Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CBL Year 2 > Skin and integument > Flashcards

Skin and integument Flashcards

1
Q

what do desmosomes do

A

Provide mechanical strength and contribute towards the water barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Different layers of the skin from outermost to innermost

A 
stratum corneum
stratum lucidum
stratum granulosum
stratum spinous (prickle cell layer)
stratum basale (basement membrane)

(come lets grow some bananas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What glands are in the skin

A

sudoriferous (sweat), sebaceous, ceruminous, mammary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are Langer’s lines

A

skin tension lines (also called cleavage lines)

parallel to natural collagen fibres in the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are Blashcko lines

A

lines of normal cell development in the skin

invisible under normal conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Anatomy layers of scalp (five)

A 
Skin
Collagen fibres
Aponeurosis 
loose areolar
periosteum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why does skin elasticity change

A

Skin loses ability to stretch and bounce back with ageing

things that accelerate: sun exposure, smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Typical skin distribution of psoriasis

A

Extensor surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Typical skin distribution of eczema

A

flexor surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Four uses of skin

A

Physical barrier
chemical barrier
immune barrier
microbiome barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe microbiome barrier of the skin

A

commensal bacterial in and on skin compete with potential pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Things that affect the microbiome nature of the skin

A 
host physiology
environment
immune system
hosts genotype
lifestyle
pathobiology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is meant by host physiology

A

age
sex
site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is meant by environment (microbiome)

A

climate

geographical location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is meant by immune system (in microbiome skin)

A

previous exposure

inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is meant by hosts genotype (microbiome)

A

susceptibility genes such as flaggarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is meant by lifestyle (microbiome)

A

occupation

hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is meant by pathobiology (microbiome)

A

underlying conditions such as diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

describe immune barrier nature of the skin (epidermis)

A 
keratinocytes and resident immune cells protect against potential pathogens
langerhans cells (antigen presenting cells that activate T cells that provide an immune response)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name cells present in immune barrier nature of the skin (dermis)

A 
mast cells
macrophages
dendritic cells
B&T cells 
NK cells 
plasma cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe chemical barrier nature of the skin

A

skin has an acidic pH (maintained by sweat conversion of triglycerides to fatty acids)
alters to this pH (i.e. more acidic) alters the microbiome function
lipids that require trans-epidermal water loss are produced by enzymes that require an acidic pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name a couple of effects that vitamin D synthesis has on the skin

A 
differentiation and proliferation
anti-microbial effects
sebaceous gland regulation
photo-protection
adaptive immunity
wound healing
hair follicle cycling
deficiency linked to (hair loss, cancer, atopic dermatitis..)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What receptors are located superficially in the skin

A

Meissner’s corpuscles and Merkel’s discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are Meissner’s corpuscles

A

cutaneous nerve ending responsible for transmitting fine, discriminative touch and vibration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are Merkel’s discs

A

widely distributed (in fingertips and lips)
slow adapting and unencapsulated
respond to light touch (discriminative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What receptors are located deeply in the skin

A

Pacinian corpuscles and Ruffini endings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are pacinian corpuscles

A

detect pressure and vibration from being compressed which stimulates their internal dendrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What do Ruffini endings detect

A

detect stretch
deformation within joints
warmth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the rapidly adapting receptors

A

pacinian corpuscles, Meissner’s corpuscles and hair follicle afferents
(all sense vibration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Do superficial receptors have large or small receptive fields

A

small - sense fine details and textures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is glabrous skin

A

skin without hair (palms, soles of feet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Paraesthesia

A

burning or prickling sensation, often accompanied by numbness, usually felt in hands or feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Transient (short-lived; passing; not permanent) factors of paraesthesia

A

pressure-induced, hyperventilation, viral infection, hyperthermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Chronic factors of paraesthesia

A

vascular disorders, metabolic disorders (diabetes), malnutrition, neuropathy, arthritis, autoimmune (MS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is tactile hyperesthesia

A

increased tactile (touch) sensitivity due to peripheral neurological disorders (peripheral neuropathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is tactile hypoesthesia

A

(numbness) Decreased tactile sensitivity due to damage of afferent nerves (ischaemia due to vascular disorders, decompression sickness, thiamine deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Three types of cutaneous pain sensation receptors

