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CDC > URE Set C > Flashcards

URE Set C Flashcards

1
Q

(001) The most important thing to keep in mind during readiness training is

A

that the reason for our existence is to do our primary mission.

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2
Q

(001) Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force was created to

A

respond to worldwide contingency taskings.

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3
Q

(002) How do GeoBase services provide “fused installation pictures?”

A

Combining Common Installation Picture and Mission Data Set layers.

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4
Q

(003) The present Civil Engineering squadron format was adapted to

A

streamline functions and responsibilities.

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5
Q

(003) The Civil Engineering squadron commander is normally referred to as the

A

base civil engineer.

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6
Q

(004) Real property accounting is the responsibility of which flight?

A

Resources.

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7
Q

(004) Which is the largest flight in Civil Engineering in terms of personnel?

A

Operations.

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8
Q

(004) A zone manager documents minor maintenance and repair work on

A

AF Form 1219, BCE Multi-Craft Job Order.

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9
Q

(004) The largest single element under the operations flight is

A

heavy repair.

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10
Q

(005) Who is in the best position to maintain a good rapport with Civil Engineering’s customers?

A

The workers.

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11
Q

(006) One definition of urgent-type work is work that

A

eliminates fire, health, and safety hazards.

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12
Q

(007) The type of work request in which labor or materials or both are “donated” by the requester
is

A

self-help.

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13
Q

(008) Initially determining whether a work request (AF Form 332) could have an environmental
impact is done by the

A

b. zone representative during the review process.

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14
Q

(009) The accomplishment of self-help work orders is ultimately the responsibility of the

A

base civil engineer.

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15
Q

(009) Who inspects work for quality and completion, and furnishes signed AF Form 327 to
Maintenance Engineering section?

A

Work center supervisor

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16
Q

(010) Which of the following is not a good supply discipline rule?

A

Over purchasing supplies to keep more than adequate stocks.

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17
Q

(011) The first four digits of a national stock number identify the

A

stock class of the item.

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18
Q

(011) Which of the following forms limits your request to 12 separate items?

A

AF Form 1445, Materials and Equipment List.

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19
Q

(011) Which of the following forms is used to order material not previously issued a stock
number?

A

DD Form 1348–6, DOD Single Line Item Requisition System Document.

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20
Q

(011) Materials used on a routine basis, such as screws, nuts, bolts, or lumber, are kept in the

A

bench stock area.

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21
Q

(012) Which of the following is not a function of Logistics?

A

d. Working with zone/shop representatives to clear up jobs that need additional materials.

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22
Q

(013) The main objective of the Air Force warranty/guarantee program is to

A

make sure of the purchase of high-quality products and prolong their productive life.

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23
Q

(013) How is warranted/guaranteed Air Force equipment identified?

A

By attaching an Optional Form 274, Equipment Warranty, to the equipment.

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24
Q

(014) The purpose of the recurring work program is to

A

extend the life of Air Force facilities and equipment.

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25
Q

(014) Recurring work program schedules are printed on a

A

weekly basis.

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26
Q

(014) Which of the following is given to the journeyman when recurring work program work is
done?

A

The maintenance action sheet.

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27
Q

(014) Who selects and monitors the performance of the recurring work program’s program
managers in the electrical, mechanical, and structural disciplines?

A

The maintenance engineering foreman.

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28
Q

(015) Task intervals on a Maintenance Action Sheet indicate

A

the estimated hours it will take to do the task.

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29
Q

(016) The scheduling concept is a twofold operation consisting of filling out the

A

AF Form 561 (weekly schedule) and AF Form 1734 (daily schedule).

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30
Q

(017) The main difference between exception time accounting (ETA) and actual time accounting

A

ATA shops are primarily in the Operations flight and report their hours weekly.

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31
Q

(017) Which statement is true concerning direct and indirect labor utilization codes?

A

Direct LUCs show “productive” labor hours, such as Prime BEEF.

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32
Q

(018) Who develops the weekly work schedule (AF Form 561)?

A

Supervisor.

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33
Q

(018) What constitutes a schedule deviation from the weekly work schedule?

A

Failure to start or complete a job as planned.

