short Flashcards

1
Q

objective of a review

A

material modifications should be made to conform with the applicable financial reporting framework

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

communicate material weaknesses in internal control to both company management and those charged with governance, where ?

A

done in separate communication , and is not included as emphasis of matter to an unmodified opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the higher the risk of material misstatement, ……inherent risk and substantive test?

A

The higher the risk of material misstatement, the lower the detection risk must be, and the more substantive procedures the auditor must perform in order to lower the overall audit risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

performance materiality , wut auditor do ?

A

materiality in planning differ materiality used in evaluating the audit

do not exceed financial statement materiality

should project the detected error to the entire population .
the auditor should reconsider the related levels of performance materiality and appropriateness of the nature, timing, and extent of further audit procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

test for the presence of unauthorized EDP program changes by running

A

source code comparison program (compare the coding of program from its last run to the original program)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

obtaining an understanding of an issuer’s information and communication component of internal control

A
significant class of transaction
manual & automated procedures
accounting records
financial reporting process
controls for journal entries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

auditor objective when engaged to report RSI is ?

A

evaluate the presentation of RSI relate to FS as a whole
,,report on whether RSI is fairly stated in material respect as a whole
auditor should only apply limited procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how to identify unrecorded trade account payable?

A

Reviewing cash disbursements recorded subsequent to the balance sheet date to determine whether the related payables apply to the prior period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when independence does not apply ?

A

compilation of personal or financial forecast

preparation of tax return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A lawyer’s response to an auditor’s inquiry concerning litigation, claims, and assessments may be limited to matters that are considered individually or collectively material to the client’s financial statements,
which parties should reach on understanding ?

A

lawyer and auditor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what specific information must be on management representation letter ?

A

information concerning to fraud by CFO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

wut u put on negative confirmation to encourage a timely response?

A

“If you do not report any differences within 15 days, it will be assumed that this statement is correct.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

cause an auditor to question the integrity of management?

A

audit test detect the fraud that was known to management but not disclosed to the auditor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

wut risk pop up when you apply substantive test in interim date?

A

a risk that misstatements may exist at the balance sheet date that may not be detected by the auditor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how to reduce the risk associated with interim testing?

A

cover the remaining period by performing:

(a) substantive procedures, combined with tests of controls for the intervening period,
(b) if the auditor determines that it is sufficient, further substantive procedures only, that provide a reasonable basis for extending the audit conclusions from the interim date to the period-end.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

interim testing might not be the best choice when

A

in a period of rapidly changing economic conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The primary objective of analytical procedures used in the overall review stage of an audit is to:

A

assist the auditor in assessing the validity of the conclusions reached.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An auditor discovers that an account balance believed not to be materially misstated based on an audit sample was materially misstated based on the total population of the account balance. This is an example of which of the following sampling types of risks?

A

Incorrect acceptance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

expression of consistency in audit report?

A

The auditor’s standard report does not include an expression related to the consistent application of an applicable financial reporting framework if (a) no change in accounting principles has occurred, or (b) there has been a change in accounting principles or the method of their application, but the effect of the change is not material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A CPA firm would be reasonably assured of meeting its responsibility to provide services that conform with professional standards by:

A

by having a system of quality control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following events occurring after the issuance of the auditor’s report most likely would cause the auditor to make further inquiries about the previously issued financial statements?

A

facts that have existed on balance sheet date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following events occurring after the issuance of the auditor’s report most likely would cause the auditor to make further inquiries about the previously issued financial statements?

A

withdraw and provide no further service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

an auditor most likely use in determining the auditor’s preliminary judgment about materiality?

A

the entity anualize interim financial statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Due to a scope limitation, an auditor disclaimed an opinion on the financial statements taken as a whole, but the auditor’s report included a statement that the current asset portion of the entity’s balance sheet was fairly stated. The inclusion of this statement is:

A

It is not appropriate to provide an opinion that current assets are fairly stated and disclaim an opinion on the financial statements taken as a whole due to a scope limitation because it may tend to overshadow the auditor’s disclaimer of opinion. This practice is referred to as making a “piecemeal opinion” and is prohibited per AU-C 705.15. An auditor may express an opinion on only one basic financial statement, such as the balance sheet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

when auditing related party transactions, an auditor places primary emphasis on:

A

evaluating the disclosure of the related party transactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

“Although we have not conducted a comprehensive, detailed search of our records, no other deposit or loan accounts have come to our attention except as noted below.

A

standard financial institution confirmation request

would contain a statement addressed to the auditor concerning the results of a search for the existence of deposit or loan accounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

when adverse opinion is issued ?

A

that misstatements are material and pervasive to the financial statements.
; auditor must include the reason for the adverse opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

sarbanes oxley act prohibit what ?

A

prohibit from providing internal audit outsourcing service during an audit,
prohibit actuarial service related to the audit contemporaneously with the audit
prohibit advice on system design during an audit

tax services are allowed but must be preapproved by audit committee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

in a comfort letter, the accountant provide negative assurance about what

A

the comfort letter provide “negative assurance” to the underwriter that “nothing come to our attention that would indicate the information does not meet the specified standard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

in a review of financial statement, negative assurance on what?

A

on whether “any material modifications should be made to the unaudited interim financial information for it to be in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework” and whether “the unaudited interim financial information complies as to form in all material respects with the applicable accounting requirements of the [Securities Act of 1933] and the related rules and regulations adopted by the SEC.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Under PCAOB Auditing Standard 1215, the auditor should complete the final set of audit documentation within how many days following the report release date?

A

45 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

when determining a sample size for test of control, the auditor should consider ?

A

tolerable rate
the likely rate of deviation
, allowable risk of assessing control risk too low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

bill of landing come from?

A

bill of lading are generated by the carrier for goods being shipped to the entity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what in a management representation letter?

A

the entity has complied with contractual agreement

; management has made available all financial record and related data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Normally, the only time a CPA can disclose confidential information is with the client’s consent. The exceptions to client’s consent are:

A

a peer review by state CPA society

; a subpoena or court summon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is allowance for sampling risk ?

A

an allowance for sampling risak is the difference between the upper precision limit and the sample deviation rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the objective of the analytical procedure in the overall review stage of an audit ?

A

to assist auditor in assessing the conclusion reach and the overall financial statemetn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what treasurer department should not do ?

A

The treasurer’s department should not approve vendor’s invoices for payment as it would put the treasurer’s department in control of both authorization and information processing. This would not be a proper segregation of duties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what items that the client’s lawyer can respond to the auditor’s letter of inquiry ?

A

The client’s lawyer is only asked to respond by providing information about pending or threatened litigation, claims and assessments (or unasserted claims that are probable of assertion and that would have a reasonable possibility of a negative outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is test data approach ?

A

The test data approach (sometimes called the test deck approach) is a way to audit “through the computer.” Test data is introduced into the client’s computer system using the same program to operate the application being tested. The output is compared to the auditor’s predetermined results. The test data approach does not involve a separate program.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

An integrated test facility

A

An integrated test facility introduces a fictitious entity (such as a dummy subsidiary) with real entries in the master files of the client’s computer system. The auditor then compares the processing of data through the fictitious entity with what should be there in order to test that the data processing is reliable. Like the test data (or test deck) approach, an integrated test facility uses the client’s system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what to consider in the planning and performance of an audit?

A

the audit risk, materiality, and statisticala sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are the elements of a CPA firm quality control system ?

A
leadership responsibilities
ethical 
continuance of client relationship
human resources
engagement performance and monitoring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what does the “introductory paragraph” include ?

A

identify the entity
; state that FS have been audited
;identify the title of FS
;date or period covered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Before applying substantive tests to the details of asset accounts at an interim date, an auditor should assess:

A

assess the difficulty in controlling the incremental audit risk (i.e., extending the audit conclusion over the remaining period from the interim date to the balance sheet date).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

when a disclaimer of opinion can be issued ?

A

scope limitation that prevent auditor to form an opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

when a unmodified opinion can be issued ?

A

clean opinion, present fairly in all material respect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

when a qualified opinion can be issued?

A

has an “except for” paragraph that highlight any material scope limitation or departure from GAAP. These are material but not sufficient enough material to require a disclaimer or adverse opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

risk of accessing control risk too low

A

auditor over reliance on control.
; auditor fails to perform additional work ;
varies inversely with sample size (sample size go up, risk of assessing control risk too low decrease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what management should do when it has negative trend and financial difficulty ?

A

dispose asset
borrow money or restructure debt
reduce or delay expenditure
; increase ownership equity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

when an auditor qualifies the opinion because of scope limitation, the opinion paragraph should focus on wut?

A

the opinion paragraph should focus on the possible effect on the FS and NOT the scope limitation itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what happen when the auditor change an audit or review to a review or compilation , what happen to the new engagement ?

A

not make any reference to the original engagement;

not why the engagement changed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is comfort letter and who sign it ?

A

A comfort letter is a letter issued to underwriters concerning the financial information contained in registration statements filed with the SEC in connection with the issuance of securities.

A comfort letter is sent (and signed) by the independent auditor to the underwriter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

is confirmation the most efficient method available?

A

no, the confirmation is not the most efficient method available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

wut is the relationship between material misstatement and detection risk?

A

high risk of material misstatement = lower detection risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

how to lower detection risk?

A

increase substantive testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

wut the main auditor do when they decide to make reference to another CPA who audited a sub of the entity?

A

main auditor not require to review the working paper and audit program of other CPA.