A

polymodal nociceptors
mechano-cold receptors
mechanically insensitive nociceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what do polymodal nociceptors detect

A

mechanical, thermal and chemical stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What do mechano-cold receptors detect

A

mechanical and cold stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what do mechanically insensitive nociceptors detect

A

chemical and possible thermal stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What fibres does fast pain run along

what do this fibres produce

A

A𝛅 fibres produce initial and well localised pain (sharp/.pricking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what fibres does slow pain run along

and what pain do they give

A

C fibres more prolonged aching pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What fibres do pressure blocks block

A

myelinated A𝛅 fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What fibres does a local anaesthetic block

A

unmyelinated C fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is hyperalgesia

A

excessive response to noxious (painful) stimuli

over-reaction to painful stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is allodynia

A

production of pain by non-noxious stimuli (not painful)

being stroked by a feather causes a pain response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Describe primary hyperalgesia include sensitising agents

A

Primary hyperalgesia is characterized by increased responsiveness to both heat and mechanical stimulation in the area of injury.

sensitising agent: An agent which, when added to a biological system, increases the amount of damage done by a subsequent dose of radiation.

chemically mediated sensitisation of nociceptors results in increased firing rate
sensitising agents including bradykinin, prostaglandins, and cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Describe secondary hyperalgesia

A

occurs without an increase in the firing rate of nociceptors - increased responsiveness of central pain circuit

secondary hyperalgesia is generally associated with increased responses to mechanical but not heat stimuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What reflex does pain cause

A

flexion withdrawal reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what reflex does itching cause

A

scratching behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What causes an acute itch

A

insect bite/allergen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what causes a chronic itch

A

inflammatory dermatoses (psoriasis, eczema)
systemic disorders (renal failure)
neuropathic (MS)
psychological (OCD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does nociceptor activity cause release of and what does this do

A

substance P from axon collaterals which increases blood flow and inflammatory agents (histamine causing redness heating and swelling of efferent nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Layers of the scalp

A 
pneumonic SCALP
Skin (& dense connective tissue)
Connective tissue
Aponeurosis
loose areolar connective tissue 
periosteum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does Zosteriform mean

A

stays in one dermatome and doesn’t cross the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are lines of Blaschko thought to represent

A

lines of normal cell development in the skin. These lines are invisible under normal conditions. They become apparent when some diseases of the skin or mucosa manifest themselves according to these patterns.

thought to represent pathways of epidermal cell migration and proliferation through development of foetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a vesicle

A

fluid-filled raised sac/lesion, 5mm or less in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is a bulla

A

fluid-filled raised sac/lesion, greater than 5mm in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is a blister

A

common term used interchangeably with vesicle and bulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is a pustule

A

pus-filled raised sac/lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

5 types of psoriasis

A 
vulgar psoriasis
psoriatic erythroderma
guttate psoriasis
inverse psoriasis
pustular psoriasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Why don’t you treat psoriasis with potent steroids

A

can turn into pustular psoriasis -which is resistant to a lot of treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the associated comorbidities of psoriasis

A

DVT/PE and cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Signs of rosacea

A

facial redness
bumps and pimples
skin thickening (rhinophyma - of the nose)
eye irritation (bloodshot, burning and/or stinging)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

ABCDE model for melanoma

A 
asymmetrical 
border (irregular border)
Colour (several colours)
Diameter (>6mm)
Evolution (how it has changed over time)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Difference between neuropathic, vascular and arterial leg ulcers

A

neuropathic - diabetes, usually over pressure point
arterial - painful, usually over medial malleolus
vascular - spread out, superficial, background venous changes on the legs (varicose veins, darkened patches)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

5 different dermatology investigations

A 
skin swab
fungal scrapes/nail clippings
punch biopsy
superficial sample
excision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Define homeotherms

A

(mammals) that have physiological mechanisms that can regulate temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Define poikilotherms

A

(fish) temperature varies with that of external environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

define the meaning of core in terms of temperature

A

The core houses vital organs (temperature only varies a little here)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Define the meaning of shell in terms of temperature

A

temperature can vary more as a result of regulatory responses to preserve core temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is the optimal core temperature

A

37 degrees celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Describe the receptors near the central thermoreceptors near the midbrain, medulla and spinal cord)

A

More warm receptors than cold receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

describe the peripheral receptors temperature

A

more cold receptors than warm receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

how is sodium and calcium involved in body’s set temperature

A

if sodium increases then the set temperature increases

if calcium increases then set temperature decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the five ways you can clinically measure temperature?

