URE Set C Flashcards
(208 cards)
1
Q
(001) The most important thing to keep in mind during readiness training is
A
that the reason for our existence is to do our primary mission.
2
Q
(001) Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force was created to
A
respond to worldwide contingency taskings.
3
Q
(002) How do GeoBase services provide “fused installation pictures?”
A
Combining Common Installation Picture and Mission Data Set layers.
4
Q
(003) The present Civil Engineering squadron format was adapted to
A
streamline functions and responsibilities.
5
Q
(003) The Civil Engineering squadron commander is normally referred to as the
A
base civil engineer.
6
Q
(004) Real property accounting is the responsibility of which flight?
A
Resources.
7
Q
(004) Which is the largest flight in Civil Engineering in terms of personnel?
A
Operations.
8
Q
(004) A zone manager documents minor maintenance and repair work on
A
AF Form 1219, BCE Multi-Craft Job Order.
9
Q
(004) The largest single element under the operations flight is
A
heavy repair.
10
Q
(005) Who is in the best position to maintain a good rapport with Civil Engineering’s customers?
A
The workers.
11
Q
(006) One definition of urgent-type work is work that
A
eliminates fire, health, and safety hazards.
12
Q
(007) The type of work request in which labor or materials or both are “donated” by the requester
is
A
self-help.
13
Q
(008) Initially determining whether a work request (AF Form 332) could have an environmental
impact is done by the
A
b. zone representative during the review process.
14
Q
(009) The accomplishment of self-help work orders is ultimately the responsibility of the
A
base civil engineer.
15
Q
(009) Who inspects work for quality and completion, and furnishes signed AF Form 327 to
Maintenance Engineering section?
A
Work center supervisor
16
Q
(010) Which of the following is not a good supply discipline rule?
A
Over purchasing supplies to keep more than adequate stocks.
17
Q
(011) The first four digits of a national stock number identify the
A
stock class of the item.
18
Q
(011) Which of the following forms limits your request to 12 separate items?
A
AF Form 1445, Materials and Equipment List.
19
Q
(011) Which of the following forms is used to order material not previously issued a stock
number?
A
DD Form 1348–6, DOD Single Line Item Requisition System Document.
20
Q
(011) Materials used on a routine basis, such as screws, nuts, bolts, or lumber, are kept in the
A
bench stock area.
21
Q
(012) Which of the following is not a function of Logistics?
A
d. Working with zone/shop representatives to clear up jobs that need additional materials.
22
Q
(013) The main objective of the Air Force warranty/guarantee program is to
A
make sure of the purchase of high-quality products and prolong their productive life.
23
Q
(013) How is warranted/guaranteed Air Force equipment identified?
A
By attaching an Optional Form 274, Equipment Warranty, to the equipment.
24
Q
(014) The purpose of the recurring work program is to
A
extend the life of Air Force facilities and equipment.
25
(014) Recurring work program schedules are printed on a
weekly basis.
26
(014) Which of the following is given to the journeyman when recurring work program work is
done?
The maintenance action sheet.
27
(014) Who selects and monitors the performance of the recurring work program’s program
managers in the electrical, mechanical, and structural disciplines?
The maintenance engineering foreman.
28
(015) Task intervals on a Maintenance Action Sheet indicate
the estimated hours it will take to do the task.
29
(016) The scheduling concept is a twofold operation consisting of filling out the
AF Form 561 (weekly schedule) and AF Form 1734 (daily schedule).
30
(017) The main difference between exception time accounting (ETA) and actual time accounting
ATA shops are primarily in the Operations flight and report their hours weekly.
31
(017) Which statement is true concerning direct and indirect labor utilization codes?
Direct LUCs show “productive” labor hours, such as Prime BEEF.
32
(018) Who develops the weekly work schedule (AF Form 561)?
Supervisor.
33
(018) What constitutes a schedule deviation from the weekly work schedule?
Failure to start or complete a job as planned.
34
(019) Who releases work to workers and logs the work on the daily work schedule (AF Form
1734) ?
Scheduler.
35
019) The purpose of the daily work schedule (AF Form 1734) is to show the status of each job
and the
location of each worker.
36
(020) Due to system transitions, what CE Management computer software packages may be used
within the organization?
IWIMS and ACES.
37
(020) What types of files are maintained in IWIMS data files?
All the raw data or information.
38
(021) The most important technique you can employ when planning jobs is to
visit the job site to get a better understanding of the magnitude of the job.