All you need to do is inquiry about professional reputation and independence of other auditor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Members employed by others to prepare financial statements or to perform auditing, tax, or consulting services are charged with the same responsibility for ————— as members in public practice.

A

objectivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

when a negative confirmation can be used ?

A

when inherent and control risk is low

when there are large number of small balances involved and auditor expect a small number of error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When an auditor plans to rely on controls that have changed since they were last tested, wut they gonna do ?

A

test the operating effectiveness of such control in the current audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

which auditing procedure would assist auditor to identify related party transaction ?

A

use the guarantee

Review confirmations of compensating balance arrangements for indications that balances are or were maintained for or by related parties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

how should a practitioner present the result of applying agreed upon procedure ?

A

to specified subject matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

during a review, why accountant perform analytical procedure ?

A

to provide limited assurance on the reviewed financial statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

An entity prepares its financial statements on its income tax basis. A description of how that basis differs from GAAP should be included in the:

A

in the note of financial statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is dual dating?

A

auditor can date the report to the later date. auditor is only limited to a specific event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what does section 404 include ?

A

annual report filed with SEC contain an internal control report;
also contain assessment of effectiveness of internal control structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what does section 402 include ?

A

unlawful for issuer to have a personal loan to the director or officer of that issuer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what does section 403 include?

A

disclosure from a person who is directly or indirectly a beneficial owner of more than 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what does section 406 include?

A

disclosure of whether or not the issuer had adopted a code of ethics for senior financial officers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

to understand “information and communication component of internal control”, what auditor do?

A
significant class of transactions
manual and automated procedure
accounting record
financial reporting process
control surrounding journal entries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

An accountant who accepts an engagement to compile a financial projection most likely would make the client aware that the:

A

no opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

wut omit all hypothetical assumption and presents the most likely future financial position?

A

a financial forecast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

the engagement letter of compilation include ?

A

the objective
no opinion or assurance
Acknowledgment of management’s representation
agreement that the financial statements are not to be used by third parties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what does analytical procedure include ?

A

comparable information for prior period
relationship among element of financial information
budgets or forecast
ratios, stats, trends, projecting error rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what the effect of ineffective general control ?

A

ineffective general control do not cause misstatement, but it allow misstatement to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

when is better to use substantive analytical procedure?

A

substantive analytical procedure is better for large volume of transactions that are predictable over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

when is better to use test of details

A

test of details are used to obtain audit evidence about account balance, including existence and valuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

who enforce compliance and levies civil monetary penalties?

A

PCAOB enforce compliance and levies civil monetary penalties while the SEC oversee the PCAOB operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

An audit client failed to maintain copies of its procedures manuals and organizational flowcharts. What should the auditor do in an audit of financial statements?

A

Procedures manuals and organizational flowcharts would be only two out of many possible sources of information about the entity and its environment used to assess the risk of material misstatement. The lack of one specific source to obtain the understanding would not constitute a scope limitation, nor would the auditor be limited to assessing control risk at the maximum level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

when can the auditor perform substantive test of control in the interim date ?

A

when the controls are strong, assessed risk of material misstatement is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what does section 404 do ?

A

require that the audit report report on the internal control assessment made by the management. this internal control assessment will not be the subject of any other separate engagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

the use of ratio estimation sampling technique is most effective when ?

A

when the calculated audit amounts are approximately proportional to the client’s book amounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

If a registered public accounting firm is in violation of any rule or regulation of the SEC or PCAOB:

A

they may not prepare or issue any audit report with respect to that issuer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which of the following types of engagements is not permitted under the professional standards for reporting on an entity’s compliance?

A

practitioner should not perform a review of an entity’s compliance with requirements of specified laws, regulations, rules, contracts, or grants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what is the differences between a deficiency, a significant deficiency and a material weakness ?

A

A deficiency exists when the design or operation of one or more of the internal control components does not allow management or employees, in the normal course of performing their assigned functions, to prevent, or detect and correct, misstatements on a timely basis.

A significant deficiency is a deficiency in internal control that is less severe than a material weakness, yet important enough to merit attention by those charged with governance.

A material weakness is a deficiency, or a combination of deficiencies, such that there is a reasonable possibility that a material misstatement of the entity’s financial statements will not be prevented, or detected and corrected on a timely basis. All material weaknesses are significant deficiencies; they merit attention by those charged with governance due to their severity and their potential effect on the financial statements.

An auditor is required to report material weaknesses and significant deficiencies to those charged with governance. “Although the auditor is required…to make the communications…no later than 60 days following the report release date, the communication is best made by the report release date because receipt of such communication may be an important factor in enabling those charged with governance to discharge their oversight responsibilities” (AU-C 265.A16).

The two types of deficiencies do not have to be reported separately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what can auditor do to identify possible litigation, claims and assessments (LCA)?

A

discuss with management about the policies and procedures

reading the file of correspondence from taxing authorities. In this file, the auditor may discover delinquent tax notices and substantial unpaid interest and penalties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

procedure to conduct a review are usually limited to what ?

A

limited to performing analytical procedures
; making inquiries of company personnel and management, and other procedures that address significant accounting and disclosure matters relating to the financial statements to be reported

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The objective of a review of interim financial information of an issuer is to provide an accountant with a basis for reporting whether:

A

basis for reporting whether material modifications should be made to the interim information to comply with the applicable financial reporting framework.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what to do when you notice there is an unjustified accounting change and a material weakness ?

A

Auditors are required to communicate material weaknesses in internal control to both company management and those charged with governance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

According to the PCAOB, which of the following tax services may be provided jointly with the audit of an issuer’s financial statements without impairing independence?

A

reviewing a proposed transaction and informing the client of the tax consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

when an accountant is engaged to compile financial statement that omit all disclosure with no reference to basis but are otherwise in conformity with special purpose framework , WHAT THE 1ST PARAGRAPH SAY?

A

the first paragraph of the accountant’s compilation report should include a sentence that states, “The financial statements have been prepared on the [describe appropriate basis of accounting], which is a comprehensive basis of accounting other than generally accepted accounting principles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

when an auditor is requested to change from an audit to a compilation, what should auditor do ?

A

should consider additional audit effort
reason management for change
cost to complete the audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what do auditors do in the planning stage of an audit ?

A

make a preliminary judgement about materiality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what do auditors do in the fieldwork stage of an audit?

A

during the fieldwork stage of an audit, the auditor would confirm a sample of the entity account payable with known creditors;
obtain written representation from management that there are no unrecorded transactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what does auditor do in the reporting stage of the audit ?

A

communicate management ‘s initial selection of accounting policies to the audit committee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

does accountant need to limit the distribution of the report when doing the review ?

A

The accountant would not need to limit the distribution of the accountant’s report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

In auditing an entity’s computerized payroll transactions, an auditor would be least likely to use test data to test controls concerning:

A

When using test data, the auditor is looking for controls that are built into the system, not controls that operate outside of the computer. Thus, the auditor would not be testing controls concerning control over and distribution of unclaimed paychecks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

“Real Time Issuer Disclosures,” dictates dictate what ?

A

issuers disclose to the public on a rapid and current basis any additional information concerning material changes in the financial condition or operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

when the auditor is unable to obtain an investee’s audited financial statement,

or a statement of cash flows is not presented (departure from an applicable financial reporting framewor

what opinion is this?

A

a qualified opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

how an auditor test of controls over the issuance of raw material to production ?

A

examining material requisitions and then re-performing client controls designed to process and record issuance is the best method to test controls , because material requisition are received by the store department for the purpose of issuing such material to production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what is an audit trail ? does it related to analytical purpose ?

A

An audit trail in a computer system, as in a manual system, assists in discovering fraud and therefore acts as a deterrent to perpetration of such acts

Analytical purposes are not a major factor for maintaining an audit trail in a computer system. Analytical review can be performed by retrieving recorded data stored in the computer system or on hard copy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what is check digit verification ?

A

single digit at the end of an identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Under PCAOB Auditing Standard 1215, audit documentation should be retained no fewer than how many years following the report release date?

A

7 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what are the seven type of circumstance that could lead to threat of independence from GAO ? Government accoutability office

A
Self-interest
Self-review
Bias
Familiarity
Undue influence
Management participation
Structural threats
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

the written report under Government Auditing standard should include what ?

A

should include weaknesses in internal control ;
significant deficiencies; any indication of fraud, abuse, or noncompliance with laws and regulations; and significant violations of contracts or grant agreements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what consider consulting service ?

A

Advisory services, implementation services

subject to the Statements of Standards for Consulting Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

When there are numerous property and equipment transactions during the year, an auditor who plans to assess control risk at a low level usually performs

A

the lower the assessed level of control risk, the fewer substantive test

Therefore, an auditor who plans to assess control risk at a low level usually performs tests of controls and only limited tests of details or substantive tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

The written communication regarding significant deficiencies and material weaknesses identified during the audit of financial statements should include what statement ?

A

to express an opinion on the financial statements, but not to express an opinion on the effectiveness of the entity’s internal control over financial reporting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

the accountant would be required to perform analytical procedure designed to identify relationships that appear to be unusual in where ?

A

The accountant would be required to perform analytical procedures designed to identify relationships that appear to be unusual in a review engagement, but not in a compilation engagement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

how to classify “measurement and review of the entity financial performance ?

A

Measurements and review of the entity’s financial performance would be classified as control activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

in evaluating control environment, auditor should ?

A

communication of integrity and ethical value
competence
participation of those charged with governance
management philosophy and style
organizaiton struction
assingment of authority and responsibiity
human resource policies and practices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what is record count ?