A

rectal (representative of core temp.)
sublingual (representative of core temp. but can deviate if you have eaten or drunk anything)
axillary (useful for children - can come up cold)
Forehead (cooler than core temp.)
external auditory meatus (ear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what does cholinergic mean

A

nerve cells where acetylcholine acts as a neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is acetylcholine? what does it do?

A

main neurotransmitter of parasympathetic nervous system

contracts smooth muscle, dilates blood vessels, increases bodily secretions, and slows heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Three causes of hyperthermia

A

heat exhaustion
heat stroke
malignant hyperthermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Run down of heat exhaustion (caused by? Symptoms?treatment?)

A

caused by: strenuous activity, dehydration, alcohol use, overdressing

symptoms: dizziness, fatigue, faintness, increased HR, decreased BP, cramps, nausea, headache
treatment: stop activity and rest, move to cooler place, rehydrate

81
Q

Run down of heat stroke (what is it? Symptoms? treatment?)

A

failure to regulate core temperature
symptoms (heat stroke ++): racing HR, hot skin, confusion, agitation, loss consciousness, coma
Treatment: ice packs, cooling blankets, IV fluids, support injured organ system

82
Q

Run down of malignant hyperthermia (what is it? Treatment?)

A

aberrant (not normal) response to volatile general anaesthetics (halothane and suxamethonium)
aberrant cellular ca handling leads to increased metabolic rate (& therefore increase in temperature)
treatment: dantrolene sodium immediately

83
Q

what is hyperhidrosis?

A

excessive sweating
axillary and palmoplantar (sometimes face)
occurs in 2-3% population
onset after adolescense

84
Q

primary hyperhidrosis cause

A

idiopathic (arises spontaneously and unknown cause)

85
Q

secondary hyperhidrosis cause

A

hyperthyroidism, some medications, diabetes, and obesity

86
Q

Treatment options for hyperhidrosis

A

aluminium based antiperspirants (block sweat glands)
anticholinergics (decreases sweat production)
botox
surgery (remove sweat glands)

87
Q

define pyrexia

A

fever

88
Q

how does a fever occur

A

occurs as result of an infection
this produces toxins
which increases WBCs that release pyrogens (fever causing substance)
pyrogens act on neurons which set temperature in the hypothalamus (they then increase the set point)

89
Q

how does body temperature change with a menstrual cycle

A

Your body temperature naturally changes a tiny bit throughout your menstrual cycle. It’s lower in the first part of your cycle, and then rises when you ovulate. For most people, 96°– 98° Fahrenheit is their typical temperature before ovulation.

90
Q

6 ways in which skin can be damaged

A 
trauma
surgery
burns 
tattoos
skin disorder
disease
91
Q

4 steps of coagulation

A

1) Constriction of the blood vessel. 2) Formation of a temporary “platelet plug.” 3) Activation of the coagulation cascade. 4) Formation of “fibrin plug” or the final clot.

92
Q

what is a keloid scar

A

thick raised scar

93
Q

difference between arterial and venous ulcers

A

Arterial ulcers develop as the result of damage to the arteries due to lack of blood flow to tissue. Venous ulcers develop from damage to the veins caused by an insufficient return of blood back to the heart.

Arterial ulcers have a distinct “punched out” appearance and are typically circular with a red, yellow, or black coloration. They are usually extremely painful. Venous ulcers are often painless unless they are infected.1

94
Q

define haemostasis

A

process to prevent and stop bleeding, involving coagulation

95
Q

define wound exudate

A

fluid leaking from a wound

96
Q

What happens with high wound exudate

A

healing can be delayed, surrounding skin may be macerated and excoriated

97
Q

What is normal exudate compared to not

A

thin and watery is normal

thick and sticky can indicate infection

98
Q

define autolysis

A

breakdown of all or part of a cell or tissue by self-produced enzymes

99
Q

define granulation tissue

A

vascularised tissue that forms as chronic inflammation involves
(new capillaries make the tissue appear pink)

100
Q

3 phases of wound healing

A

inflammatory phase
proliferation phase
maturation phase

101
Q

what happens in the inflammatory phase of wound healing

what signs can you see? what cells at work?