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34
Q

(019) Who releases work to workers and logs the work on the daily work schedule (AF Form
1734) ?

A

Scheduler.

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35
Q

019) The purpose of the daily work schedule (AF Form 1734) is to show the status of each job
and the

A

location of each worker.

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36
Q

(020) Due to system transitions, what CE Management computer software packages may be used
within the organization?

A

IWIMS and ACES.

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37
Q

(020) What types of files are maintained in IWIMS data files?

A

All the raw data or information.

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38
Q

(021) The most important technique you can employ when planning jobs is to

A

visit the job site to get a better understanding of the magnitude of the job.

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39
Q

(021) Listing the order of work accomplishment by specific trade is called

A

craft phasing.

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40
Q

(022) What are the two main types of Air Force publications?

A

Departmental and field.

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41
Q

(022) Which type of publication applies to a minimum of two major commands?

A

Departmental.

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42
Q

(022) Air Force publications were renamed and renumbered to

A

ease the process of information retrieval.

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43
Q 
(022) Which type of Air Force publication is identified by the name of the base followed by the
publication number (e.g., SAFB Instruction 32–7040)?
A

Installation.

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44
Q

(023) Which type of nondirective publication is informational and serves to guide, point out, or
otherwise facilitate reference to other publications?

A

Air Force Indexes.

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45
Q

023) Air Force “Aim High” recruitment posters are a good example of Air Force

A

temporary visual aids.

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46
Q

(024) The series number for Civil Engineering publications is

A

32-XXXX.

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47
Q

(025) How many methods does the Master Catalog offer for locating publications?

A

4.

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48
Q

(026) When a commercial technical publication is filed with regular TOs, how is it identified?

A

An identifying title sheet is filed in front of the commercial publication.

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49
Q

(026) How do you file commercial publications that are purchased locally?

A

On a designated shelf file, in some logical order.

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50
Q

(027) Engineering technical letters apply to

A

all facilities except medical and family housing.

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51
Q

(028) Which section of the Operation and Service Instructions Manual contains instructions for
uncrating, installing, and preparing equipment for initial operations?

A

Section 3.

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52
Q

(028) Which section of the Operation and Service Instructions Manual contains step-by-step
instructions for starting, operating, and stopping equipment?

A

Section 4.

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53
Q

(029) Which time compliance technical order requires you to discontinue use of equipment until
prescribed maintenance work is completed?

A

Immediate action TCTOs.

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54
Q

(029) The time compliance technical order that must be issued if the risk involved is tolerable
only within definite time limits is the

A

urgent action TCTO.

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55
Q

(030) What is the first number of all technical order indexes?

A

Zero (0).

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56
Q

(031) Which technical order improvement recommendation requires action within 40 days of its
receipt?

A

Urgent.

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57
Q

(031) What type of technical order improvement recommendation is submitted if prescribed
maintenance procedures reduce the operational life of equipment?

A

Routine.

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58
Q

(032) Some sort of training documentation must be kept on airmen in the grades of

A

AB through SMSgt.

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59
Q

(032) Maintaining an AF Form 623, Individual Training Record, is mandatory for airmen in the
grades of

A

AB through TSgt.

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60
Q

(032) The current program used to record training in the field is known as the

A

Career Field Education and Training Plan.

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61
Q

(033) Newcomers who already possess training records from another base are evaluated

A

only for previously certified tasks done at their present base.

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62
Q

(034) Certifying officials for each section are assigned by the

A

unit commander.

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63
Q

(034) Who evaluates the trainee and verifies that he/she has completed all upgrade training
requirements?

A

Certifying official.

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64
Q

(035) What is the most common training medium of the CerTest program?

A

Video.

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65
Q

(036) The purpose of the Air Force classification system is to

A

identify job taskings and match them to an individual’s ability.

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66
Q

(036) The job description gives a summary of duties and responsibilities for all personnel in a
specific

A

AFSC.

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67
Q

(036) Suffixes attached to an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) are used mainly

A

to designate special experience with one major equipment item.

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68
Q

(037) The best descriptor of “career advancement” in the Air Force is

A

having skill levels commensurate with your grade.