A

A record count is a total of the number of input documents to a process or the number of records processed in a run.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what auditor is not required to communicate with the audit committee ?

A

the degree of reliance the auditor placed on the management representation letter.

However, if an audit committee exists separate from management, the auditor should communicate the representations requested from management. The auditor may provide the audit committee a copy of the management representation letter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what is the purpose of segregation of duties ?

A

performed in order to determine control risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

judging the reasonableness of accounting estimate is what ?

A

Judging the reasonableness of accounting estimates would be a substantive procedure used to audit the assertion of valuation and allocation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

what is CPA responsibility when undertaking a consulting service engagement ?

A

inform the client of significant reservations concerning the benefits of the engagement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

When an accountant issues to an underwriter a comfort letter containing comments on data that have not been audited, the underwriter most likely will receive:

A

negative assurance on capsule information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

what is the primary focus of an auditor in the examination of liability ?

A

to verify that all of the entity’s liabilities have been recorded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

auditor’s engagement letter include what ? and doesnt include what?

A

include: objective of the engagement, management responsibility, auditor responsibilities, limitation of the engagement , limit the auditor responsibility to detect fraud

does not include: significant deficiencies, audit procedure, substantial doubt about entity to continue as a going concern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

what factors related to control activities impact an auditor’s consideration of the effect of IT on internal control:

A

information processing, segregation of duties, physical control .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

In a probability-proportional-to-size sample with a sampling interval of $10,000, an auditor discovered that a selected account receivable with a recorded amount of $5,000 had an audited amount of $4,000. If this were the only misstatement discovered by the auditor, the projected misstatement of this sample would be:

A

In this question, one-half of the sample ($5,000 out of $10,000) has been audited. The misstatement is for $1,000 ($5,000 − $4,000). Projecting the same error rate for the unaudited half of the sample, the projected misstatement is for $2,000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

When the shipping department returns nonconforming goods to a vendor, the purchasing department should send to the accounting department the:

A

The debit memo is usually a notification from a buyer to a seller that tells the seller that a debit was made in the seller’s account on the buyer’s book. In other words, a debit memo is a way for a buyer to inform a seller that it wants a refund on its purchase. In the instance when nonconforming goods are returned to a vendor, the purchasing department should prepare a debit memo to be sent to seller with a copy sent to accounting in order for accounting to remove the resulting payable from the accounting records.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

how often PCAOB inspect the firms? (with more than 100 issuers , with less than 100 issuers?

A

Firms that audit more than 100 issuers are inspected annually. Firms that audit 100 or fewer issuers are inspected every three years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

To determine whether internal control relative to the revenue cycle of a wholesaling entity is operating effectively in minimizing the failure to prepare sales invoices, an auditor most likely would select a sample of transactions from the population represented by the:

A

shipping document file

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

what is factual misstatement?

and judgemental misstatement?

A

A factual misstatement would include the misstatements the auditor is able to identify within an audit.

A difference in management’s and the auditor’s position would be a judgmental misstatemen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

if an accountant who is engaged to review financial statement become aware of a departure from the applicable financial reporting framework, the accountant should… ?

A

should disclose the departure in a separate paragraph of the review report

The accountant is not required to determine the effects of a departure if management has not done so, provided that the accountant states in the report that such determination has not been made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what is the purpose of when auditor do the walkthrough?

A

the nature of the walkthrough is meant to help the auditor to understand the full process, and determine the effectiveness of controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Which of the following questions would an auditor most likely include on an internal control questionnaire for notes payable?

A

are direct borrowings on note payable authorized by board of director?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

what is the objective of internal control for production cycle?

A

Since the production cycle handles raw products and materials, it is important to maintain proper custody of the assets, as assets can easily be misappropriated during this cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

as the number of allowable deviations increase, the sample size… ?

A

sample size decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Identifying entries posted to incorrect accounts use what type of sampling?

A

attribute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Which of the following should an auditor do when control risk is assessed at the maximum level?

A

document the assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Other procedures which aid in understanding the client’s business in planning the audit include?

A

review prior year working paper

review permanent file

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

how to find the projected error?

A

the book value is $10,000. The sampling interval is $5,000, so the actual error of $2,000 ($10,000 - $8,000) specifies that the projected error is also $2,000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

A nonissuer engaged a practitioner to perform agreed-upon procedures on specified matters. The date of the practitioner’s report would ordinarily be determined by the occurrence of which of the following events?

A

the completion of the agreed upon procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

so auditor engage in a review, discovered that the company is noncompliance with law and regulation, wut to do ?

A

The accountant is not required to search for fraud or noncompliance with laws and regulations during a compilation or a review. However, these acts may come to the attention of the accountant while performing procedures for the engagement. If noncompliance is discovered, it should be brought to the attention of the appropriate level of management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

In obtaining written representations from management, materiality limits ordinarily would apply to representations related to:

A

amounts concerning related party transaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

To obtain evidence that online access controls are properly functioning, an auditor most likely would:

A

enter invalid identification numbers or passwords to ascertain whether the system rejects them, thereby denying access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

who is not regulator?

A

IRS is not regulator

140
Q

when is a compilation report required?

A

A compilation report is only required whenever the accountant is engaged to subject the financial statements to compilation procedures.

141
Q

The auditor’s report is required to contain an expression of opinion regarding the financial statements taken as a whole or an assertion to the effect that an opinion cannot be expressed (with reasons why it cannot be expressed).

why ?

A

to prevent misunderstanding the degree of responsibility the auditor is assuming when the auditor’s name is associated with financial statements

142
Q

Reporting standards for financial audits under Government Auditing Standards (the “Yellow Book”) differ from reporting under generally accepted auditing standards in that Government Auditing Standards require the auditor to:

A

present the results of the tests of controls in the form of an opinion on the operating effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting.

143
Q

With respect to Auditing Standards and Ethics and Independence Rules, the PCAOB:

A

adopted its own rules regarding auditing standards, ethics, and independence.

144
Q

what is the advantage of statistical sampling over nonstatistical sampling ?

A

able to measure the sufficiency of the audit evidence obtained

145
Q

In determining the effectiveness of an entity’s policies and procedures relating to the existence assertion for payroll transactions, an auditor most likely would inquire about and:

A

an auditor most likely would inquire about and observe the segregation of duties concerning personnel responsibilities and payroll disbursement.

146
Q

General Retailing, a nonissuer, has asked Ford, CPA, to compile its financial statements that omit substantially all disclosures required by GAAP. Ford may comply with General’s request provided the omission is clearly indicated in Ford’s report and the:

A

if the omission is not undertaken with the intention of misleading

must include statement that management has elected to omit substantially all disclosures (might influence user) and not designed for those who are not informed

147
Q

fraudulent financial reporting is committed by who ?

A

management

148
Q

testing that all inventory on hand is reflected in the ending inventory is wut assertion ?

A

is an example of the completeness assertion

149
Q

After assessing control risk below the maximum level, an auditor desires to seek a further reduction in the assessed level of control risk. At this time, the auditor would consider whether:

A

whether it is likely that additional audit evidence could be obtained to support a lower assessed level of control risk for these assertions.

150
Q

what a compilation include ?

A

an engagement letter
a copy of FS
a copy of accountant’s report

151
Q

government auditting standard require what ?

A

include any findings of noncompliance with laws and regulations as well as a report on the study and evaluation of internal controls

152
Q

what auditor do when performing a search for unrecorded retirement of fixed assets ?

A

first review those client’s records that indicated the existence of fixed assets (property ledger, insurance and tax records)

would attempt to verify their existence by physical observation

153
Q

substantive test of payroll should be extended when ?

A

when overpayments are discovered in performing tests of detail

154
Q

When assessing internal auditors’ objectivity, an independent auditor should:

A

consider the policies that prohibit the internal auditors from auditing areas where they were recently assigned.

155
Q

Which of the following audit procedures is best for identifying unrecorded trade accounts payable?

A

review subsequent cash disbursements to determine whether the related payables apply to the prior period.

156
Q

Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform to test controls relating to management’s assertion about the completeness of cash receipts for cash sales at a retail outlet?

A

Observe the consistency of the employees’ use of cash registers and tapes.

157
Q

After considering management’s plans, an auditor concludes that there is substantial doubt about a client’s ability to continue as a going concern for a reasonable period of time. The auditor’s responsibility includes:

A

considering the adequacy of disclosure about the client’s possible inability to continue as a going concern.

158
Q

When a company’s stock record books are maintained by an outside registrar or transfer agent, the auditor should obtain confirmation from the registrar or transfer agent concerning the:

A

number of shares issued and outstanding.

159
Q

Which of the following parties should an auditor notify first when discovering an immaterial fraud is committed by an accounting clerk?

A

appropriate level of management

160
Q

When auditing an entity’s financial statements in accordance with Government Auditing Standards, an auditor should prepare a written report on the auditor’s:

A

consideration of internal control

161
Q

the auditor is not required to determine what ?

A

The auditor is not required to determine the operating effectiveness, i.e., to search for significant deficiencies, during this phase.

162
Q

what is a structural threat ?

A

A structural threat is the threat that an audit organization’s placement within a government entity, in combination with the structure of the government entity being audited, will impact the audit organization’s ability to perform work and report results objectively.

163
Q

what you do in initial planning vs during the audit?

A

intinal planning: determine the internal audit involvement

during the audit: get written representation letter, exam document to detect noncompliance , check the estimates

164
Q

when asking questions for note payable , what to look for?