A

blood vessels contract and blood clot is formed
when haemostasis is achieved blood vessels then dilate for essential cells (antibodies, WBC, growth factor, enzymes and nutrients to reach wounded area)
can see signs of erythema, heat, oedema, and functional disturbance
predominant cells at work are phagocytic cells (neutrophils, macrophages)

102
Q

what happens in the proliferation phase of wound healing

A

wound is rebuilt with new granulation tissue
(comprised of collagen and extracellular matrix)
(angiogenesis occurs here)
epithelial cells then resurface the wound (called epithelisation)

103
Q

what is healthy granulation tissue dependent on?

A

fibroblasts receiving sufficient levels of oxygen and nutrients supplied by the blood
should be uneven in texture, does not bleed easily and is pink in colour

104
Q

what is dark granulation tissue an indicator of

A

an indicator of poor profusion, ischaemia, and/or infection

105
Q

what happens during the maturation phase of wound healing

A

final phase
occurs once the wound has closed
involved remodelling of collagen from type III to type I
Cellular activity reduces and the number of blood vessels in the wounded area regresses and decreases

106
Q

how many types of skin in the Fitzpatrick skin type scale

A

6

107
Q

Define bulla

A

raised, fluid-filled lesion larger than a vesicle

108
Q

define fissure

A

crack or break in the skin

109
Q

define macule

A

flat, coloured spot

110
Q

define nodule

A

solid, raised lesion larger than a papule, usually indicative of systemic disease

111
Q

define papule

A

small, circular, raised lesion at the surface of the skin

112
Q

define plaque

A

a small, abnormal patch of tissue on a body part or an organ.

113
Q

define pustule

A

raised lesion containing pus, often in a hair follicle or sweat pore

114
Q

define ulcer

A

lesion resulting from destruction of the skin and perhaps subcutaneous tissue

115
Q

define vesicle

A

small, fluid filled, raised lesion; blister or bleb

116
Q

define wheal

A

smooth, rounded, slightly raised area often associated with itching; seen in urticaria such as resulting from an allergy

117
Q

what is sebbhoreic keratosis

A

highly variable appearance
flat or raised papule or plaque
1mm to several cm in diameter
can be skin coloured, yellow, grey, light brown, dark brown, black or mixed colour
smooth, waxy or warty surface
appear to stick on skin surface like barnacles

118
Q

describe basal cell carcinoma (BCC)

A

slow growing lesion
classically a nodule with a central crust and telangiectasia
high risk area of the T-zone (should be referred to secondary care within two weeks)

119
Q

define telangiectasia

A

spidery in appearance blood vessels, sharp and demarcated to the tip of the lesion

120
Q

describe keratin horn

A

prevents you from identifying an underlying lesion
50% have a benign base
should be referred as risk of malignancy

121
Q

describe squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

A 
keratinocyte tumour
more common in elderly male
increased risk of other skin cancers
larger lesions carry worse prognosis
quick onset
usually painful
122
Q

what is a BCC a tumour of

A

the basoloid epithelium

123
Q

what is a keratoacanthoma

A 
rapidly growing volcanic like lesion
can form on sites of trauma
tend to resolve spontaneously
not malignant
difficult to differentiate between SCC
124
Q

what is a actinic keratosis

A

very common (usually on protruding bits and mens scalps)
pre-cancerous
(rare to progress to SCC but can increase with the more you have)
prevention better than cure

a rough, scaly patch on the skin that develops from years of sun exposure.