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69
Q

(037) In any specialty, what is a 1-level considered in the Air Force?

A

Unskilled.

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70
Q

(038) Which training responsibility is most important during skill-level upgrade training?

A

Budget time on and off duty for CDC completion.

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71
Q

(038) The first person to talk to if you do not understand your training plan is

A

your supervisor.

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72
Q

(039) Placing safety suggestions on the bulletin board and passing safety literature to each worker
are examples of which type of mishap prevention method?

A

Education and training.

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73
Q

(040) How often will supervisors review safety lesson plans?

A

Annually.

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74
Q

(040) What computer code reflects supervisor safety training completion?

A

Code “Q.”

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75
Q

(041) Information showing the location of installed distribution equipment should be kept

A

on a distribution map in the shop.

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76
Q

(041) System problems, such as outages, surges, or low voltages, are recorded on the

A

power outage log.

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77
Q

(042) Who is responsible for planning jobs that are to be done “hot”?

A

The electrical systems supervisor.

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78
Q

(042) How can supervisor ensure crewmember understands the requirements presented during a
tailgate meeting?

A

Have personnel repeat procedures.

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79
Q

(043) Which Air Force form is used to record all blocking and tagging actions done on primary
electrical circuits on Air Force installations?

A

AF Form 269, Electrical Facilities Safe Clearance.

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80
Q

(043) Who is responsible for issuing a safe clearance?

A

Superintendent.

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81
Q

(043) The signature of the electrical supervisor in the “Released By” block of the safe clearance
form certifies that

A

all personnel and temporary grounds are clear and all lines and equipment are ready for service.

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82
Q

(044) From who/where must you get radio clearance before entering the active runway?

A

Control tower.

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83
Q

(045) What is the first step you should take in a pole-top rescue?

A

Evaluate the situation.

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84
Q

(046) When rescuing a person from a manhole, your primary concern should be

A

your own safety.

85
Q

(046) Which of these should you use with the manhole guard when using the two-person method
of manhole rescue?

A

Windlass handcrank.

86
Q

(047) When setting up the bucket truck for rescue, where should you place the strap, and how far
from the bucket should it be?

A

The upper boom; 10 feet.

87
Q

(048) Most Findings of No Significant Impact must not exceed

A

two typewritten pages.

88
Q

(048) To raise state and local awareness of the potential for accidents involving hazardous
substances, the Environmental Protection Agency established the

A

Chemical Emergency Preparedness Program.

89
Q

(048) By law, in the case of the release of predetermined amounts of hazardous chemicals, the
facility must notify the community and the

A

Local Emergency Planning Committee and the State Emergency Response Committee.

90
Q

(049) To whom does the assessment team provide an in-brief at the start on the Environmental
Compliance Assessment and Management Program visit?

A

Environmental Protection Committee.

91
Q

(050) Who is responsible for ensuring that Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
requirements for the use of a Hazardous Waste Management Program are complied with?

A

Installation commander.

92
Q

(050) What is the maximum amount of time hazardous waste can be stored at an accumulation
point before it is turned over to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office?

A

90 days.

93
Q

(051) How does asbestos usually enter the body?

A

By being inhaled.

94
Q

(051) When are you most likely to encounter asbestos?

A

During renovation of old structures.

95
Q

(052) Which of the following is not considered as a major source of lead exposure in children?

A

Leaded gasoline engine emissions.

96
Q

(052) The primary purposes of a Lead Toxicity Investigation Team are to identify the source of

A

hazard evaluation and recommend potential corrective action.

97
Q

(053) What symptom appears when an individual has had prolonged skin contact with
polychlorinated biphenyl?

A

Chloracne.

98
Q

(053) When medical aid is not immediately available, what first aid should you give to an
individual who has swallowed polychlorinated biphenyl?

A

Give the victim large amounts of salt water.

99
Q

(054) A transformer that contains polychlorinated biphenyl (PCB) in greater concentrations than
500 parts per million is considered

A

PCB electrical equipment.

100
Q

(054) If the service equipment to a food storage facility is found to be PCB-filled, how often
thereafter must you inspect this equipment?