39
(021) Listing the order of work accomplishment by specific trade is called
craft phasing.
40
(022) What are the two main types of Air Force publications?
Departmental and field.
41
(022) Which type of publication applies to a minimum of two major commands?
Departmental.
42
(022) Air Force publications were renamed and renumbered to
ease the process of information retrieval.
43
```
(022) Which type of Air Force publication is identified by the name of the base followed by the
publication number (e.g., SAFB Instruction 32–7040)?
```
Installation.
44
(023) Which type of nondirective publication is informational and serves to guide, point out, or
otherwise facilitate reference to other publications?
Air Force Indexes.
45
023) Air Force “Aim High” recruitment posters are a good example of Air Force
temporary visual aids.
46
(024) The series number for Civil Engineering publications is
32-XXXX.
47
(025) How many methods does the Master Catalog offer for locating publications?
4.
48
(026) When a commercial technical publication is filed with regular TOs, how is it identified?
An identifying title sheet is filed in front of the commercial publication.
49
(026) How do you file commercial publications that are purchased locally?
On a designated shelf file, in some logical order.
50
(027) Engineering technical letters apply to
all facilities except medical and family housing.
51
(028) Which section of the Operation and Service Instructions Manual contains instructions for
uncrating, installing, and preparing equipment for initial operations?
Section 3.
52
(028) Which section of the Operation and Service Instructions Manual contains step-by-step
instructions for starting, operating, and stopping equipment?
Section 4.
53
(029) Which time compliance technical order requires you to discontinue use of equipment until
prescribed maintenance work is completed?
Immediate action TCTOs.
54
(029) The time compliance technical order that must be issued if the risk involved is tolerable
only within definite time limits is the
urgent action TCTO.
55
(030) What is the first number of all technical order indexes?
Zero (0).
56
(031) Which technical order improvement recommendation requires action within 40 days of its
receipt?
Urgent.
57
(031) What type of technical order improvement recommendation is submitted if prescribed
maintenance procedures reduce the operational life of equipment?
Routine.
58
(032) Some sort of training documentation must be kept on airmen in the grades of
AB through SMSgt.
59
(032) Maintaining an AF Form 623, Individual Training Record, is mandatory for airmen in the
grades of
AB through TSgt.
60
(032) The current program used to record training in the field is known as the
Career Field Education and Training Plan.
61
(033) Newcomers who already possess training records from another base are evaluated
only for previously certified tasks done at their present base.
62
(034) Certifying officials for each section are assigned by the
unit commander.
63
(034) Who evaluates the trainee and verifies that he/she has completed all upgrade training
requirements?
Certifying official.
64
(035) What is the most common training medium of the CerTest program?
Video.
65
(036) The purpose of the Air Force classification system is to
identify job taskings and match them to an individual’s ability.
66
(036) The job description gives a summary of duties and responsibilities for all personnel in a
specific
AFSC.
67
(036) Suffixes attached to an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) are used mainly
to designate special experience with one major equipment item.
68
(037) The best descriptor of “career advancement” in the Air Force is
having skill levels commensurate with your grade.
69
(037) In any specialty, what is a 1-level considered in the Air Force?
Unskilled.
70
(038) Which training responsibility is most important during skill-level upgrade training?
Budget time on and off duty for CDC completion.
71
(038) The first person to talk to if you do not understand your training plan is
your supervisor.
72
(039) Placing safety suggestions on the bulletin board and passing safety literature to each worker
are examples of which type of mishap prevention method?
Education and training.
73
(040) How often will supervisors review safety lesson plans?
Annually.
74
(040) What computer code reflects supervisor safety training completion?
Code “Q.”
75
(041) Information showing the location of installed distribution equipment should be kept
on a distribution map in the shop.
76
(041) System problems, such as outages, surges, or low voltages, are recorded on the
power outage log.
77
(042) Who is responsible for planning jobs that are to be done “hot”?
The electrical systems supervisor.
78
(042) How can supervisor ensure crewmember understands the requirements presented during a
tailgate meeting?
Have personnel repeat procedures.
79
(043) Which Air Force form is used to record all blocking and tagging actions done on primary
electrical circuits on Air Force installations?
AF Form 269, Electrical Facilities Safe Clearance.
80
(043) Who is responsible for issuing a safe clearance?
Superintendent.
81
(043) The signature of the electrical supervisor in the “Released By” block of the safe clearance
form certifies that
all personnel and temporary grounds are clear and all lines and equipment are ready for service.