125
Q

treatment options for actinic keratosis

A 
nothing
emollient
topical chemotherapy agents
cryotherapy
surgical removal
126
Q

what are sebaceous cysts and how are they treated

A

benign lesions
surgical removal required when not inflamed
have to make sure entire sack is removed otherwise it will be recurring
on skin its called an epidermal cyst, on scalp its a pilar cyst

127
Q

What is Hutchinson sign a sign of and what does it look like

A

a malignant lesion (subungal melanoma)

looks like longitudinal brown-black pigmentation on nails

128
Q

What is Fitzpatrick sign a sign of and what does it look like

A

a benign lesion (dermatofibroma)

looks like:dimple sign, sign in which lateral pressure on the skin produces a depression.

129
Q

what is a lipoma

A

benign fatty lumps
they are mobile under the skin
can be painful if traumatised/or on bony prominence

130
Q

what is a dermatofibroma and how does it look

A

benign fibrous nodule
probable reactive process
skin looks shiny and stretched
hard to touch

131
Q

describe keloid scar

A

firm smooth growth secondary to trauma
the worst site - necklace to navel
more common in people of colour

132
Q

what is a cherry angioma

A

noncancerous (benign) skin growth made up of blood vessels
(increase in number over the age of 40)
(can be linked to pregnancy and rarely malignant)

133
Q

what is a Moe’s surgery

A

they take the lesion out and a histologist sits with you and you remove layer by layer

134
Q

what is erythema multiforme

A

symmetrical, red, raised skin areas that can appear all over the body.
usually noticeable on hands and feet
most common cause: Herpes simplex virus
spontaneously resolves within 4 weeks

135
Q

what does periorbital mean

A

around the eyes

136
Q

what is cellulitis

A

deep inflammation of subcutaneous and dermis
presents as unilateral - hot, tender leg
(occasionally has blisters)|

137
Q

risk factors for cellulitis

A 
defective barrier
diabetes/immunosuppresion
chronic lymphedema 
peripheral vascular disease
previous cellulitis
138
Q

what is lipodermatosclerosis
what does it typically look like
what is it linked to
how do you treat it

A

results from chronic inflammation and fibrosis of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue of the lower legs
in acute phase may be painful and red
(no systemic upset)
linked to obesity
Inverted champagne flute (tight around ankle then flares out towards calves)

compression for treatment

139
Q

what is paronchyia

acute treatment?

A

acute infection around nail (usually bacterial)
usually vey painful
treatment: warm soaks, topical antiseptic if localised, antibiotics if not localised

140
Q

what is erytheroderma and its causes

A

severe and potentially life-threatening inflammation of most of the body’s skin surface
causes: dermatitis, psoriasis, drugs, leukaemia, idiopathic

141
Q

what to look for in erythroderma

A 
Pustules (infection or pustular psoriasis)
Superficial blisters (acute dermatitis)
Keratoderma
Nail changes
Lymphadenopathy
142
Q

treatment for erythroderma

A

stop all non-essential drugs
emollients
treat underlying infection
fluid balance and control

143
Q

what is pyoderma gangrenosum

A

rare condition that causes large, painful sores (ulcers) to develop on your skin, most often on your legs.
• Neutrophilic dermatosis (lots of neutrophils causing inflammation)

144
Q

what is necrotising fasciitis

A

bacterial infection of soft tissue and fascia
Pain out of proportion to how it looks (agony)
Most common site is lower leg
Severe pain and systemically unwell
Needs surgical debridement

145
Q

what is SJS

A

Steven - johnson syndrome

146
Q

what is TEN

A

toxic epidermal necrolysis (Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a life-threatening skin disorder characterized by a blistering and peeling of the skin. This disorder can be caused by a drug reaction—often antibiotics or anticonvulsives.)

147
Q

what is Eczema herpeticum

A

small punched out ulcers

common in children with atopic eczema

148
Q

what is generalised pustular psoriasis

A

rare
sterile pustules on an erythemous background
can occur in response to stopping steroids, pregnancy, drugs

149
Q

how is skin colour determined

A

melanocytes in the stratum basale
(all skin types have the same number of melanocytes)
melanosomes produce melanin
(melanin is carried by the keratinocytes up the epidermis layer)

150
Q

where do you look for jaundice

A

in the eyes

151
Q

where do you look for cyanosis

A

nail beds
less obvious around the mouth
under the tongue

152
Q

how to look for urticaria in skin of colour

A

feel the skin (should be raised)

won’t see the erythema as clearly

153
Q

what is Mongolian blue spot (skin of colour)