A

Weekly

101
Q

We call anything that has weight and occupies space

A

matter.

102
Q

(201) Scientists can combine elements in either

A

compounds or mixtures.

103
Q

(201) According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of

A

protons, neutrons, and electrons.

104
Q

(202) Which statement best describes a positive ion?

A

An atom that lost an electron and has more protons.

105
Q

(203) What effect of current causes an electric motor to produce mechanical energy?

A

Magnetism.

106
Q

(203) Which of these is the smallest current that can be fatal under certain conditions?

A

One-tenth of 1 amp.

107
Q

(203) Which of these is the smallest current that can be fatal under certain conditions?

A

Voltage.

108
Q

(204) A thermocouple produces voltage as a result of what type of energy?

A

Heat.

109
Q

(205) According to Ohm’s law, how much voltage is needed to push 1 ampere of current through 1
ohm of resistance?

A

1 volt.

110
Q

(205) What normally causes the resistance of a conductor to increase?

A

Increase in temperature.

111
Q

(206) What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?

A

Watts.

112
Q

(206) A 3-horsepower motor consumes how much power?

A

2.238 kW.

113
Q

(207) We call a magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source

A

an artificial magnet.

114
Q

(208) You can create a polarity and increase the strength of the magnetic lines of force around a

A

looping the conductor into a coil.

115
Q

(208) What items are required to construct an electromagnet?

A

A coil of wire, a core material, and current flow.

116
Q

(209) What are the two most common methods of producing voltage?

A

Chemical and mechanical.

117
Q

(209) What are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic
induction?

A

Magnetic field, a conductor, and relative motion.

118
Q

(210) What type of current flow is the result of voltages produced by batteries and
thermocouples?

A

Direct current.

119
Q

(210) What type of current flow cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage?

A

Direct current.

120
Q

(211) Which formula for finding the resistance of a circuit is correct?

A

Voltage divided by current.

121
Q

(211) What is the resistance of a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a current flow of
9 amperes?

A

13.33 ohms.

122
Q

(211) How much current flow is in a circuit that has 24 volts applied and 72-ohms of resistance?

A

0.33 amperes.

123
Q

(211) What is the current flow in a series circuit with a 20-ohm resistor, a 25-ohm resistor, and a
30-ohm resistor connected to a 25-volt power supply?

A

0.33 amperes.

124
Q

(212) The total current in a parallel circuit is equal to the

A

sum of the currents in the individual branches.

125
Q

(212) The joint resistance of a parallel circuit is equal to the applied voltage divided by the

A

total current.

126
Q

(212) What is the joint resistance of a 5-ohm resistor and a 20-ohm resistor in parallel?

A

4 ohms.

127
Q

(212) What is the joint resistance of a 4-ohm resistor, a 10-ohm resistor, and a 12-ohm resistor in
parallel?

A

2.3 ohms.

128
Q

(213) What is the current flow in amperes of a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a
power consumption of 600 watts?

A

5 amperes.

129
Q

(213) What is the power in watts consumed by a circuit with 120 volts applied and a resistance of
12 ohms?

A

1200 watts.

130
Q

(213) How many watts of power are present in a 5-ohm unit of resistance through which 2
amperes are flowing?

A

20 watts.

131
Q

(605) What is the largest AWG (American standard wire gauge) size electrical wire?

A

4/0.

132
Q

(605) The thousand circular mills (kcmil) size range for conductors is

A

250 to 2,000.

133
Q

(605) What do the letters THW marked on an electrical conductor indicate?

A

Heat and moisture resistant thermoplastic.

134
Q

(606) What is the procedure we use to connect boxes together to permit more than one device to be
mounted with a single cover plate?

A

Ganging.

135
Q

(607) What is the purpose of a raised box cover?

A

Provides added interior space as well as a cover for the box.

136
Q

(608) Which condition below is not allowed?

A

Using flexible metal tubing in lengths greater than 6 feet.

137
Q

(609) Which ratings are always found on switches?

A

Amperes and volts.

138
Q

(609) What is the maximum distance from a floor or a working platform that you can install switch
and circuit breaker handles?

A

79 inches.