82
(044) From who/where must you get radio clearance before entering the active runway?
Control tower.
83
(045) What is the first step you should take in a pole-top rescue?
Evaluate the situation.
84
(046) When rescuing a person from a manhole, your primary concern should be
your own safety.
85
(046) Which of these should you use with the manhole guard when using the two-person method
of manhole rescue?
Windlass handcrank.
86
(047) When setting up the bucket truck for rescue, where should you place the strap, and how far
from the bucket should it be?
The upper boom; 10 feet.
87
(048) Most Findings of No Significant Impact must not exceed
two typewritten pages.
88
(048) To raise state and local awareness of the potential for accidents involving hazardous
substances, the Environmental Protection Agency established the
Chemical Emergency Preparedness Program.
89
(048) By law, in the case of the release of predetermined amounts of hazardous chemicals, the
facility must notify the community and the
Local Emergency Planning Committee and the State Emergency Response Committee.
90
(049) To whom does the assessment team provide an in-brief at the start on the Environmental
Compliance Assessment and Management Program visit?
Environmental Protection Committee.
91
(050) Who is responsible for ensuring that Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
requirements for the use of a Hazardous Waste Management Program are complied with?
Installation commander.
92
(050) What is the maximum amount of time hazardous waste can be stored at an accumulation
point before it is turned over to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office?
90 days.
93
(051) How does asbestos usually enter the body?
By being inhaled.
94
(051) When are you most likely to encounter asbestos?
During renovation of old structures.
95
(052) Which of the following is not considered as a major source of lead exposure in children?
Leaded gasoline engine emissions.
96
(052) The primary purposes of a Lead Toxicity Investigation Team are to identify the source of
hazard evaluation and recommend potential corrective action.
97
(053) What symptom appears when an individual has had prolonged skin contact with
polychlorinated biphenyl?
Chloracne.
98
(053) When medical aid is not immediately available, what first aid should you give to an
individual who has swallowed polychlorinated biphenyl?
Give the victim large amounts of salt water.
99
(054) A transformer that contains polychlorinated biphenyl (PCB) in greater concentrations than
500 parts per million is considered
PCB electrical equipment.
100
(054) If the service equipment to a food storage facility is found to be PCB-filled, how often
thereafter must you inspect this equipment?
Weekly
101
We call anything that has weight and occupies space
matter.
102
(201) Scientists can combine elements in either
compounds or mixtures.
103
(201) According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of
protons, neutrons, and electrons.
104
(202) Which statement best describes a positive ion?
An atom that lost an electron and has more protons.
105
(203) What effect of current causes an electric motor to produce mechanical energy?
Magnetism.
106
(203) Which of these is the smallest current that can be fatal under certain conditions?
One-tenth of 1 amp.
107
(203) Which of these is the smallest current that can be fatal under certain conditions?
Voltage.
108
(204) A thermocouple produces voltage as a result of what type of energy?
Heat.
109
(205) According to Ohm’s law, how much voltage is needed to push 1 ampere of current through 1
ohm of resistance?
1 volt.
110
(205) What normally causes the resistance of a conductor to increase?
Increase in temperature.
111
(206) What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?
Watts.
112
(206) A 3-horsepower motor consumes how much power?
2.238 kW.
113
(207) We call a magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source
an artificial magnet.
114
(208) You can create a polarity and increase the strength of the magnetic lines of force around a
looping the conductor into a coil.
115
(208) What items are required to construct an electromagnet?
A coil of wire, a core material, and current flow.
116
(209) What are the two most common methods of producing voltage?
Chemical and mechanical.
117
(209) What are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic
induction?
Magnetic field, a conductor, and relative motion.
118
(210) What type of current flow is the result of voltages produced by batteries and
thermocouples?
Direct current.
119
(210) What type of current flow cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage?
Direct current.
120
(211) Which formula for finding the resistance of a circuit is correct?
Voltage divided by current.
121
(211) What is the resistance of a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a current flow of
9 amperes?
13.33 ohms.
122
(211) How much current flow is in a circuit that has 24 volts applied and 72-ohms of resistance?
0.33 amperes.
123
(211) What is the current flow in a series circuit with a 20-ohm resistor, a 25-ohm resistor, and a
30-ohm resistor connected to a 25-volt power supply?
0.33 amperes.
124
(212) The total current in a parallel circuit is equal to the
sum of the currents in the individual branches.