A

flat bluish- to bluish-gray skin markings commonly appearing at birth or shortly thereafter
lumbosacral dermal melanocytosis
Caused by entrapment of melanocytes in dermis of developing embryo
usually resolves by four years of age but can last forever

154
Q

what is ochranosis

A

the bluish black discoloration of certain tissues
from hydroquinone deposition in the skin (people of colour use it to lighten their skin)
usually on face when related to hyroquinone

155
Q

what can secondary hypopigmentation be due to

A

corticosteroid injection

• More common if injections are instilled subcutaneously or intradermally

156
Q

what is vitiligo

A

acquired depigmentation syndrome
(loss of melanocytes)
its an autoimmune condition
more cosmetically significant in people of colour

157
Q

what is Dermatosis papulosa nigra

A

benign
• Multiple smooth black/brown papules on the face and neck

most common in black females
(histology same as sebbhoreic keratosis)

158
Q

what is melanonychia

A

is brown or black discolouration of a nail
benign
common in darker skin types
look for multiple lines to confirm diagnosis (check toes too)

159
Q

what is an aural melanoma

A

type of melanoma arising on the palms or soles.
(in darker skins this is the most common)
not related to sun exposure
malignant

160
Q

what is a subungal melanoma

A

presents as brown-black discolorations of the nail bed. It can present as either a streak of pigment or irregular pigmentation. The discoloration can progress to thickening, splitting, or destruction of the nail with pain and inflammation.

161
Q

what is traction alopecia

A

caused by repeated trauma to hair follicles or from pulling your hair back into tight hairstyles
encourage less traction on hair
apparent in darker skin type hairstyles

162
Q

what is Acanthosis nigricans

when does it usually appear

A

It causes thicker and darker patches or streaks, usually in skin creases and folds, such as the sides and back of the neck, armpits, elbow pits, and groin. But it can show up anywhere on the body.

can appear in people with ovarian cysts, underactive thyroids or problems with the adrenal glands.

163
Q

what is a regional flap in plastic surgery

A

conducted when tissue is transferred from a part of the body in or near the head and neck region and rotated into the surgical defect.

164
Q

what is a local flap in plastic surgery

A

when your surgeon takes tissue from 1 part of your body (called the donor site) and moves it to the surgical site that needs to be covered (called the recipient site). Local flaps can be used for reconstructing different areas of the body.

165
Q

what is a free flap in plastic surgery

A

involves the transfer of a patient’s own tissue from a donor site to a recipient site, which is typically the site of a defect. The donor site usually has a distant location with respect to the recipient site.

166
Q

what are two skin substitutes (plastic surgery)

A

integra (synthetic skin replacement used to reconstruct wounds after elective planned surgery)
matriderm (acellular dermal substitute with porous membrane three-dimensional structure composed of collagen and elastin from bovine ligament and dermis, applicable for full-thickness skin defects.)

167
Q

how should you go about describing a rash

A

• Site, distribution, colour, shape, border

168
Q

true/false: IgE levels are raised in cases of eczema

A

true

169
Q

6 different types of emollients

A

lotions - thin
creams - thicker but can be greasy
ointments - thick and greasy
sprays - for sensitive and hard to reach places
bath additives (little to no area to support evidence)\
bleach baths

170
Q

discoid/ nummular eczema discussion

A

defined by scattered, well-defined, coin-shaped and coin-sized plaques of eczema
resistant to treatment
important differential - fungal infection (eczema has all over scale whereas fungal is usually just the outside with central sparing)

171
Q

varicose eczema discussion

A

really common
eczema on lower legs
linked to varicose veins
Haemosiderin - brown appearance, blood has leaked out and is sat in the skin
can be called stasis or gravitational eczema

172
Q

Dyshidrotic/pompholyx eczema discussion

A 
is a skin condition where you get itchy blisters on your hands and feet.
intensely itchy
skin looks bubbly at surface
responds well to topical steroids
associated with stress
173
Q

Asteatotic eczema discussion

A

a type of eczema that is more common in older people. It usually affects the shins but sometimes affects other areas such as the thighs, arms, tummy and back.
use loads of emollients
common in hospitals because peoples legs get dry

174
Q

what is intertrigo

A

inflammation caused by skin-to-skin friction, most often in warm, moist areas of the body, such as the groin, between folds of skin on the abdomen, under the breasts, under the arms or between the toes

175
Q

what is tinea pedis

A

fungal skin infection that usually begins between the toes. It commonly occurs in people whose feet have become very sweaty while confined within tight-fitting shoes. Signs and symptoms of athlete’s foot include an itchy, scaly rash.