139
Q

(610) What ratings are found on receptacles?

A

Volts and amperes.

140
Q

(611) Which classification of light directs from 40 to 60 percent of its light upward above the area to
be lighted?

A

General diffusing.

141
Q

(611) Which classification of light fixture directs all its light so that the entire ceiling and upper side
walls become the light source?

A

Indirect.

142
Q

(612) Incandescent lamps have efficiencies ranging from

A

6 to 24 lumens per watt.

143
Q

(612) What is the diameter of a T8 lamp?

A

8/8 inch.

144
Q

(612) How many electrical contacts do Instant Start lamps require?

A

Two.

145
Q

(612) What frequency should you expect to find in electronic ballasts used in fluorescent lighting
systems?

A

25,000 to 40,000 Hz.

146
Q

(613) What is a disadvantage of high intensity discharge lamps?

A

Restrike time.

147
Q

(613) Which characteristic is associated with a mercury vapor lamp near the end of its useful life?

A

Reduced light output.

148
Q

(613) The efficiency range of a lamp is measured in lumens per

A

watt.

149
Q

(613) What color light is associated with sodium lamps?

A

Golden.

150
Q

(613) What significant hazard is associated with the low-pressure sodium lamp?

A

Explosive reaction if sodium comes in contact with water.

151
Q

(614) How many conductors are required for a 3-phase-wye service entrance used for power and
lighting?

A

Three ungrounded and one grounded neutral conductors.

152
Q

(614) Which one of these voltage systems has one phase to neutral voltage that is higher than other
phases to neutral?

A

4-wire, 3-phase delta.

153
Q

(615) The purpose of a transformer core is to

A

provide a magnetic path.

154
Q

(615) The transformer loss caused by the demagnetizing and remagnetizing of the core is

A

hysteresis

155
Q

(616) The insulation value of transformer coils, bushings, and oil determines

A

the voltage rating of the transformer.

156
Q

(616) To provide 120/240 single-phase voltage to the user, the secondary transformer windings

A

are connected in series.

157
Q

(617) Only one voltage exists in a delta system, and it is a

A

3-phase, 3-wire configuration.

158
Q

(617) When you make a delta-delta connection for lights and power, there is one unusable voltage
from

A

A phase to neutral.

159
Q

(618) One important function of the fuse link enclosure is to

A

help contain the arc that accompanies a blown fuse.

160
Q

(618) With the enclosed type of fused cutout, you put the fuse into the circuit by

A

closing the cutout door.

161
Q

(619) What is the minimum clearance for a service drop over a public street?

A

18 feet.

162
Q

(619) Power operated service disconnects are required to be designed so that they can be opened

A

manually.

163
Q

(620) Why are service entrance conductors usually larger than the service drop conductors?

A

Free air permits greater amperage on service drop conductors.

164
Q

(620) Where do you place the weatherhead in reference to the point of attachment of the service drop
conductors?

A

Higher.

165
Q

(620) Two ways to keep rain from entering service entrance (SE) cable are to use a weatherhead or

A

a gooseneck.

166
Q

(621) An underground distribution system we refer to as a service

A

lateral.

167
Q

(621) Underground services installed with cable must be buried to a depth of at least

A

24 inches

168
Q

(622) In a panel with a neutral, what is the smallest percentage of the overcurrent devices that must be
rated at 30 amperes or less for it to be classed as a lighting and appliance panel?

A

10 percent

169
Q

(622) Fuse panels are designed for plug fuses, cartridge fuses, or

A

knife-blade fuses.

170
Q

(623) When installing a panelboard in a damp location, what is the minimum distance you must place
the cabinet from the wall?

A

1/4 inch.

171
Q

(623) The equipment ground bar and neutral bar are bonded together in a panel only when the
panelboard also serves as the

A

service entrance equipment.

172
Q

(625) The conductors between the final overcurrent devices and the outlets for connecting electrical
equipment we call

A

branch circuit conductors.

173
Q

(625) A feeder is made up of the wires

A

to a sub-panel

174
Q

(626) What is the cycles per second (Hertz) rating for most electrical equipment found in foreign
countries?

