Simulated Board Examination Flashcards

1
Q

The T4 cells are:

A

T helpers-inducers

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2
Q

The VDRL antigen consist of:

A

✅ 0.03% cardiolipin
✅ 0.90% cholesterol
✅ 0.21% lecitin

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3
Q

Hydroxythyl starch (HES) is used in:

A

Leukapheresis

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4
Q

In an emergency transfusion where typing and crossmatching cannot be even dine, it is most safe to give:

A

“O” red cells

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5
Q

Failure to wash RBCs adequately would cause:

A

False (-) in DAT

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6
Q

Individuals who do not have the Rho(D) factor are classified as:

A

Rh (-)

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7
Q

Donath-Landsteiner Ab:

A

Anti-P (cold reactive IgG autoab; PCH)

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8
Q

Stack of coins appearance of red cells:

A

Rouleaux formation

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9
Q

High titer of anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA) is strongly suggestive of:

A

Chronic Active Hepatitia (CAH)

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10
Q

CEA is correlated with:

A

Colon cancer

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11
Q

Anti-P us significant in transfusion because:

A

It has a wide thermal range of reactivity (Ab binds to RBCs in cold and via C’ activation, the coated RBCs lyse as they are warmed to 37’C.

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12
Q

The different classes of the Igs are referred as:

A

Isotypes (vary depends in constant HC region)

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13
Q

The treponemal Ag used in specific treponemal Ab test is derived from:

A

Nichols treponeme strain

Slides: Nichols straun of T. pallidum

Sorbent: Extract of nonpathogenuc treponemes (Reiter stain)

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14
Q

A unit of WB produces an increase in Hct in an adult recipient of:

A

3% Hct (3 to 5%) or 1 to 1.5 g/dL Hgb

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15
Q

Commonly used polyspecific antiglobulin reagent contains:

A

Anti-IgG, anti-C3d

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16
Q

Acute and convalescent serum samples must show at least how many times increase in Ab titer to be considered significant for a disease:

A

4x fold increase

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17
Q

DAT detects coating if RBCs by:

A

IgG or C3d (in vivo

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18
Q

Plasma exchange is efficient and acceptable in the tx if the following diseases:

A

Myasthenia gravis and Goodpasture syndrome (removal of autoantibodies in plasma);
Waldenstrom’s syndrome (increased plasma globulins)

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19
Q

Schick’s test is used to determine presence of immunity to:

A

Diptheria

Dick’s test (Scarlet fever)

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20
Q

T-cells refer to:

A

Thymus-derived cells (t-cells are lymphocytes that matured in the thymus)

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21
Q

Adrenocortical antibodies

A

Addison’s disease

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22
Q

Antibody to RBCs

A

AIHA

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23
Q

Antibody to platelets

A

Autoimmune Thrombocytopenic purpura

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24
Q

Antibody to Saccharomyces cerevisiae

A

Crohn’s disease

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25
Q

Antibody to parietal cells / intrinsic factor

A

Pernicious anemia

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26
Q

Anti-centromere Abs

A

Scleroderma

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27
Q

Anti-salivary duct / lacrimal gland antibodies

A

Sjögren’s syndrome

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28
Q

Anti-TSH receptor antibodies

A

Graves disease

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29
Q

Anti-thyroid peroxidase (anti-microsomal) / thyroglobulin antibodies

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditia

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30
Q

Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase (antibodies to beta-islet cells of pancreas) / insulin antibodies

A

Type I DM

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31
Q

Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA)

A

Chronic active hepatitis (CAH)

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32
Q

Peri-nuclear-anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA)

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

33
Q

Anti-Ach receptors

A

Myasthenia gravis

34
Q

Anti-myelin sheath antibodies

A

Multiple sclerosis

35
Q

Antibodies to the Fc portion of IgG

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

36
Q

Anti-phospholipid / dsDNA antibodies // anti-Sm / DNP

A

SLE

37
Q

Cartwright Ags are associated with:

A

Acetylcholinesterase

38
Q

Ags enhance by enzyme treatment:

A
ABO
Rh
Ii
P
Lewis
Kidd
39
Q

Pretransfusion samples must be stored at _______ for at least _______ after testing is complete

A

Stored at 1 to 6’C for at least 7 days after

40
Q

NBT dye test result that corresponds to a px with CGD:

A

<50% of the PMNs have blue precipitate

41
Q

Test for leukocyte movement

A

Boyden-Chamber assay

42
Q

Microhemagglutination Treponema pallidum (MHA-To) test uses which of the following reagent Ag:

A

Tanned formalin sheep RBCs coated with treponemal Ag

43
Q

AH59 assay is a test for overall deficiencies of the alternative pathway. Reagent RBCs used in this assay is derived from:

