disposed of at an EPA-approved landfill.
224
What information must be entered on the disposal log?
(1) Total weight in kilograms of all PCB fluid.
(2) Identification of containers and contents.
(3) Total number of PCB transformers and total weight in kilograms of PCB fluid.
(4) Total number of PCB capacitors.
225
The rescue rope should be how long?
The depth of the manhole plus 15 feet.