A

authorization, segregation of duties, safeguarding/physical control, performance review

Example:
Are direct borrowings on notes payable authorized by the board of directors?

165
Q

what are some of the IT risk?

A

Reliance on systems or programs that are inaccurately processing data

unauthrized access

unauthorized changes

failure to make change

166
Q

Which of the following would an auditor ordinarily consider the greatest risk regarding an entity’s use of electronic data interchange (EDI)?

A

improper distribution of EDI transactions

167
Q

what is limit test and validity check test ?

A

A limit test or limit check is used to edit data during input or processing to validate data. The data is above an amount, below an amount, or between two amounts.

Validity controls are designed to ensure that all recorded transactions are those that should have been recorded (i.e., that the transactions are real and actually occurred and are properly documented).

To ensure the reliability and accuracy of data processing, an auditor would perform both tests.

168
Q

analytical procedures are required when?

A

in planning and as an overall review near the end of the audit

169
Q

To gain assurances that all inventory items in a client’s inventory listing schedule are valid, an auditor most likely would trace:

A

trace items from the inventory listing schedule to some form of evidence that assures that the items actually exist. Such evidence would include inventory tags and the auditor’s recorded count sheets.

170
Q

Nile, CPA, on completing an audit, was asked by the client to provide technical assistance in integrating a new IT system. The set of pronouncements designed to guide Nile in this engagement is the Statement(s) on:

A

In this case, Nile, CPA, is providing technical assistance on an IT system. This kind of service would be considered consulting, since Nile is not performing an audit engagement and it does not involve the firm’s quality control. Therefore, Nile would follow the Standards for Consulting Services as administered by the AICPA.

171
Q

The primary responsibility of a bank acting as registrar of capital stock is to:

A

to verify that outstanding stock certificates are issued with the authorization of the board of directors and the articles of incorporation

172
Q

Which of the following procedures would an auditor least likely perform before the balance sheet date?

A

the procedure that an auditor would least likely perform before the balance sheet date would be confirmation of accounts payable.

173
Q

encryption performed by physically secure hardware devices is more secure than what?

A

more secure than encryption performed by software, and helps prevent unauthorized access to data and the possibility of IT personnel gaining access privileges

174
Q

the auditor include waht in the audit documentation?

A

misstatement that are trivial
all the corrected misstatements
uncorrected misstatement

175
Q

In evaluating controls over cash disbursements, an auditor most likely would determine that the control risk is lower when the person who signs checks also:

A

is responsible for mailing the check.

176
Q

Audit Documentation, entitled “Providing Access to or Copies of Audit Documentation to a Regulator,” contains guidance relating to providing access to or copies of audit documentation to a regulator. Under what circumstances does this apply to an attestation engagement?

A

In all cases; however, the letter to the regulator should outline the purpose of the regulatory request as understood by the practitioner

177
Q

If an auditor performing an integrated audit identifies one or more material weaknesses in a nonissuer’s internal control, the auditor should:

A

express an adverse opinion on the entity’s internal control.

178
Q

Which of the following internal control procedures most likely would be used to maintain accurate inventory records?

A

Periodic inventory counts are used to adjust the perpetual inventory records.

179
Q

Which of the following is the primary objective of probability proportional to sample size?

A

To identify overstatement errors

180
Q

Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform in obtaining evidence about subsequent events?

A

the auditor should read the latest available interim financial statements, compare them with the financial statements being reported upon, and make any comparisons considered appropriate in the circumstances.
Scan records for unusual transactions
Obtain letter of representation on subsequent events

181
Q

In May 20X3, an auditor reissues the auditor’s report on the 20X1 financial statements at a continuing client’s request. The 20X1 financial statements are not restated, and the auditor does not revise the wording of the report. The auditor should:

A

To reissue the 20X1 auditor’s report on financial statements that have been neither restated nor revised, the auditor should use the original report date on the reissued report.

182
Q

client maintains perpetual inventory records in both quantities and dollars. If the assessed level of inherent and control risk is high, an auditor would probably:

A

The auditor would use this substantive testing of the physical inventory as evidence concerning the assertions about inventory

Since the control risk is high (i.e., the controls should not be relied upon), nothing would be gained by further tests of controls of the records of the inventory cycle, which are believed to be unreliable. Performing the physical count several times is not necessary; the auditor is only interested in the year-end count. Gross profit tests would provide assurances about the reasonableness of the dollar amounts, but not the quantities (i.e., number of units) in the inventory

183
Q

When reporting on an entity’s internal control over financial reporting for an issuer, the auditor may choose to issue which of the following?

A

issue a combined report (i.e., one report containing both an opinion on the financial statements and an opinion on internal control over financial reporting)

separate reports on the company’s financial statements and on internal control over financial reporting.”

184
Q

An auditor is engaged to report on selected financial data that are included in a client-prepared document containing audited financial statements. Under these circumstances, the report on the selected data should:

A

should be limited to data that are derived from audited financial statements

The report should not state that the presentation is a comprehensive basis of accounting other than GAAP, restrict the use of the report to those specified users within the entity, or indicate that the data are subject to prospective results that may not be achieved.

185
Q

Which of the following control activities most likely would reduce the risk of diversion of customer receipts by an entity’s employees?

A

a bank lockbox system ( to prevent fraud)

186
Q

to prevent fraud?

A

Prenumbered remittance advices and daily deposits of cash receipts are control procedures that aid in information processing. They help ensure that transactions are completely and accurately recorded and processed. Each of these procedures makes it easier to determine if an error (or theft) has occurred in the processing of the customer receipts. These controls help detect fraud; they do not prevent it.

187
Q

to detect fraud?

A

Monthly bank reconciliations, performed by a person other than the person who handles the cash or keeps the general ledger, are a control related to segregation of duties. This control procedure is meant to detect fraud.

188
Q

When a prior year’s financial statements being used for comparative purposes were audited by another auditor, who expressed a qualified opinion and whose report is not being presented, the auditor’s responsibility paragraph of the successor’s report is changed to

A

to include a statement that the prior year’s statements were audited by another auditor, the date of the other auditor’s report, the opinion issued, and an explanation if the opinion was other than unmodified.

no name should be mention if his or her report is not presented

189
Q

Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform in obtaining evidence about subsequent events?

A

Investigate changes in long-term debt occurring after year-end

190
Q

“The Company has suffered recurring losses from operations and has a net capital deficiency that raises substantial doubt about its ability to continue as a going concern.

A

An audit report would contain explanatory language about a company’s ability to continue as a going concern if the auditor thought it was appropriate

191
Q

Which of the following most likely would cause an auditor to consider whether a client’s financial statements contain material misstatements?

A

The results of an analytical procedure disclose unexpected differences.

192
Q

examples of nonroutine or nonsystemic transactions that may indicate a risk of material misstatement.

A

Intercompany transactions and large revenue transactions at period-end

193
Q

A CPA is permitted to accept a separate engagement (not in conjunction with an audit of financial statements) to audit an entity’s:

A

schedule of accounts receivable and schedule of royalties.

194
Q

PCAOB require the registered public accounting firm to describe in writings what ?

A

scope of services
effect of independence
document the discussion with audit committee

not require to document expected result of services

195
Q

Under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, exactly how many consecutive years may an audit partner lead an audit for an issuer?

A

5 year

196
Q

How should differences of opinion between the engagement partner and the quality control reviewer be resolved?

A

by following the firm policies and procedures

197
Q

Which of the following most likely would give the most assurance concerning the valuation assertion of accounts receivable?

A

Since the allowance for uncollectible accounts directly affects the valuation of accounts receivable, the auditor’s assessment of the allowance amount for reasonableness would provide the most assurance concerning the valuation of accounts receivable.

198
Q

what does the permanent workpaper file of the auditor contain ?

A

Analysis of capital stock

other equity accounts

199
Q

An auditor may report on condensed financial statements that are derived from complete audited financial statements if the:

A

the condensed financial statements is fairly stated in all material respects.

200
Q

what does payroll control objective include?

A

Payroll control objectives include:

proper authorization of new employees,
no fictitious employees included in the payroll,
all terminated employees removed from payroll,
employees paid authorized amounts,
all transactions recorded correctly,
detailed records maintained, and
government regulations complied with.

201
Q

When performing analytical procedures in the planning stage, the auditor most likely would develop expectations by reviewing which of the following sources of information?

A

The best answer choice to assist the auditor with planning would be to perform analytical procedures on the unaudited information from internal quarterly reports.

202
Q

The following information pertains to Ali Corp. as of and for the year ended December 31, 20X1:

Liabilities $ 60,000
Stockholders’ equity $500,000
Shares of common stock issued and outstanding 10,000
Net income $ 30,000

During 20X1, Ali’s officers exercised stock options for 1,000 shares of stock at an option price of $8 per share. What was the effect of exercising the stock options?

A

During the year, the officers exercised stock options for 1,000 shares of stock at an option price of $8 per share. Stockholders’ equity would increase by the following amount: $1,000 × $8 = $8,000.

Entry to record exercise of options:

Dr. Cash or Accrued liability - ESOP (1,000 x $8) 8,000
Cr. Stockholders’ equity 8,000

The stockholders’ equity is $500,000 on December 31, 20X1. This amount reflects the exercise of the stock options. Therefore, stockholders’ equity before the exercise of the stock options would be $500,000 − $8,000 = $492,000.

Debt/Equity ratio prior to exercise of options: $60,000 ÷ $492,000 = 0.122
Debt/Equity ratio after exercise of options: $60,000 ÷ $500,000 = 0.12
Note: Insufficient information is available for calculating any of the other ratios/answers.

203
Q

Which of the following is the date through which subsequent events review procedures should be performed when an auditor is complying with AU-C 945, Auditor Involvement with Exempt Offering Documents?

A

At or shortly before the date of distribution, circulation, or submission of the exempt offering document

204
Q

what is top down approach?

A

A top-down approach begins at the financial statement level and with the auditor’s understanding of the overall risks to internal control over financial reporting.” (PCAOB AS 2201.21)

The next step is to focus on entity-level controls, and then significant accounts, disclosures, and relevant assertions. The auditor then verifies his or her understanding of the risks in the company’s processes and tests those controls that sufficiently address the assessed risk of misstatement to each relevant assertion.

205
Q

If the business environment is experiencing a recession, the auditor most likely would focus increased attention on which of the following accounts?

A

entity adjust its allowance for doubtful account due to the assumption that more of the account receivable will be uncollectible

206
Q

what include in agreed upon procedure and what does not include?

A

include restricting the use
include statement that procedure performed were agreed by the specified party

not include any form of assurance, opinion

207
Q

Which of the following is an engagement attribute for an audit of an entity that processes most of its financial data in electronic form without any paper documentation?

A

Audit tests must be performed on a continual basis

208
Q

Tracing shipping documents to prenumbered sales invoices provides evidence that:

A

provide evidence that shipments to customers were properly invoiced.

No assurance regarding completeness or duplication is obtained by this method alone.

209
Q

a ptractioner should not perform a review of what of an entity?

A

of an entity’s compliance with requirements of specified laws, regulations, rules, contracts, or grants.

210
Q

when determining a sample size for a test of control, the auditor should consider what?

A

tolerable rate
rate of deviation
risk of assessing control risk too low

211
Q

Which of the following is not an example of analytical relationships that could help indicate material misstatement due to fraud?

A

Employees in collusion can manipulate the entity’s A/P and A/R accounts.

212
Q

example of analytical relationships that could help indicate material misstatement due to fraud

A

relationship of net income to cash flow
comparison of entity profitability vs industry
comparison of bad debt write off to comparable industry data

213
Q

auditor report on the audit of internal control over financial reporting must include what

A

include a definition of internal control which is the same description of the entity’s internal control as management uses in its report.

214
Q

what are the reporting elements of an agreed upon procedures?

A

ID of specified party
a list of procedure performed and findings
statement of the party responsibility

215
Q

which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform for year-end accounts receivable confirmations when the auditor did not receive replies to second requests?

A

to inspect shipping records documenting merchandise sold to the debtor (to prove that merchandise from sale was sent to the customer)

to review the cash receipt journal for the month following year end (to see that the customer paid the amount of receivable)

216
Q

which of the following most likely would be detected by an auditor’s review of a client’s sales cutoff?

A

study of sale records late in December and early January

217
Q

when should an auditor refer to the work of specialist?

A

The only time the auditor should refer to the work or findings of a specialist in the audit report would be if reference to the specialist’s findings clarifies an emphasis-of-matter or other-matter paragraph (such as for an unusually important subsequent event) or facilitates an understanding of a departure from an unmodified opinion.

requires the auditor to reach an understanding with the specialist about the objectives and scope of the specialist’s work and the methods or assumptions used by the specialist.

218
Q

when contigent fee is allowed?

A

A contingent fee would be permitted when representing a client in an examination by a revenue agent of the client’s federal or state income tax return.

219
Q

inventory observation may be observed before and after the balance sheet date when the record are what?

A

when the records are well-maintained and periodically checked and compared to the physical amounts.

220
Q

what to do in a review?

A

comparison of currrent year to prior year account balances
asking actions taken at board of director meetings
obtaning understanding of client business

221
Q

In a test of purchase orders, the auditor selected a random sample of 60 items out of a population of 1,200 purchase orders. The auditor discovered $4,000 in overstatement in the sample. The company’s materiality is $65,000. The tolerable misstatement for purchases is $50,000. What should the auditor do next?

A

project the detected error to the entire population

222
Q

Reporting standards for financial audits under Government Auditing Standards (the “Yellow Book”) differ from reporting under generally accepted auditing standards in that Government Auditing Standards require the auditor to:

A

present the results of the auditor’s tests of controls.

223
Q

An auditor desired to test credit approval on 10,000 sales invoices processed during the year. The auditor designed a statistical sample that would provide a 1% risk of assessing control risk too low (99% confidence) that not more than 7% of the sales invoices lacked approval. The auditor estimated from previous experience that about 2.5% of the sales invoices lacked approval. A sample of 200 invoices was examined and 7 of them were lacking approval. The auditor then determined the achieved upper precision limit to be 8%.

The allowance for sampling risk was:

A

The allowance for sampling risk is 4.5%. It is the difference between the upper precision limit of 8% and the sample deviation rate of 3.5% (seven errors in a sample of 200 items).

224
Q

A client maintains perpetual inventory records in both quantities and dollars. If the assessed level of inherent and control risk is high, an auditor would probably:

A

would not rely on the record

request client to schedule physical inventory count at year end (substantive testing)

225
Q

“There were unreasonable delays by management in permitting the commencement of the audit and in providing needed information.”

A

Auditor’s communication with those charged with governance

226
Q

After accounting for a sequence of inventory tags, an auditor traces a sample of tags to the physical inventory listing to obtain evidence that all items:

A

will obtain evidence about items on tags being included in the listing

227
Q

Which of the following is not an example of an accounting estimate that might be included in financial statements?

A

account receivable is not an estimate.

estimates are allowance for loan losses, effective tax rate

228
Q

what are control activities and what they do ?

A
Authorization
Performance reviews
Information processing
Physical controls
Segregation of duties
229
Q

A CPA purchased stock in a client corporation and placed it in a trust as an educational fund for the CPA’s minor child. The trust securities are not material to the CPA’s wealth but are material to the child’s personal net worth. According to the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct, would this action impair the CPA’s independence with the client?

A

Yes, because the stock would be a direct financial interest and materiality is not a factor

230
Q

An auditor’s decision either to apply analytical procedures as substantive tests or to perform tests of transactions and account balances usually is determined by the:

A

relative effectiveness and efficiency of the tests.

231
Q

what is parallel simulation?

A

Parallel simulation is when the auditor uses client data and auditor-controlled software to obtain output. The auditor’s output is compared to the output from the client. Differences indicate potential weaknesses or problems with the client’s software.

232
Q

what is test data?

A

Test data is introduced into the client’s computer system using the same program to operate the application being tested. This type of control testing is not under the auditor’s control, as it uses the client’s actual program.

233
Q

what is Review of program logic

A

A review of program logic would not assist the auditor with testing the operating controls of the computer system. It may, however, provide information about the design of the automated controls.

234
Q

what is an integrated test facility?

A

An integrated test facility introduces a fictitious entity (such as a fake employee or customer) with real entries in the master files of the client’s computer system. The auditor then compares the processing of data through the fictitious entity with what should be there in order to test that the data processing is reliable. Like the test data (or test deck) approach, an integrated test facility uses the client’s system and is not under the auditor’s control.

235
Q

During an engagement to review the financial statements of a nonissuer, an accountant becomes aware of a material departure from the applicable financial reporting framework. If the accountant decides to modify the standard review report because management will not revise the financial statements, the accountant should:

A

should disclose the departure from the applicable financial reporting framework in a separate paragraph.

236
Q

what is a source code comparison program ?

A

A source code comparison program compares the coding of the program from its last run with the original program, testing for any unauthorized changes in the program.

237
Q

the … indirect or direct the relationship, the …… effecctive control may be?

A

A source code comparison program compares the coding of the program from its last run with the original program, testing for any unauthorized changes in the program.

238
Q

Select the internal control that most likely could assist MMI in preventing or detecting the sending of an invoice for shipped goods and its recording in the sales journal without being posted to any customer account.

A

Comparing the control amounts posted to the accounts receivable ledger with the control totals of invoices

239
Q

A CPA’s standard report on audited financial statements would be inappropriate if it referred to:

A

the CPA’s assessment of sampling risk factors.

240
Q

what are the three forms of attestation ?

A

an examination (audit)
a review
agreed upon procedures

example: Preparing the income statement and balance sheet for one year in the future based on client expectations and predictions

241
Q

The OMB’s Uniform Guidance rules contain a “percentage of coverage” rule that requires the auditor of entities receiving federal financial support who do not meet the criteria for low risk to test major programs that, in the aggregate, encompass at least:

A

in aggregate, encompass at least 20% of total federal awards expended.

in aggregate, encompass at least 40% of total federal awards expended.

242
Q

In auditing related party transactions, an auditor ordinarily places primary emphasis on:

A

the adequacy of the disclosure of the related party transactions.

243
Q

Which of the following statements describes an auditor’s obligation to identify deficiencies in the design or operation of internal control?

A

The auditor need not search for significant deficiencies but should document and communicate any significant deficiencies that are discovered.

244
Q

what should voucher payable department do?

A

match vendor’s invoice with the related receiving report, (to make sure good billed were received)

approve voucher for payment

245
Q

what should the purchasing and receiving department do?

A

Accounting for unused prenumbered purchase orders and receiving reports

246
Q

for effective internal control, what AP department should do?

A

agreement of the vendor’s invoice (invoice details are correct) with the receiving report (goods and services actually received) and purchase order (procurements are properly authorized).

247
Q

An auditor’s program to examine long-term debt most likely would include steps that require:

A

correlating interest expense recorded for the period with outstanding debt.

248
Q

An auditor’s report on financial statements prepared on the cash receipts and disbursements basis of accounting should include all of the following, except:

A

a statement that the cash receipts and disbursements basis of accounting is not a comprehensive basis of accounting.

249
Q

Which of the following statements best serves as management’s assertion of consistency in an MD&A presentation?

A

Nonfinancial data have been accurately derived from related records.

250
Q

wut are the auditor required communication with those charged with governance?

A

communicate significant accounting policies

and management changes in the application of those policies

251
Q

A letter issued on significant deficiencies relating to an entity’s internal control observed during an audit of financial statements should include a

A

restriction on the distribution of the report.

252
Q

On receiving a client’s bank cutoff statement, an auditor most likely would trace

A

prior-year checks listed in the cutoff statement to the year-end outstanding checklist.

Deposits in transit at the end of the year are those deposited per the books that did not yet clear the bank. The auditor would start with the year-end bank reconciliation’s deposits in transit and trace to the cutoff statement, not the other way around.

Any deposits recorded in the cash receipts journal (on the books) after year-end should appear on the bank statements in the next year. The auditor would not be concerned about tracing these deposits to the cutoff statement

253
Q

The identification, description, and evaluation of asserted claims, assessments, and litigation (pending or threatened) and of probable outcomes are the responsibility of WHO ?

A

management

254
Q

The primary reason an auditor requests letters of inquiry be sent to a client’s attorneys is to provide the auditor with:

A

corroboration of the information furnished by management about litigation, claims, and assessments

255
Q

A former client requests a predecessor auditor to reissue the prior year’s audit report in connection with the issuance of comparative financial statements by the client. What is the predecessor auditor’s responsibility?

A

Read the current report, compare it to the previous report, and obtain a letter of representation from the successor auditor.

256
Q

“As discussed in Note 14 to the financial statements, the Company has had numerous dealings with businesses controlled by, and people who are related to, the officers of the Company.”

A

An auditor’s report would contain explanatory language concerning related party transactions if the auditor thought it was appropriate

257
Q

Embedded audit modules

A

enable continuous monitoring of transaction processing

258
Q

Which of the following statements describes the auditor’s responsibility for other information contained in a client-prepared document that includes the audited financial statements?

A

The auditor must read the other information and consider if it is materially inconsistent with the audited financial statements.

not obligated to apply audit procedure, nor opinion

259
Q

There are five components of COSO’s internal control model

A

The auditor must read the other information and consider if it is materially inconsistent with the audited financial statements.

260
Q

An auditor anticipates assessing control risk at a low level in a computerized environment. Under these circumstances, on which of the following procedures would the auditor initially focus?

A

General control procedures

261
Q

An auditor suspects that a client’s cashier is misappropriating cash receipts for personal use by lapping customer checks received in the mail. In attempting to uncover this embezzlement scheme, the auditor most likely would compare the:

A

Lapping involves the altering of accounts receivable when cash that is intended for the payment of a receivable is misappropriated. The first receivable collected is used to cover the misappropriation, while the second receivable is collected to account for the first, and so on. In order to prevent lapping, the best internal control activity would be the segregation of duties between those receiving cash and those posting to the accounts receivable ledger.

To uncover the scheme, the best solution would be for the auditor to compare the dates checks are deposited with the dates of remittance credits. If lapping were to occur, over time the posting of remittance credits should occur prior to the date the check is deposited

262
Q

a subrecipient

A

is a nonfederal entity that receives a subaward from a pass-through entity to carry out part of a federal program; it does not include an individual that is a beneficiary of such a program. A recipient of other federal awards directly from a federal awarding agency also qualifies as a subrecipient.

263
Q

The purpose of applying analytical procedures in planning the audit is to:

A

assist in planning the nature, timing, and extent of auditing procedures that will be used to obtain audit evidence for specific account balances or classes of transactions.

264
Q

The auditor determines that effective internal controls exist for all relevant assertions related to a material class of transactions, account balance, and disclosure. As a result, the auditor can elect to perform which of the following tests?

A

Tests of controls
Substantive procedures

Because effective internal controls generally reduce but do not eliminate the risk of material misstatement, tests of controls reduce but do not eliminate the need for substantive procedures

265
Q

The documentation on a review engagement should include all of the following except:

A

abstracts or copies of important documents.

266
Q

accountant’s documentation in a review engagement should include

A

engagement letter
analytical procedure
comparison of expectation vs recorded amount
management response to accountant inquries
significant matter
unsual matter
representation letter

267
Q

During the initial planning phase of an audit, a CPA most likely would:

A

discuss the timing of the audit procedures with the client’s management.

268
Q

In order for a firm to designate itself as “Members of the AICPA”:

A

all CPA owners must be members of the AICPA.

269
Q

Which of the following auditor concerns most likely could be so serious that the auditor concludes that a financial statement audit cannot be conducted?

A

The integrity of the entity’s management is suspect.

270
Q

When a prior year’s financial statements being used for comparative purposes were audited by another auditor, who expressed a qualified opinion and whose report is not being presented, the auditor’s responsibility paragraph of the successor’s report is changed to include

A

When a prior year’s financial statements being used for comparative purposes were audited by another auditor, who expressed a qualified opinion and whose report is not being presented, the auditor’s responsibility paragraph of the successor’s report is changed to include a statement that the prior year’s statements were audited by another auditor, the date of the other auditor’s report, the opinion issued, and an explanation if the opinion was other than unmodified. The name of the predecessor auditor should not be mentioned if his or her report is not presented.

271
Q

what happen to deviation rate for the sample and the true deviation rate of the population ?

A

When control risk is assessed too low, the deviation rate for the sample is less than the true deviation rate of the population (or, as stated in the question, the deviation rate of the population is more than the deviation rate in the auditor’s sample).

272
Q

After making inquiries about credit-granting policies, an auditor selects a sample of sales transactions and examines evidence of credit approval. This test of controls most likely supports management’s financial statement assertion(s) of:

A

valuation or allocation.

Since the auditor is testing whether credit sales are actually collectible (if credit has been granted according to policy), the auditor would be testing valuation. Valuation asserts that the credit sales have been disclosed at appropriate amounts. In other words, the entity has properly valued the credit sale for its full amount, and the customer is creditworthy and is likely to pay.

273
Q

what is assertion of right and obligation? how to test it

A

The assertion of rights and obligations relates to whether or not the entity holds or controls the rights to assets, and if liabilities are the obligations of the entity. Were the auditor to test the entity’s rights to outstanding receivables, she would not test credit approval. Instead, she might look at sales orders and invoices to determine if items were actually purchased.

274
Q

A CPA is permitted to accept a separate engagement (not in conjunction with an audit of financial statements) to audit an entity’s:

A

schedule of accounts receivable and schedule of royalties.

275
Q

An Audit of Internal Control Over Financial Reporting That Is Integrated with an Audit of Financial Statements)

A

include a statement that:

the auditor believes the audit provides a reasonable basis for the issued opinion.
management is responsible for maintaining effective internal control.
internal control over financial reporting includes policies and procedures regarding the ability to report financial data consistent with management’s assertions.
the audit was conducted in accordance with the standards of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (not in accordance with AICPA standards).

276
Q

Field, CPA, is auditing the financial statements of Miller Mailorder, Inc., (MMI) for the year ended January 31, 20X1. Field has compiled a list of possible errors and fraud that may result in the misstatement of MMI’s financial statements, and a corresponding list of internal controls that, if properly designed and implemented, could assist MMI in preventing or detecting the errors and fraud. Select the internal control that most likely could assist MMI in preventing or detecting the recording of a credit for the customer’s full account balance when the customer’s check is for less than the customer’s full account balance.

A

Comparing the total amounts posted to the accounts receivable ledger from remittance advices with the validated bank deposit slips most likely could assist MMI in preventing or detecting the recording of a credit for the customer’s full account balance when the customer’s check is for less than the customer’s full account balance.

If a credit for the customer’s full account balance were recorded to the accounts receivable ledger, the total posted to the accounts receivable ledger would exceed the total on the validated bank deposit slip. This is an example of an independent check being used as a control.

277
Q

Which of the following activities is an analytical procedure an auditor would perform in the final overall review stage of an audit to ensure that the financial statements are free from material misstatement?

A

Comparing the current year’s financial statements with those of the prior year

278
Q

A weakness in internal control over recording retirements of equipment may cause an auditor to:

A

A weakness in internal control over recording retirements of equipment means that it may be possible for a piece of equipment to be retired and thus no longer physically present but still be recorded in the entity’s books as held by the entity. To investigate whether there are any instances of this, an auditor would select certain records and verify whether those assets actually exist.

279
Q

In a financial statement audit, inherent risk is evaluated to help an auditor assess which of the following?

A

The susceptibility of a financial statement assertion to a material misstatement assuming there are no related controls

280
Q

An engagement quality control review may include c

A

The engagement team’s evaluation of the firm’s independence in relation to the specific engagement

Whether appropriate consultation has taken place on matters involving differences of opinion or other difficult or contentious matters and the conclusions arising from those consultations

Whether documentation selected for review reflects the work performed in relation to the significant judgments and support the conclusions reached

281
Q

Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform during the overall review stage of an audit of an entity’s financial statements?

A

Consider whether the results of audit procedures affect the assessment of the risk of material misstatement due to fraud

282
Q

Which of the following types of sampling allows an auditor to quantify sampling risk?

A

attribute

Attribute sampling is used to estimate the rate (percentage) of occurrence of a specific quality (attribute) in a population and is used primarily for tests of controls; it allows the auditor to quantify the sampling risk. Variable sampling is used when the auditor needs to estimate or test a client’s book value and is generally used in substantive testing; it does not enable the auditor to quantify risk in the population based on the sample results.

Haphazard, block, and stratified nonstatistical sampling techniques all use the auditor’s judgement. Selection of a sample is not based upon statistics; therefore, the auditor cannot extrapolate the results of a sample to the broader population (i.e., sampling risk cannot be quantified).

283
Q

An auditor traces the serial numbers on equipment to a nonissuer’s subledger. Which of the following management assertions is supported by this test?

A

completeness

284
Q

An auditor discovered that a client’s accounts receivable turnover is substantially lower for the current year than for the prior year. This may indicate that:

A

Accounts receivable turnover is affected by the balance in accounts receivable, so fictitious credit sales could be the cause. The other answer choices would not cause the turnover ratio to decrease.

If fictitious sales were recorded, the net credit sales (numerator) would increase. Since the sales are not real, the ending accounts receivable balance would also be higher than normal. These “fake” receivables are also not being repaid. This in turn, means that the average receivables (denominator) would get larger. This would in all likelihood result in a lower receivable turnover ratio.

285
Q

n which of the following circumstances would an auditor expect to find that an entity implemented automated controls to reduce risks of misstatement?

A

When transactions are high-volume and recurring

286
Q

When a CPA examines a client’s projected financial statements, the CPA’s report should:

A

state that the CPA performed procedures to evaluate management’s assumptions.

287
Q

Matters to consider in accepting or continuing the client engagement include whether:

A

firm personnel have experience with relevant industries or subject matters or the ability to effectively gain the necessary knowledge;

firm personnel have experience with relevant regulatory or reporting requirements, or the ability to effectively gain the necessary competencies;

the firm has sufficient personnel with the necessary competence and capabilities;

specialists are available, if needed;

individuals meeting the criteria and eligibility requirements to perform an engagement quality control review are available, where applicable; and

the firm is able to complete the engagement within the reporting deadline.

288
Q

Which of the following statements is a basic element of the auditor’s standard report of a nonissuer?

A

An audit includes assessing significant estimates made by management

289
Q

The auditor with final responsibility for an engagement and one of the assistants have a difference of opinion about the results of an auditing procedure. If the assistant believes it is necessary to be disassociated from the matter’s resolution, the CPA firm’s procedures should enable the assistant to:

A

document the details of the disagreement with the conclusion reached.

290
Q

how to discover noncompliance with laws and regulation?

A

through detailed tests of transactions, making inquiries of the client’s management, and reading the minutes of the board of director’s meetings

291
Q

what does reviewing a internal control questionair do?

A

help the auditor determine the risk of material misstatement (due to errors or fraud) and identify reportable conditions, but this procedure would not be very helpful in identifying noncompliance with laws and regulations.

292
Q

Which of the following procedures is ordinarily performed by an accountant in a compilation engagement of a nonissuer?

A

Reading the financial statements to consider whether they are free of obvious mistakes in the application of accounting principles

293
Q

An auditor is testing the reasonableness of dividend income from investments in publicly held companies (issuers). The auditor most likely would compute the amount that should have been received and recorded by the client by:

A

electronically accessing the details of dividend records on the Internet.

294
Q

Tracing shipping documents to prenumbered sales invoices provides evidence that:

A

shipments to customers were properly invoiced.

295
Q

. In order to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence to draw reasonable conclusions on which to base the audit, the auditor should perfo

A

perform substantive procedures consisting of inspection of records or documents, inspection of tangible assets, observation and inquiry, confirmation, recalculation and reperformance, and analytical procedures

296
Q

A practitioner is engaged to express an opinion on management’s assertion that the square footage of a warehouse offered for sale is 150,000 square feet. The practitioner should refer to which of the following sources for professional guidance?

A

Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements

297
Q

Which of the following audit procedures would primarily respond to the audit objective for accounts receivable that accounts receivable are stated at net realizable value?

A

Review the aged trial balance for significant past due accounts.

298
Q

n auditor usually determines whether dividend income from publicly held investments is reasonable by computing the amounts that should have been received by referring to:

A

records produced by investment services.

299
Q

In an integrated audit of a nonissuer, if an auditor concludes that a material weakness exists as of the date specified in management’s assertion, the auditor should take which of the following actions?

A

Issue a modified opinion.

When internal control is not effective because one or more material weaknesses exist, the auditor is prohibited from expressing an opinion on management’s assertion and should report directly on the effectiveness of internal control. The auditor’s report should include the definition of a material weakness, a statement that one or more material weaknesses have been identified, and an identification of the material weaknesses described in management’s assertion.

300
Q

After testing a client’s internal control activities, an auditor discovers a number of material weaknesses in the operation of a client’s internal controls. Under these circumstances the auditor most likely would:

A

increase the assessment of control risk and increase the extent of substantive tests

301
Q

Requirements of GAGAS for auditors and audit firms include

A

80 hours of CPE in governmental auditing every two years for those auditors who spend at least 20% of their time on these audits.

a system of quality control that includes independence, legal, and ethical requirements.

human resources policies and procedures.

An external peer review is required at least once every three years.

302
Q

how to test accuracy and valuation of property plant and equipment

A

obtaining a detailed fixed asset register and ensuring items are appropriately capitalized

303
Q

how to test accuracy and completeness of PP&E ?

A

obtaining a listing of current year additions and verifying that items are recorded in the proper period

304
Q

how to test valuation of PP&E ?

A

obtaining a detailed fixed asset register and ensuring depreciation methods are applied consisstenly

305
Q

Activities listed in the standard that trigger an auditor’s responsibilities for an exempt offering

A

when both (a) the auditor’s report is included in the exempt offering document and (b) when the auditor performs one or more of the following activities with respect to that exempt offering document (assist in preparing, reading draft, issue comfort letter, participate)

Perform a subsequent events review from the date of the financial statement auditor’s report through the date of the exempt offering

306
Q

Which of the following most likely would be detected by an auditor’s review of a client’s sales cutoff?

A

Unrecorded sales at year-end

307
Q

detecting the sending of an invoice for shipped goods and its recording in the sales journal without being posted to any customer account.

A

Control amounts posted to the accounts receivable ledger are compared with control totals of invoices.

308
Q

Misstatements discovered by the auditor were immaterial in the aggregate in prior years. Such misstatements should be:

A

considered in the evaluation of audit findings in the current year.

309
Q

the integrated test facility:

A

is a concurrent audit technique where a special set of dummy master files is established and test transactions are entered to test the programs using the dummy files during regular processing runs.

310
Q

An audit of internal controls in an integrated financial statement audit is required under which of the following standards for publicly traded entities?

A

International auditing standards issued by the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board do not require an audit of internal control, while U.S. PCAOB (Public Company Accounting Oversight Board) standards do require such an audit.

311
Q

if auditor lack independent

A

For public companies, when the auditor is not independent, he or she should disclaim an opinion indicating that he or she is not independent, but the auditor should not give the reasons for lack of independence or list any procedures performed. For nonpublic companies, if the auditor lacks independence, the auditor may issue only a compilation report. Therefore, an auditor may not issue a qualified opinion when the auditor lacks independence with respect to the audited entity.

312
Q

A client’s lawyer is unable to form a conclusion about the likelihood of an unfavorable outcome of pending litigation because of inherent uncertainties. If the litigation’s effect on the client’s financial statements could be material, the auditor most likely would:

A

add an explanatory paragraph to the auditor’s report because of the uncertainty.

A qualified opinion would not be issued in this instance because of the lawyer’s scope limitation because there was no scope limitation. A scope limitation would only occur in this instance when legal counsel refuses to furnish the information requested.

313
Q

Which of the following internal controls most likely addresses the completeness assertion for inventory?

A

Receiving reports provide evidence that merchandise has been received and has become part of inventory. Thus, prenumbering receiving reports and periodically reconciling these reports to recorded inventory would directly address the completeness assertion for inventory. “Receiving reports are prenumbered and periodically reconciled” is the best answer.

314
Q

an auditor’s report on financial statements prepared in accordance with a comprehensive basis of accounting other than generally accepted accounting principles contain wut statement?

A

conformity with other comprehensive basis of accounting

reference to a note in the financial statements

a statement that the presentation is a comprehensive basis of accounting principles other than GAAP.

315
Q

when a scope limitation has occurred

A

If an auditor is unable to apply all necessary audit procedures he or she considers necessary, regardless of the reason

316
Q

In the first audit of a client, an auditor was not able to gather sufficient appropriate audit evidence about the consistent application of accounting principles between the current and the prior year, as well as the amounts of assets or liabilities at the beginning of the current year. This was due to the client’s record retention policies. If the amounts in question could materially affect current operating results, the auditor would:

A

be unable to express an opinion on the current year’s results of operations and cash flows.

317
Q

An auditor’s report would be designated an audit of a special-purpose financial statement when it is issued in connection with:

A

a basis of accounting that the entity uses to comply with an agreement between the entity and one or more third parties other than the auditor

318
Q

Which of the following management assertions is an auditor most likely testing if the audit objective states that all inventory on hand is reflected in the ending inventory balance?

A

inventory is complete

319
Q

Assessing control risk below the maximum level most likely would involve

A

identify specific control activities relevant to the specific assertions that are likely to prevent or detect material misstatements in those assertions and perform tests of controls to evaluate the effectiveness of such control activities

320
Q

When planning an examination, an auditor should:

A

make preliminary judgments about materiality levels for audit purposes.

