Intensive Recap (IS) Flashcards

1
Q

Jenner’s work with cowpox, which provided immunity against small pox, demonstrations which phenomenon?

A

Cross-immunity

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2
Q

Which of the following can be attributed to Pasteur?

A

First attentuated vaccines

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3
Q

He discovered complement as a heat labile component in the natural serum; described the phenomenon of complement fixatin and its diagnostic possibilities:

A

Jules Bordet

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4
Q

In searching for a cure for TB, Koch was the first to observe which phenomenon?

A

Delaye hypersensitivity

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5
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease represents a defect of:

A

Oxidative metabolism (Respiratory burst; Test: NBT)

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6
Q

Protein/s that are released by eosinophils and are toxic to helminthes are:

A

MBP (Major basic protein), ECP (Eosiniphilic Cationic Protein)

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7
Q

The major role of neutrophils is phagocytosis. Which one of the following events is NOT associated with some aspect of neutrophil function?

⏺ Recognition of Ag via primitive pattern receptor patterns
⏺ Recognition of opsonins on bacteria
⏺ Secretion of perforin
⏺ Activation of NADPH oxidases

A

✅ Recognition of Ag via primitive pattern receptor patterns
✅ Recognition of opsonins on bacteria
❌ Secretion of perforin
✅ Activation of NADPH oxidases

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8
Q

A cut on a person’s fingers becomes contaminated with bacterium S. aureus. The first response b ythe immune system consists of the activity of:

A

Neutrophils (first respondent of inflammation)

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9
Q

Monocytes and macrophages plays a role in the mononuclear phagocytic system. For an antibody-coated antigen to be phagocytised, what part of the antibody molecule fits into a receptor on the phagocytic cell?

A

Fc region

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10
Q

An individual is recovering from a bacterial infection and tests positive for antibodies to a protein normally found in the cytoplasm of this bacterium. Which of the following statements is true of this situation?

⏺ Class I molecules have presented bacterial Ag to CD8+ T cells
⏺ Class I molecules have presented bacterial Ag to C48+ T cells
⏺ Class II molecules have presented bacterial Ag to CD4+ T cells
⏺ B-cells have recognized bacterial Ag without help from T cells

A

✅ Class II molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4+ T cells

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11
Q

A living donor is being sought for a child who requires kidney transplant. The best odds of finding an MHC compatible donor occur bet. the child and:

A

A sibling (brother or sister) - 50%

Child’s father/mother (25%)

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12
Q

Which of the following is a potent mediator in acute phase response?

A

IL-1 (potent inducer of fever)

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13
Q

Which of the following enhances the cytolitic activity of lymphokine-activated killer cells (LAK)?

A

IL-2

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14
Q

Which of the following are target for IL-3?

A

Stimulate hematopoiesis:
✅ Myeloid precursors
✅ Lymphoid precursors
✅ Erythtoid precursorsh

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15
Q

Flow cyrometry results in a patient reveal a lack of cells with CD2 and CD3. What does this indicate?

A

Lack of T-cells

CD = Cluster of Differentiation

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16
Q

Which cell surface marker is termed the common acute lymphoblastic leukemia marker (CALLA)?

A

CD10

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17
Q

Which of the following activates both T and B cells?

A

PWM (Pokeweed mitogen)

Lipopolysaccharides (LPS): stimulates B cells

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18
Q

Measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following EXCEPT:

⏺ Monitoring drug therapy with anti-inflammatory agents
⏺ Tracking the normal progress of surgery
⏺ Diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection
⏺ Determining active phases of RA

A

✅ Monitoring drug therapy with anti-inflammatory agents
✅ Tracking the normal progress of surgery
❌ Diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection
✅ Determining active phases of RA

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19
Q

The type of immunity that follows the injection of antibodies synthesized by another individual or animal is termed:

A

Artificial passive

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20
Q

Actively acquired immunity can be caused by all of the following, EXCEPT:

⏺ The specific disease
⏺ Exposure to subclinical doses of the disease-causing organism
⏺ Vaccination with the appropriate Ag
⏺ Injection with immune serum containing appropriate Abs

A

✅ The specific disease
✅ Exposure to subclinical doses of the disease-causing organism
✅ Vaccination with the appropriate Ag
❌ Injection with immune serum containing appropriate Abs

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21
Q

A major advantage of passive immunization compared to active immunization is that:

A

Antibody is available more quickly

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22
Q

Identical antibodies produced from a single clone of plasma cells describes:

A

Monoclonal abs

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23
Q

Monoclonal antibodies are produced by:

A

Hybridomas

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24
Q

Formation of hybridoma in monoclonal antibody production (arrange):

  1. Spleen cells are fused with myeloma cells and then placed in restrictive medium.
  2. A mouse is immunized, and spleen cells are removed.
  3. Hybridoma cells grow in the HAT medium, where they synthesize and secrete a monoclonal Ig specific for a single determinant on an Ag
A

1️⃣ A moise is immunized, and spleen cells are removed.
2️⃣ Spleen cells are fused with myeloma cells and then placed in restrictive medium.
3️⃣ Hybridoma cells grow in the HAT medium, where they synthesize and secrete a monoclonal Ig specific for a single determinant on an Ag.

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25
Q

Which Ig/s help/s initiate the classical complement pathway?

A

IgG + IgM

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26
Q

Mannos-binding protein in the lectin pathway is most similar to which classical complement pathway component?

A

C1q

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27
Q

Factor H actc by competing with which of the ff. for the same binding site?

A

Factor B

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28
Q

Hereditary deficiency of early complement components (C1, C5, and C2) is assoc. with:

A

SLE (124)

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29
Q

Hereditary deficiency of late complement components (C5, C6, C7, or C8) can be assoc. with which of the ff. conditions?

A

Gonococcemia (5678)

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30
Q

Hereditary angioedema is characterized by:

A

Decreased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor

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31
Q

Elevated IgE levels are typically found in:

A

Type I HS

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32
Q

Incompetible blood transfusions are examples of:

A

Type II HS

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33
Q

What is the immune phenomenon assoc. with the Arthus reaction?

A

Deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels (Type III)

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34
Q

Contact dermatitis is mediated by:

A

T lymphocytes

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35
Q

A patient deficient in the C3 complement component would be expected to mount a normal:

A

Type I and IV HS response

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36
Q

Individuals who are at risk for ankylosing spondylitis have inherited which one of the ff. alleles?

A

HLA-B27

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37
Q

Individuals who are at risk for rheumatoid arthritis have inherited which one of the following alleles?

A

HLA-DR4

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38
Q

CA-15.3 is used conditinally in the monitoring of:

A

Breast adenocarcinoma

39
Q

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma:

A

CA 19.9

40
Q

Colonic adenocarcinoma:

A

CEA

41
Q

Hairy cell leukemia:

A

TRAP (+)

42
Q

Gastric:

A

CA 72.4

43
Q

Liver:

A

AFP

44
Q

Prostate:

A

PSA

45
Q

Destruction of the myelin sheath axons caused by the presence of antibody is characteristic of which disease?

A

Multiple sclerosis

46
Q

Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to smooth muscle?

A

CAH (Chronic Active Hepatitis)

47
Q

High titers of antimicrosomal antibodies are most often found in:

A

Thyroid disease

48
Q

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is most often assoc. with this condition:

A

Goodpasture disesse

49
Q

An autoimmune disease causing destruction of pancreatic cells can result in:

A

Type I DM

50
Q

A positive ANA with the pattern of anticentromere antibodies is most frequently seen in patients with:

A

CREST syndrome

51
Q

Which of the following statements applies to Bruton’s X-linked aggamaglobulinemia?

⏺ It typically appears in females
⏺ T cells are abnormal
⏺ There is a lack of circulating CD19 positive B cells
⏺ There is a lack of pre-B cells in the BM

A

❌ It typically appears in females (males)
❌ T cells are abnormal (B cells)
✅ There is a lack of circulating CD19 positive B cells
❌ There is a lack of pre-B cells in the BM (normal)

52
Q

Immunodeficiency with thrombocytopenia and eczema is often referred to as:

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

53
Q

Sever combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is an:

A

Immunodeficiency with decreased or dysfunctional T and B cells

54
Q

Corneal tissue may be transplanted successfully from one patient to another because:

A

The cornea occupies a privelege site not usually seen by th immune system

55
Q

Which of the following is characterisitc of the end point method of RID?

A

Conecntration is directly in proportio to the square of the diameter

56
Q

In which of the following tests is patient antigen determined by measuring the number of non agglutinating particles left after the reaction has talen place?

A

PACIA (Particle Counting Immunoassay)

  • Inverse relationship of non-agglutinating particles with px unknown
57
Q

Diagnostic reagents useful for detecting Ag by the coaaglutination reaction may be prepared by binding Ab to killed staphylococcal protein A. The class of Ab bound by this protein is:

A

IgG

58
Q

A classic technique for the detection of viral antibodies is:

A

Hemagglutination inhibition

59
Q

In complement fixation procedure, a negative result is manifested by:

A

Lysis of sRBCs

60
Q

To inactivate comlement in serum, the serum should be:

A

Incubated at 56 deg Celsius for 30 minutes

61
Q

If the results of serum protein electrophoresis show a significant decrease in the gamma band, which of the following is likely a possibility?

A

Immunodeficiency disorder

62
Q

The serologically detectable antibody produced in RA is primarily of the class:

A

IgM (IgM againts IgG)

63
Q

Which of the following indicates the presence of anti-DNase B activity in serum?

A

Lack of change in the color indicator

64
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections are assoc. with which antibodies?

A

Cold agglutinins

65
Q

Streptococcus MG agglutinins occur in normal serum at low titers (1:10). A titer of 499 or greater is considered to be suggestive:

A

Primary atypical pneomonia

66
Q

Destruction of the myelin sheath axons caused by the presence of antibody is characteristic of which disease?

A

Multiple sclerosis

67
Q

Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to smooth muscle?

A

CAH (Chronic Active Hepatitis)

68
Q

High titers of antimicrosomal antibodies are most often found in:

A

Thyroid disease

69
Q

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is most often assoc. with this condition:

A

Goodpasture disesse

70
Q

An autoimmune disease causing destruction of pancreatic cells can result in:

A

Type I DM

71
Q

A positive ANA with the pattern of anticentromere antibodies is most frequently seen in patients with:

A

CREST syndrome

72
Q

Which of the following statements applies to Bruton’s X-linked aggamaglobulinemia?

⏺ It typically appears in females
⏺ T cells are abnormal
⏺ There is a lack of circulating CD19 positive B cells
⏺ There is a lack of pre-B cells in the BM

A

❌ It typically appears in females (males)
❌ T cells are abnormal (B cells)
✅ There is a lack of circulating CD19 positive B cells
❌ There is a lack of pre-B cells in the BM (normal)

73
Q

Immunodeficiency with thrombocytopenia and eczema is often referred to as:

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

74
Q

Sever combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is an:

A

Immunodeficiency with decreased or dysfunctional T and B cells

75
Q

Corneal tissue may be transplanted successfully from one patient to another because:

A

The cornea occupies a privelege site not usually seen by th immune system

76
Q

Which of the following is characterisitc of the end point method of RID?

A

Conecntration is directly in proportio to the square of the diameter

77
Q

In which of the following tests is patient antigen determined by measuring the number of non agglutinating particles left after the reaction has talen place?

A

PACIA (Particle Counting Immunoassay)

  • Inverse relationship of non-agglutinating particles with px unknown
78
Q

Diagnostic reagents useful for detecting Ag by the coaaglutination reaction may be prepared by binding Ab to killed staphylococcal protein A. The class of Ab bound by this protein is:

A

IgG

79
Q

A classic technique for the detection of viral antibodies is:

A

Hemagglutination inhibition

80
Q

In complement fixation procedure, a negative result is manifested by:

A

Lysis of sRBCs

81
Q

To inactivate comlement in serum, the serum should be:

A

Incubated at 56 deg Celsius for 30 minutes

82
Q

If the results of serum protein electrophoresis show a significant decrease in the gamma band, which of the following is likely a possibility?

A

Immunodeficiency disorder

83
Q

The serologically detectable antibody produced in RA is primarily of the class:

A

IgM (IgM againts IgG)

84
Q

Which of the following indicates the presence of anti-DNase B activity in serum?

A

Lack of change in the color indicator

85
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections are assoc. with which antibodies?

A

Cold agglutinins

86
Q

Streptococcus MG agglutinins occur in normal serum at low titers (1:10). A titer of 499 or greater is considered to be suggestive:

A

Primary atypical pneomonia

87
Q

A patient reports states the presence of serum antibody to OspC. What disesse does the patient most likely have:

A

Lyme disease

88
Q

The first diagnositc blood test for syphillis:

A

Wassermann

89
Q

Which of the folliwing is true of reagin?

A

It is antibody directed against cardiolipin.

90
Q

False-positive nontreponemal test for syphillis may be due to which of the following?

A

✅ Infectious mononucleosis
✅ Systemic lupus
✅ Pregnancy

91
Q

A 24-year old man who had just recovered from IM had evidence of genital lesions. His RPR test was positive. What should the MT do next?

A

Do a confirmatory treponemal test

92
Q

Which of the following indentifies the pattern of Ab cross reactivity that is generated during infection with R. rickettsii?

A

P. vulgaris OX-19 (+)
P. vulgaris OX-2 (+)
P. mirabilis OX-K (-)

93
Q

Which one of the followinf terms descrubes the second stage of B. pertussis infection?

A

Paroxysmal

94
Q

The most common cause of congenital infections is:

A

CMV