125
(212) The joint resistance of a parallel circuit is equal to the applied voltage divided by the
total current.
126
(212) What is the joint resistance of a 5-ohm resistor and a 20-ohm resistor in parallel?
4 ohms.
127
(212) What is the joint resistance of a 4-ohm resistor, a 10-ohm resistor, and a 12-ohm resistor in
parallel?
2.3 ohms.
128
(213) What is the current flow in amperes of a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a
power consumption of 600 watts?
5 amperes.
129
(213) What is the power in watts consumed by a circuit with 120 volts applied and a resistance of
12 ohms?
1200 watts.
130
(213) How many watts of power are present in a 5-ohm unit of resistance through which 2
amperes are flowing?
20 watts.
131
(605) What is the largest AWG (American standard wire gauge) size electrical wire?
4/0.
132
(605) The thousand circular mills (kcmil) size range for conductors is
250 to 2,000.
133
(605) What do the letters THW marked on an electrical conductor indicate?
Heat and moisture resistant thermoplastic.
134
(606) What is the procedure we use to connect boxes together to permit more than one device to be
mounted with a single cover plate?
Ganging.
135
(607) What is the purpose of a raised box cover?
Provides added interior space as well as a cover for the box.
136
(608) Which condition below is not allowed?
Using flexible metal tubing in lengths greater than 6 feet.
137
(609) Which ratings are always found on switches?
Amperes and volts.
138
(609) What is the maximum distance from a floor or a working platform that you can install switch
and circuit breaker handles?
79 inches.
139
(610) What ratings are found on receptacles?
Volts and amperes.
140
(611) Which classification of light directs from 40 to 60 percent of its light upward above the area to
be lighted?
General diffusing.
141
(611) Which classification of light fixture directs all its light so that the entire ceiling and upper side
walls become the light source?
Indirect.
142
(612) Incandescent lamps have efficiencies ranging from
6 to 24 lumens per watt.
143
(612) What is the diameter of a T8 lamp?
8/8 inch.
144
(612) How many electrical contacts do Instant Start lamps require?
Two.
145
(612) What frequency should you expect to find in electronic ballasts used in fluorescent lighting
systems?
25,000 to 40,000 Hz.
146
(613) What is a disadvantage of high intensity discharge lamps?
Restrike time.
147
(613) Which characteristic is associated with a mercury vapor lamp near the end of its useful life?
Reduced light output.
148
(613) The efficiency range of a lamp is measured in lumens per
watt.
149
(613) What color light is associated with sodium lamps?
Golden.
150
(613) What significant hazard is associated with the low-pressure sodium lamp?
Explosive reaction if sodium comes in contact with water.
151
(614) How many conductors are required for a 3-phase-wye service entrance used for power and
lighting?
Three ungrounded and one grounded neutral conductors.
152
(614) Which one of these voltage systems has one phase to neutral voltage that is higher than other
phases to neutral?
4-wire, 3-phase delta.
153
(615) The purpose of a transformer core is to
provide a magnetic path.
154
(615) The transformer loss caused by the demagnetizing and remagnetizing of the core is
hysteresis
155
(616) The insulation value of transformer coils, bushings, and oil determines
the voltage rating of the transformer.
156
(616) To provide 120/240 single-phase voltage to the user, the secondary transformer windings
are connected in series.
157
(617) Only one voltage exists in a delta system, and it is a
3-phase, 3-wire configuration.
158
(617) When you make a delta-delta connection for lights and power, there is one unusable voltage
from
A phase to neutral.
159
(618) One important function of the fuse link enclosure is to
help contain the arc that accompanies a blown fuse.
160
(618) With the enclosed type of fused cutout, you put the fuse into the circuit by
closing the cutout door.
161
(619) What is the minimum clearance for a service drop over a public street?
18 feet.
162
(619) Power operated service disconnects are required to be designed so that they can be opened
manually.
163
(620) Why are service entrance conductors usually larger than the service drop conductors?
Free air permits greater amperage on service drop conductors.
164
(620) Where do you place the weatherhead in reference to the point of attachment of the service drop
conductors?
Higher.
165
(620) Two ways to keep rain from entering service entrance (SE) cable are to use a weatherhead or
a gooseneck.
166
(621) An underground distribution system we refer to as a service
lateral.
167
(621) Underground services installed with cable must be buried to a depth of at least
24 inches
168
(622) In a panel with a neutral, what is the smallest percentage of the overcurrent devices that must be
rated at 30 amperes or less for it to be classed as a lighting and appliance panel?