321
Q

When a broker-dealer or other financial intermediary, besides an underwriter or other party with a due diligence defense under section 11 of the Securities Act of 1933, requests a comfort letter but does not provide a representation letter, the accountant should:

A

not provide a comfort letter but may provide another form of letter.

322
Q

In reviewing the financial statements of a nonissuer, an accountant is required to modify the standard review report for which of the following matters?

Inability to assess the risk of material misstatement due to fraud
Discovery of significant deficiencies in the design of the entity’s internal control

A

Review engagements provide less assurance than that provided in an audit. The accountant, primarily through inquiries of management and analytical procedures, expresses limited assurance that the financial statements are in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework. The accountant does not test the entity’s internal control system nor assess the risk of material misstatement (whether due to errors or fraud).

323
Q

A quality control requirement under Government Auditing Standards requires

A

CPA seeking to enter into an audit contract to provide the CPA’s most recent external quality control review report to the party contracting for the audit.

324
Q

how to determine that each customer billed was actually shipped something

A

If each sales invoice has a corresponding shipping document, the auditor could determine that each customer billed was actually shipped something. To determine what the test proves, start with the population that is being sampled. In this instance, we start with the sales invoices. For each sales invoice sampled, the auditor is able to determine that goods were shipped to the customer on the invoice. If the auditor is unable to locate a shipping document to correspond to that customer’s invoice, then the auditor cannot conclusively say that the billed customer was shipped goods.

325
Q

how to determine if entries in the AR ledger were for sale actually shipped ?

A

To determine if entries in the accounts receivable ledger were for sales actually shipped, the auditor would have to start with the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger and then trace that entry to a shipping document.

326
Q

the auditor wished to determine that shipments to customers were properly billed

A

If the auditor wished to determine that shipments to customers were properly billed, the population to be sampled would be the shipping documents. For each shipping document, the auditor should find a corresponding sales invoice.

327
Q

how to support assertion that no duplicate shipments to customers were made ?

A

Finding evidence to support the assertion that no duplicate shipments to customers were made would require the auditor to start with a sample from the population of sales orders. The auditor would then try to find duplicate shipments to each customer (sales) order pulled as part of the sample. If one is found, this is a deviation. If no deviations are found in the sample of sales orders, the auditor expresses certainty that no duplicate shipments were made, according to the statistical criteria determined before choosing the sample size.

328
Q

Accepting an engagement to compile an entity’s financial projection most likely would be inappropriate if the projection is to be included in:

A

A financial projection is appropriate for limited use only. This means that it can be used by the responsible party alone or by the responsible party and third parties with whom the responsible party is negotiating directly. The following would be examples of limited use:

With a mortgage application (negotiating directly with the bank)
With a report to the audit committee (for use by the responsible party)
With a document for negotiating a labor contract (negotiating directly with the union)
A prospective financial statement included in an offering statement would have to be a financial forecast, as it is the prospective financial statement that is appropriate for use by persons with whom the entity is not negotiating directly (general use).

329
Q

what is a reasonableness test ?

A

A reasonableness test compares a known, recorded amount (number of overtime hours in a week) with an estimated, or expected, amount (the average of weekly overtime during a similar period in a prior year). The auditor looks to see if the actual number is reasonable based on prior historical data. This test is a type of analytical procedure.

330
Q

If properly disclosed in the financial statements, which of the following would ordinarily cause an accountant to modify his or her standard compilation or review report?

Uncertainty about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern
Inconsistency in the application of accounting principles

A

Neither I nor II

331
Q

In an integrated audit of a nonissuer, if an auditor concludes that a material weakness exists as of the date specified in management’s assertion, the auditor should take which of the following actions?

A

Issue a modified opinion.

332
Q

Financial audits performed under generally accepted government auditing standards (GAGAS) require

A

along with the audit of the financial statements, reports on internal control, compliance with laws and regulations, and provisions of contracts and grant agreements as they relate to financial transactions, systems, and processes.

in the report on financial statement or a separate report

333
Q

When there has been a change in accounting principles, but the effect of the change on the comparability of the financial statements is not material, the auditor should:

A

When no material effect on comparability results from a change in accounting principle or an adjustment to previously issued financial statements, the auditor need not refer to consistency in the auditor’s report.”

334
Q

The objective of performing analytical procedures in planning an audit is to identify the existence of:

A

unusual transactions and events.

335
Q

example of non sampling risk

A

Nonsampling risk is the risk that the auditor reaches an erroneous conclusion for any reason not related to sampling.

Examples of nonsampling risk include the use of inappropriate audit procedures or misinterpretation of audit evidence and failure to recognize a misstatement or deviation

336
Q

what is the proper treatment of a lack of consistency ?

A

the proper treatment of a lack of consistency is to add an emphasis-of-matter paragraph after the opinion paragraph.

337
Q

If prior-period compiled financial statements have been restated and the predecessor accounting firm decides not to reissue its report, the successor accounting firm:

A

may be engaged to reissue the prior-period report

338
Q

If the client has not cooperated, the accountant’s disclosure need

A

the accountant’s disclosure need not detail the specific information but can merely indicate that the client has not cooperated with the accountant’s attempt to substantiate information that has come to the accountant’s attention and that, if the information is true, the accountant believes that the compilation or review report must no longer be used or associated with the financial statements. No such disclosure should be made unless the accountant believes that the financial statements are likely to be misleading and that the accountant’s review report should not be used.

339
Q

AU-C 800.10 explains that the auditor is required to determine the acceptability of the financial reporting framework applied to the special-purpose financial statements by obtaining an understanding of:

A

the purpose of the financial statements,
the intended users, and
management’s steps taken in determining the applicable financial reporting framework.

340
Q

the standard audit report for an unmodified opinion has what ?

A

The introductory paragraph, which states:
that the financial statements identified were audited and
the entity’s name on the financial statements
The management’s responsibility paragraph, which:
states that the financial statements are the responsibility of management and
includes the design, implementation, and maintenance of internal controls
The auditor’s responsibility paragraph, which states that the audit:
was conducted in accordance with U.S. (or other country’s) generally accepted auditing standards,
was planned and performed to obtain reasonable assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatements, and
includes examining evidence, assessing principles and significant estimates, and evaluating overall statement presentation
The opinion paragraph, which states that the financial statements are:
presented fairly,
presented in all material respects, and
in conformity with U.S. (or other country’s) GAAP
The auditor’s report would be inappropriate if it referred to the CPA’s assessment of sampling risk factors.

341
Q

When assessing internal auditors’ objectivity, an independent auditor should:

A

consider the policies that prohibit the internal auditors from auditing areas where they were recently assigned.

342
Q

what is an overall response

A

The auditor’s overall responses to address the assessed risks of material misstatement at the financial statement level may include the following:

Emphasizing to the audit team the need to maintain professional skepticism in gathering and evaluating audit evidence
Assigning more experienced staff or those with specialized skills such as specialists
Providing more supervision
Incorporating additional elements of unpredictability in the selection of further audit procedures to be performed
Substantive responses, further audit procedures, and test of controls are specific responses, not an overall response

343
Q

differences between analytical procedure , test of control and test of detals

A

An analytical procedure is performed when the auditor compares financial data to expectations developed by the auditor. For example, the auditor may expect, based on the understanding of the entity obtained, this year’s gross margin to be greater than last year’s gross margin.

Tests of controls would not compare two financial statement values. Rather, the auditor would be looking for deviations from a prescribed control activity.

Tests of details (or transactions) are substantive procedures (as are analytical procedures). However, substantive analytical procedures are generally more applicable to large volumes of transactions that tend to be predictable over time. Tests of details are ordinarily more appropriate to obtain audit evidence regarding certain relevant assertions about account balances, including existence and valuation.

344
Q

Section 408 of SOX Title IV, “Enhanced Review of Periodic Disclosures by Issuers,” dictates that:

A

the SEC will review disclosures made by issuers.

345
Q

how to could prevent or detect when different customer accounts are each credited for the same cash receipt.

A

Comparing total amounts posted to the accounts receivable ledger from remittance advices with the validated bank deposit slips

346
Q

An auditor reads the letter of transmittal accompanying a county’s comprehensive annual financial report and identifies a material inconsistency with the financial statements. The auditor determines that the financial statements do not require revision. Which of the following actions should the auditor take?

A

While the auditor’s responsibility does not extend beyond the financial information identified in the auditor’s report, nor does the auditor have any obligation to perform any procedures to corroborate other information contained in a document, the auditor should read the other information and consider whether it is materially consistent with the financial statements.

If the information is not materially consistent with the financial statements, the auditor should determine whether the financial statements or auditor’s report require revision. If they do not, he should request that the client revise the other information (in this case, the letter of transmittal).

Should the client refuse to revise the other information accompanying the financial statements, then the auditor should consider actions such as adding an emphasis-of-matter paragraph to the auditor’s report describing the inconsistency, withdrawing from the engagement, or withholding the use of the auditor’s report with the other information. The action taken will depend upon the auditor’s judgment and the individual circumstances.

347
Q

An auditor is performing substantive tests of pricing and extensions of perpetual inventory balances consisting of a large number of items. Past experience indicated numerous pricing and extension errors. Which of the following statistical sampling approaches is most appropriate?

A

Since there are numerous errors in pricing and extensions in this case, ratio estimation would result in numerous usable results that would produce the most precise evaluation.

Ratio estimation sampling is based on ratios between audited amounts and recorded amounts. This approach is most efficient when the ratio is not equal to one.