176
Q

what is tinea versicolour

A

common fungal infection of the skin. The fungus interferes with the normal pigmentation of the skin, resulting in small, discolored patches. These patches may be lighter or darker in color than the surrounding skin and most commonly affect the trunk and shoulders.

177
Q

what is tinea cruris

A

fungal infection that causes a red and itchy rash in warm and moist areas of the body. The rash often affects the groin and inner thighs and may be shaped like a ring. Jock itch gets its name because it’s common in athletes

178
Q

what is alopecia areata

A

Smooth patches of hair loss with exclamation mark hairs(short broken hairs) around edge
strong link to autoimmune condition

179
Q

what is scabies

treat with?

A

very itchy skin condition caused by tiny mites burrowing into your skin.
• Looks on wrists and between finger web spaces for signs of burrows
• Treat with dermal lyclear cream twice 7 days apart (for eggs that havent hatched)
• Treat everyone who has been in contact
• Itch may persist for weeks after treatment (eczema from burrows)

180
Q

what is molluscum contagiosum

A

usually a harmless infection that causes small dimpled spots to appear on the skin.
small, firm spots that have a dimple in the middle. They can be itchy.
goes over a matter of months
widespread in an adult - think HIV

181
Q

what is rosacea

what do you treat the symptoms with?

A

common skin condition that causes blushing or flushing and visible blood vessels in your face.
can occur with papules and pustules
can cause rhinopehyma - change in nose shape due to papules and pustules
• Treat flushing with vasoconstrictors
• Treat papules and pustules with metronidazole gel
• Treat rhinophyma with surgery or laser

182
Q

what is hypodermis

A

subcutaneous tissue

183
Q

non-epithelial cells in epidermal layer

A

melanocytes
langerhan’s (dendritic) cells - type of macrophage
Merkel cells - sensory receptors to touch

184
Q

where do melanocytes sit in epidermis

A

basement membrane

185
Q

how thick is the stratum basal (basal layer) in epidermis

A

one cell thick

186
Q

how do sebaceous glands develop

A

as an outgrowth of the hair external root sheath

187
Q

describe eccrine glands

A 
all over body
simple secretory coil in epidermis with pore opening on surface via duct
secrete watery hypotonic solution
thermoregulation
pH 4-6 reduces fungal growth
lubrication
188
Q

describe apocrine glands

A

straight narrow ducts running parallel to hair follicles
secretory portion is located in the dermis and/or hypodermic
ductal portion similar to eccrine ducts
thick secretion into adjacent hair follicle
involved in pheromone secretion
under hormonal control

189
Q

what is parakeratosis

A

presence of nucleated keratinocytes in the stratum corneum
○ Thought to be due to accelerated keratinocytic turnover
○ Scaly appearance
○ Can occur in benign and malignant skin conditions

190
Q

what is JACCOL

A 
jaundice
anaemia
clubbing
cyanosis
oedema
lymphadenopathy
191
Q

what to do in a skin examination

A
  1. Inspect
    1. Describe
    2. Palpate
    3. Systemic check
192
Q

what does it mean if lesions are discrete

A

individual lesions are separate and distinct

193
Q

what does it mean if lesions are grouped

A

they are clustered together

194
Q

what does it mean if lesions are confluent

A

they merge so discrete lesions are not visible or palapable

195
Q

what does it mean if lesions are linear

A

they form a line

196
Q

what does it mean if lesions are annular

A

they are arranged in a single ring or circle

197
Q

what does it mean if lesions are polycyclic

A

they are arranged in concentric circles

198
Q

what does it mean if lesions are arciform

A

they form arcs or curves

199
Q

what does it mean if lesions are reticular

A

they form a mesh like network

CBL Year 2 (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions