Set II Review Questions

Question 1

steps of formation of scar

Answer 1

clot forms
migrating epithelial cells form a new surface layer
granulation tissue forms
tissue remodeling forms scar tissue

Question 2

what cells does a biopsy allow examination of?

Answer 2

captures cells from all three layers of epithelium: superficial, intermediate and basal layers

Question 3

what cells does an exfoliative cytology allow the examination of

Answer 3

surface (or superficial) cells of epithelium are captured

Question 4

advantage of exfoliative cytology

Answer 4

least invasive

Question 5

sealant considered to follow under what aspect of dental hygiene

Answer 5

primary prevention

Question 6

attached gingiva firmly bound to underlying

Answer 6

cementum and alveolar bone

Question 7

base of sulcus composed of

Answer 7

non-keratinized epithelial tissue

Question 8

aspects about JE

Answer 8

cufflike band of stratified squamous epithelium
continuous with sulcular epithelium and completely encircles tooth
triangular in cross section
widest at junction with sulcular epithelium and narrows down to width of a few cells at apical end
non keratinized
2 basement membranes: 1 adjacent to connected tissue, other to tooth surface

Question 9

characteristics of chronic inflamed gingiva

color

Answer 9

color may be dark red, bluish red, magenta, or deep blue

Question 10

characteristics of chronic inflamed gingiva

surface texture

Answer 10

may be loss of stippling, with smooth, shiny surface

Question 11

characteristics of chronic inflamed gingiva

consistency

Answer 11

tissue may be hard and fibrotic with normal pink color and normal or deep stippling

Question 12

bacterial plaque in a recently cleaned mouth will contain what type of microorganism

Answer 12

few cocci

Question 13

types of mirrors

Answer 13

plane (flat): may produce double image
concave: magnifying
front surface: eliminates “ghost” image

Question 14

advantages of good operator and pt positioning

Answer 14

enables clinician to function effectively and efficiently

minimizes stress and fatigue on clinician

Question 15

how will a well positioned pt. be

Answer 15

supine position w/ head at same level to heart

Question 16

boundaries of temporal fossa

Answer 16

superior: inferior temporal line
anterior: frontal process of zygomatic bone
medial: surface of temporal bone
lateral: zygomatic arch
inferior: infratemporal cres of sphenoid bone
posterior: inferior temporal line

Question 17

boundaries of infratemporal fossa

Answer 17

superior: greater wing of sphenoid bone
anterior: maxillary tuberosity
medial: lateral pterygoid plate of sphenoid bone
lateral: mandibular ramus and zygomatic arch

Question 18

boundaries of pterygopalatine fosa

Answer 18

superior: interior surface of body of sphenoid bone
anterior: maxillary tuberosity of maxilla
medial: vertical plate of palatine bone pierced by sphenopalatine foramen
lateral: pterygomaxillary fissure
inferior: pterygopalatine canal
posterior: pterygoid process of sphenoid bone

Question 19

pt position for max arch

Answer 19

supine position

chin up

Question 20

pt position for mand arch

Answer 20

semi-supine position

chin down

Question 21

aspects of shank and blade good for periodontal pockets and root planing

Answer 21

angled shank
extended terminal shank
rounded back
rounded toe

Question 22

balanced instrument

Answer 22

working end centered in line with long axis of handle

Question 23

purposes of mirror

Answer 23

indirect vision
indirect illumination
transillumination
retraction

Question 24

rhythmical formation of enamel

Answer 24

apposition

Question 25

muscles of mastication innervated by

Answer 25

V3

Question 26

supplies needed in a darkroom

Answer 26

thermometer and clock

Question 27

cross section of explorer

Answer 27

circular

Question 28

cross section of sickle

Answer 28

triangular

Question 29

cross section of universal curet

Answer 29

half circle

Question 30

cross section of area specific curet

Answer 30

half circle

Question 31

primary instrument for assessment of periodontal status

Answer 31

probe

Question 32

process of care

Answer 32

``` assess diagnose plan implement evaluate document ```

Question 33

instrument to determine furcation involvement

Answer 33

furcation probe such as nabers | 1N or 2N

Question 34

instrument for calculus removal of mand ant teeth from contact and interproximal

Answer 34

gracey 1/2

Question 35

gracey 1/2

Answer 35

ant teeth all surfaces

Question 36

gracey 3/4

Answer 36

ant teeth all surfaces

Question 37

gracey 5/6

Answer 37

ant teeth all surfaces premolar all surfaces molar facial and lingual surfaces

Question 38

gracey 7/8

Answer 38

ant teeth all surfaces

Question 39

gracey 9/10

Answer 39

premolar all surfaces | post teeth facial and lingual

Question 40

gracey 11/12

Answer 40

ant teeth mesial and distal post teeth mesial post teeth facial lingual mesial

Question 41

gracey 13/14

Answer 41

ant teeth mesial distal | post teeth distal

Question 42

gracey 15/16

Answer 42

post teeth facial lingual mesial

Question 43

gracey 17/18

Answer 43

post teeth distal

Question 44

prophylactic antibiotic regimen for pt not allergic to penicillin

Answer 44

adult: amoxicillin 2 g orally 30min-1hr b/f procedure child: amoxicillin 50mg/kg orally 30min-1hr b/f procedure

Question 45

prophylactic regimen for pt. allergic to penicillin adult

Answer 45

cephalexin 2g | clindamycin 600 mg

Question 46

prophylactic regimen for pt allergic to penicillin child

Answer 46

cephalexin 500 mg/kg | clindamycin 20mg/kg

Question 47

pt needs premed and not premed runs risk of developing

Answer 47

transient bacteremia which can cause infective endocarditis

Question 48

normal BP

Answer 48

<80

Question 49

prehypertensive

Answer 49

120-139/80-89

Question 50

moderate hypertensive

Answer 50

140-159/90-99

Question 51

severe hypertension

Answer 51

>160/>100

Question 52

palpation for lip exam

Answer 52

bidigital

Question 53

mature virus particle called

Answer 53

virion

Question 54

particles created during treatment and extended

Answer 54

bacteremia

Question 55

biological contaminants that occur in solid or liquid form, invisible, may remain suspended in air for long period of time

Answer 55

aerosols

Question 56

sterilization achieved using gluteraldahyde

Answer 56

immersion

Question 57

disadvantages of autoclave

Answer 57

corrode carbon steel instruments | unsuitable for oils or powders

Question 58

sterilization

Answer 58

process by which all forms of life, including bacterial spores are destroyed by physical or chemical means

Question 59

most common method of sterilization

Answer 59

steam under pressure (autoclave)

Question 60

dry heat sterilization not suitable for

Answer 60

sharp instruments

Question 61

chemical sterilization best suited for

Answer 61

carbon steel instruments

Question 62

cold sterilization best suited

Answer 62

items that cannot be sterilized by heat

Question 63

moving instruments from ultrasonic to sink for rinse what type of gloves

Answer 63

heavy puncture-resistant

Question 64

waterlines flushed how long at beginning of day and inbtwn pts

Answer 64

2 min | 20-30 seconds

Question 65

moist heat sterilization gravity displacement

Answer 65

15-30 min, 15psi, 250F(121C)

Question 66

most heat sterilization prevacuum (statium)

Answer 66

3.5-10min, 270F (132C)

Question 67

sterilization method takes longest

Answer 67

ethylene oxide

Question 68

indicator for steam autoclave

Answer 68

geobacillus stearothermophilus vials, ampoules or strips

Question 69

indicator for dry heat oven

Answer 69

bacillus atrophaeus strips

Question 70

indicator for chemical vapor

Answer 70

geobacillus/stearothermophilus strips

Question 71

indicator for ethylene oxide

Answer 71

bacillus atrophaeus

Question 72

the most unstrained, retruded physiologic relation of the mandible to the maxilla from which lateral movements can be made

Answer 72

centric relation occlusion