A

Rabbit

44
Q

Deficiency of which of the following complement components can lead to immune complex disorders such ad LE-like syndromes:

A

C2 and C4

45
Q

In gel tube technology, formation of compact agglutination at the top and bottom portion of the gel is graded as:

A

Mixed field

46
Q

Inadequate washing in enzyme immunoassays

A

False (+) results

47
Q

Fluorescence is the property of some compounds to absorb light of one wavelength and emit light of:

A

Longer wavelength

48
Q

Activated B-cells markers:

A

CD19
CD21
CD45
IgM, IgD on the surface membrane

49
Q

Blood group that facilitates Helicobacter pylori attachment to gastric mucosa:

A

Lewis

50
Q

Leukocye Common Ag (LCA):

A

CD45

51
Q

Common ALL Ag (CALLA):

A

CD10

52
Q

An untransfused patient has an unexpected alloantibody. This type of antibody is most likely:

A

Naturally occurring Abs

53
Q

Father: heterozygous type B
Mother: homozygous type A
Possibility of child being type O:

A

0%

54
Q

Mose common Rh phenotype among the blacks:

A

Dce

55
Q

Immunogenicity if Rh Ag:

A

D > c > E > C > e

56
Q

Reinactivation of serum:

A

56’C for 10 minutes

57
Q

Hemolysis is observed on all of the tubes of a heterophile Ab titer test. This indicates

A

That the serum was not inactivated

58
Q

In the Lectin Pathway of Complement Activation, MBP-associated serine protease-2 (MASP-2) is equivalent to which of the following components of the classical pathway?

A

C1

MASP-1 is similar to C1r

59
Q

At alkaline pH, electrophoretic force causes proteins move towards the _______;
Endo-osmotic force causes the proteins to move towards the _______.

A

Anode; cathode

Proteins (negatively charged) migrate towards the positive electrode — anode
Endo-osmotic force, a force that causes gamma globulins to migrate to cathode.

60
Q

Differential absorption test for IM, Abs absorbed by guinea pig kidney cells are:

A

Forsmann Abs

Serum sickness Abs

61
Q

Rantz and Randall’s macrotechnique for ASO titer determination is based on:

A

Neutralization reaction

62
Q

A household bleach solution, prepared upon mixture of 20 mL of Sodium hypochlorite to 2000 mL of water. Final dilution:

A

1:101

Dilution = sample volume / total volume

63
Q

Non penetrating cryoprotectice agent:

A

Hydroxy ethyl starch (HES)

64
Q

Rh phenotype “f” is equivalent to:

A

ce

65
Q

Frequency of Kell phenotype:

A

(K-k+) > (K+k+) > (K+k-)

66
Q

IgM Abs react best at which temperature:

A

71.6’F / 22’C

‘C = (‘F - 32) / 1.8

67
Q

RPR: increase in temperature of the room or environment

A

False (+)

68
Q

A type III hypersensitivity reaction that results from a build up of Abs to the animal serum used in some passive immunization:

A

Serum sickness

69
Q

During the process of deglycerolization, saline washed RBCs are suspended in a final solution of:

A

0.9% NaCl + 0.2% dextrose

  1. 12% NaCl
  2. 1.6% NaCl
  3. 0.9% NaCl + 0.2% dextrose
70
Q

Minimum number of WBC count in a leukopoor platelet preparation:

A

<8.3 x 10^5

Pooled platelets: 5.0 x 10^6

71
Q

In ABO grouping, the concentration of RBCs used in forward grouping should be approximately:

A

2 to 5%

72
Q

Anti-A: 3+
Anti-B: 0

A1 cells: 1+
B cells: 4+

A

Subgroup of A with Anti-A1

73
Q

Consequence of infusing D (+) RBCs into an Rh (-) male recipient with a negative alloantibody screen:

A

None, the patient will produce anti-D

74
Q

Donor’s RBCs failed to react with anti-D typing serum;

IAT was done
Anti-D: agglutination
Rh control: no agglutination

A

The donor is weak D (+); the unit should be labeled Rh (+)

75
Q

Percentage of Rh (-) children would expect from an R1R1 mother and an R1r father:

A

0%

76
Q
Anti-D: (+)
Anti-C: (+)
Anti-c: (+)
Anti-e: (+)
Anti-E: (-)
A

R1r

77
Q

Ab an R1R1 individual make if exposed to an R2R2 blood:

A

Anti-E

78
Q

A patient with anti-e should be transfused with:

A

R2R2

79
Q

Paternity testing:
Mother: MM
Child: MN
Alleged father: MM

A

The alleged father is excluded since he does not have the N gene