Simulated Board Examination

Question 1

The T4 cells are:

Answer 1

T helpers-inducers

Question 2

The VDRL antigen consist of:

Answer 2

✅ 0.03% cardiolipin
✅ 0.90% cholesterol
✅ 0.21% lecitin

Question 3

Hydroxythyl starch (HES) is used in:

Answer 3

Leukapheresis

Question 4

In an emergency transfusion where typing and crossmatching cannot be even dine, it is most safe to give:

Answer 4

“O” red cells

Question 5

Failure to wash RBCs adequately would cause:

Answer 5

False (-) in DAT

Question 6

Individuals who do not have the Rho(D) factor are classified as:

Answer 6

Rh (-)

Question 7

Donath-Landsteiner Ab:

Answer 7

Anti-P (cold reactive IgG autoab; PCH)

Question 8

Stack of coins appearance of red cells:

Answer 8

Rouleaux formation

Question 9

High titer of anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA) is strongly suggestive of:

Answer 9

Chronic Active Hepatitia (CAH)

Question 10

CEA is correlated with:

Answer 10

Colon cancer

Question 11

Anti-P us significant in transfusion because:

Answer 11

It has a wide thermal range of reactivity (Ab binds to RBCs in cold and via C’ activation, the coated RBCs lyse as they are warmed to 37’C.

Question 12

The different classes of the Igs are referred as:

Answer 12

Isotypes (vary depends in constant HC region)

Question 13

The treponemal Ag used in specific treponemal Ab test is derived from:

Answer 13

Nichols treponeme strain

Slides: Nichols straun of T. pallidum

Sorbent: Extract of nonpathogenuc treponemes (Reiter stain)

Question 14

A unit of WB produces an increase in Hct in an adult recipient of:

Answer 14

3% Hct (3 to 5%) or 1 to 1.5 g/dL Hgb

Question 15

Commonly used polyspecific antiglobulin reagent contains:

Answer 15

Anti-IgG, anti-C3d

Question 16

Acute and convalescent serum samples must show at least how many times increase in Ab titer to be considered significant for a disease:

Answer 16

4x fold increase

Question 17

DAT detects coating if RBCs by:

Answer 17

IgG or C3d (in vivo

Question 18

Plasma exchange is efficient and acceptable in the tx if the following diseases:

Answer 18

Myasthenia gravis and Goodpasture syndrome (removal of autoantibodies in plasma);
Waldenstrom’s syndrome (increased plasma globulins)

Question 19

Schick’s test is used to determine presence of immunity to:

Answer 19

Diptheria

Dick’s test (Scarlet fever)

Question 20

T-cells refer to:

Answer 20

Thymus-derived cells (t-cells are lymphocytes that matured in the thymus)

Question 21

Adrenocortical antibodies

Answer 21

Addison’s disease

Question 22

Antibody to RBCs

Answer 22

AIHA

Question 23

Antibody to platelets

Answer 23

Autoimmune Thrombocytopenic purpura

Question 24

Antibody to Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Answer 24

Crohn’s disease

Question 25

Antibody to parietal cells / intrinsic factor

Answer 25

Pernicious anemia

Question 26

Anti-centromere Abs

Answer 26

Scleroderma

Question 27

Anti-salivary duct / lacrimal gland antibodies

Answer 27

Sjögren's syndrome

Question 28

Anti-TSH receptor antibodies

Answer 28

Graves disease

Question 29

Anti-thyroid peroxidase (anti-microsomal) / thyroglobulin antibodies

Answer 29

Hashimoto's thyroiditia

Question 30

Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase (antibodies to beta-islet cells of pancreas) / insulin antibodies

Answer 30

Type I DM

Question 31

Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA)

Answer 31

Chronic active hepatitis (CAH)

Question 32

Peri-nuclear-anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA)

Answer 32

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Question 33

Anti-Ach receptors

Answer 33

Myasthenia gravis

Question 34

Anti-myelin sheath antibodies

Answer 34

Multiple sclerosis

Question 35

Antibodies to the Fc portion of IgG

Answer 35

Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 36

Anti-phospholipid / dsDNA antibodies // anti-Sm / DNP

Answer 36

SLE

Question 37

Cartwright Ags are associated with:

Answer 37

Acetylcholinesterase

Question 38

Ags enhance by enzyme treatment:

Answer 38

``` ABO Rh Ii P Lewis Kidd ```

Question 39

Pretransfusion samples must be stored at _______ for at least _______ after testing is complete

Answer 39

Stored at 1 to 6'C for at least 7 days after

Question 40

NBT dye test result that corresponds to a px with CGD:

Answer 40

<50% of the PMNs have blue precipitate

Question 41

Test for leukocyte movement

Answer 41

Boyden-Chamber assay

Question 42

Microhemagglutination Treponema pallidum (MHA-To) test uses which of the following reagent Ag:

Answer 42

Tanned formalin sheep RBCs coated with treponemal Ag

Question 43

AH59 assay is a test for overall deficiencies of the alternative pathway. Reagent RBCs used in this assay is derived from:

Answer 43

Rabbit

Question 44

Deficiency of which of the following complement components can lead to immune complex disorders such ad LE-like syndromes:

Answer 44

C2 and C4

Question 45

In gel tube technology, formation of compact agglutination at the top and bottom portion of the gel is graded as:

Answer 45

Mixed field

Question 46

Inadequate washing in enzyme immunoassays

Answer 46

False (+) results

Question 47

Fluorescence is the property of some compounds to absorb light of one wavelength and emit light of:

Answer 47

Longer wavelength

Question 48

Activated B-cells markers:

Answer 48

CD19 CD21 CD45 IgM, IgD on the surface membrane

Question 49

Blood group that facilitates Helicobacter pylori attachment to gastric mucosa:

Answer 49

Lewis

Question 50

Leukocye Common Ag (LCA):

Answer 50

CD45

Question 51

Common ALL Ag (CALLA):

Answer 51

CD10

Question 52

An untransfused patient has an unexpected alloantibody. This type of antibody is most likely:

Answer 52

Naturally occurring Abs

Question 53

Father: heterozygous type B Mother: homozygous type A Possibility of child being type O:

Answer 53

0%

Question 54

Mose common Rh phenotype among the blacks:

Answer 54

Dce

Question 55

Immunogenicity if Rh Ag:

Answer 55

D > c > E > C > e

Question 56

Reinactivation of serum:

Answer 56

56'C for 10 minutes

Question 57

Hemolysis is observed on all of the tubes of a heterophile Ab titer test. This indicates

Answer 57

That the serum was not inactivated

Question 58

In the Lectin Pathway of Complement Activation, MBP-associated serine protease-2 (MASP-2) is equivalent to which of the following components of the classical pathway?

Answer 58

C1 | MASP-1 is similar to C1r

Question 59

At alkaline pH, electrophoretic force causes proteins move towards the _______; Endo-osmotic force causes the proteins to move towards the _______.

Answer 59

Anode; cathode Proteins (negatively charged) migrate towards the positive electrode — anode Endo-osmotic force, a force that causes gamma globulins to migrate to cathode.

Question 60

Differential absorption test for IM, Abs absorbed by guinea pig kidney cells are:

Answer 60

Forsmann Abs | Serum sickness Abs

Question 61

Rantz and Randall's macrotechnique for ASO titer determination is based on:

Answer 61

Neutralization reaction

Question 62

A household bleach solution, prepared upon mixture of 20 mL of Sodium hypochlorite to 2000 mL of water. Final dilution:

Answer 62

1:101 Dilution = sample volume / total volume

Question 63

Non penetrating cryoprotectice agent:

Answer 63

Hydroxy ethyl starch (HES)

Question 64

Rh phenotype "f" is equivalent to:

Answer 64

ce

Question 65

Frequency of Kell phenotype:

Answer 65

(K-k+) > (K+k+) > (K+k-)

Question 66

IgM Abs react best at which temperature:

Answer 66

71.6'F / 22'C 'C = ('F - 32) / 1.8

Question 67

RPR: increase in temperature of the room or environment

Answer 67

False (+)

Question 68

A type III hypersensitivity reaction that results from a build up of Abs to the animal serum used in some passive immunization:

Answer 68

Serum sickness

Question 69

During the process of deglycerolization, saline washed RBCs are suspended in a final solution of:

Answer 69

0.9% NaCl + 0.2% dextrose 1. 12% NaCl 2. 1.6% NaCl 3. 0.9% NaCl + 0.2% dextrose

Question 70

Minimum number of WBC count in a leukopoor platelet preparation:

Answer 70

<8.3 x 10^5 Pooled platelets: 5.0 x 10^6

Question 71

In ABO grouping, the concentration of RBCs used in forward grouping should be approximately:

Answer 71

2 to 5%

Question 72

Anti-A: 3+ Anti-B: 0 A1 cells: 1+ B cells: 4+

Answer 72

Subgroup of A with Anti-A1

Question 73

Consequence of infusing D (+) RBCs into an Rh (-) male recipient with a negative alloantibody screen:

Answer 73

None, the patient will produce anti-D

Question 74

Donor's RBCs failed to react with anti-D typing serum; IAT was done Anti-D: agglutination Rh control: no agglutination

Answer 74

The donor is weak D (+); the unit should be labeled Rh (+)

Question 75

Percentage of Rh (-) children would expect from an R1R1 mother and an R1r father:

Answer 75

0%

Question 76

``` Anti-D: (+) Anti-C: (+) Anti-c: (+) Anti-e: (+) Anti-E: (-) ```

Answer 76

R1r

Question 77

Ab an R1R1 individual make if exposed to an R2R2 blood:

Answer 77

Anti-E

Question 78

A patient with anti-e should be transfused with:

Answer 78

R2R2

Question 79

Paternity testing: Mother: MM Child: MN Alleged father: MM

Answer 79

The alleged father is excluded since he does not have the N gene