A

50

175
Q

(626) In Europe the most common voltages are

A

220–380

176
Q

(627) Which part of a set of blueprints indicates the route of the service entrance?

A

Plot plan.

177
Q

(628) Which electrical diagram does not show the relative position of the parts of the system?

A

Schematic diagram

178
Q

(629) Floor plans of a blueprint do not show

A

wiring connections

179
Q

(629) The normal color code for wiring a device is

A

c. black to gold terminal, white to silver.

180
Q

(630) What is the general lighting load of an office building with 1,600 square feet of living area?

A

5,600 Watts.

181
Q

(630) What factor considers that not all lights and receptacles are to be used at the same time?

A

Demand factor.

182
Q

(631) What is the total wattage of 9 ballasts rated at 1.5 amps each and fed by 277 volts?

A

3,739 Watts.

183
Q

(631) Heavy-duty lamp-holder outlets are calculated at

A

600 volt-amperes.

184
Q

(631) What is the required wattage for lighting of an industrial commercial (loft) building measuring
60 by 100 feet?

A

12,000 Watts.

185
Q

(632) The code letter on a motor data plate identifies

A

the locked-rotor current draw of the motor.

186
Q

(632) Ampere capacity of branch-circuit conductors feeding a continuous duty rated motor must be
not less than

A

125 percent of the motor’s FLC

187
Q

(633) To determine the total calculated load of a sub-panel, add all the amperages of the branch
circuits plus what percent of the amperage of the largest motor?

A

25 percent.

188
Q

(634) How many current carrying conductors can be installed in raceway before the current capacity
of the conductors must be derated?

A

3.

189
Q

(635) Refer to figure 5–1. What is the volume of space needed in cubic inches for No. 12 conductor?

A

2.25 cubic inches.

190
Q

(636) A quick, easy method of mounting boxes to metal studs is to use

A

spring metal clips.

191
Q

(636) What is the most popular height for receptacle outlet boxes in the living areas of a house from
the floorline to the center of the box?

A

12 inches.

192
Q

(637) Nonmetallic cable with aluminum conductors ranges in size from

A

No. 12 to No. 2 AWG.

193
Q

(637) Nonmetallic corrosion resistant cable, but not nonmetallic sheathed cable, more commonly
called nonmetallic cable, can be used

A

in corrosive locations.

194
Q

(638) Nonmetallic corrosion resistant cable No. 8 AWG, or larger, may be held in place by EMT
(electrical metallic tubing) straps

A

on smooth walls where the cable is exposed.

195
Q

(639) One layer of plastic tape can insulate against a voltage of

A

600 volts.

196
Q

(640) In addition to the splices required, you must make grounding connections to the boxes used in a
circuit to ensure that they are

A

grounded

197
Q

(641) The maximum weight of a fixture that can be supported by an outlet box is

A

50 pounds.

198
Q

(642) What is the taper per foot requirement for a standard conduit-cutting die used on rigid metal

A

3/4 inch.

199
Q

(643) Two adjacent 90º bends in the same piece of conduit make up a

A

back-to-back bend

200
Q

(644) When a number of conduit runs are to be installed parallel and adjacent to each other, install the

A

conduit all at the same time.

201
Q

(645) Which tool makes a good handle for pulling a fish tape?

A

Side cutting pliers

202
Q

(645) The number of conductors you can put in conduit is based on the

A

size of conduit, conductor size, and conductor insulation.

203
Q

(646) Which material do you use for a circuit extension when appearance is an important factor?

A

Surface raceway.

204
Q

(647) Heat created by loose connections cause

A

an increase in amperage.

205
Q

(648) Grounds or short circuits can be

A

solid, partial, and floating.

206
Q

(649) The basic factor to consider in choosing continuity testing equipment is to use

A

low-voltage instruments to reduce the danger of sparking.

207
Q

(650) When you are checking a 3-phase panel with a voltmeter which phase indicates a “blown” fuse
to you? Use these readings: A-B 120 volts, C-B 120 volts, A-C 208 Volts.

A

B

208
Q

(651) A short circuit exists when there is a connection between two wires or conductors

A

of different potential.

CDC (3 decks)

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