10 percent
169
(622) Fuse panels are designed for plug fuses, cartridge fuses, or
knife-blade fuses.
170
(623) When installing a panelboard in a damp location, what is the minimum distance you must place
the cabinet from the wall?
1/4 inch.
171
(623) The equipment ground bar and neutral bar are bonded together in a panel only when the
panelboard also serves as the
service entrance equipment.
172
(625) The conductors between the final overcurrent devices and the outlets for connecting electrical
equipment we call
branch circuit conductors.
173
(625) A feeder is made up of the wires
to a sub-panel
174
(626) What is the cycles per second (Hertz) rating for most electrical equipment found in foreign
countries?
50
175
(626) In Europe the most common voltages are
220–380
176
(627) Which part of a set of blueprints indicates the route of the service entrance?
Plot plan.
177
(628) Which electrical diagram does not show the relative position of the parts of the system?
Schematic diagram
178
(629) Floor plans of a blueprint do not show
wiring connections
179
(629) The normal color code for wiring a device is
c. black to gold terminal, white to silver.
180
(630) What is the general lighting load of an office building with 1,600 square feet of living area?
5,600 Watts.
181
(630) What factor considers that not all lights and receptacles are to be used at the same time?
Demand factor.
182
(631) What is the total wattage of 9 ballasts rated at 1.5 amps each and fed by 277 volts?
3,739 Watts.
183
(631) Heavy-duty lamp-holder outlets are calculated at
600 volt-amperes.
184
(631) What is the required wattage for lighting of an industrial commercial (loft) building measuring
60 by 100 feet?
12,000 Watts.
185
(632) The code letter on a motor data plate identifies
the locked-rotor current draw of the motor.
186
(632) Ampere capacity of branch-circuit conductors feeding a continuous duty rated motor must be
not less than
125 percent of the motor’s FLC
187
(633) To determine the total calculated load of a sub-panel, add all the amperages of the branch
circuits plus what percent of the amperage of the largest motor?
25 percent.
188
(634) How many current carrying conductors can be installed in raceway before the current capacity
of the conductors must be derated?
3.
189
(635) Refer to figure 5–1. What is the volume of space needed in cubic inches for No. 12 conductor?
2.25 cubic inches.
190
(636) A quick, easy method of mounting boxes to metal studs is to use
spring metal clips.
191
(636) What is the most popular height for receptacle outlet boxes in the living areas of a house from
the floorline to the center of the box?
12 inches.
192
(637) Nonmetallic cable with aluminum conductors ranges in size from
No. 12 to No. 2 AWG.
193
(637) Nonmetallic corrosion resistant cable, but not nonmetallic sheathed cable, more commonly
called nonmetallic cable, can be used
in corrosive locations.
194
(638) Nonmetallic corrosion resistant cable No. 8 AWG, or larger, may be held in place by EMT
(electrical metallic tubing) straps
on smooth walls where the cable is exposed.
195
(639) One layer of plastic tape can insulate against a voltage of
600 volts.
196
(640) In addition to the splices required, you must make grounding connections to the boxes used in a
circuit to ensure that they are
grounded
197
(641) The maximum weight of a fixture that can be supported by an outlet box is
50 pounds.
198
(642) What is the taper per foot requirement for a standard conduit-cutting die used on rigid metal
3/4 inch.
199
(643) Two adjacent 90º bends in the same piece of conduit make up a
back-to-back bend
200
(644) When a number of conduit runs are to be installed parallel and adjacent to each other, install the
conduit all at the same time.
201
(645) Which tool makes a good handle for pulling a fish tape?
Side cutting pliers
202
(645) The number of conductors you can put in conduit is based on the
size of conduit, conductor size, and conductor insulation.
203
(646) Which material do you use for a circuit extension when appearance is an important factor?
Surface raceway.
204
(647) Heat created by loose connections cause
an increase in amperage.
205
(648) Grounds or short circuits can be
solid, partial, and floating.
206
(649) The basic factor to consider in choosing continuity testing equipment is to use
low-voltage instruments to reduce the danger of sparking.
207
(650) When you are checking a 3-phase panel with a voltmeter which phase indicates a “blown” fuse
to you? Use these readings: A-B 120 volts, C-B 120 volts, A-C 208 Volts.
B
208
(651) A short circuit exists when there is a connection between two wires or conductors
of different potential.
