Sky new Flashcards
(141 cards)
1
Q
What turns on the emergency lighting system
A
Loss of DC power bus 4
2
Q
Fully charged emergency lighting. Battery should provide light for how long.
A
15min
3
Q
What is the wingspan of a 747 400
A
211.5ft or 64.4 meters
4
Q
When are the landing lights at their maximum intensity?
A
In the winger lover is in down position
5
Q
What is the purpose of the flight deck access lights?
A
To gain access to the flight deck with the ground handling bus powered
6
Q
When do the no smoking and fasten seatbelt signs automatically eliminate regardless of search position
A
When the supernumerary oxygen is on
7
Q
What is the advantage of selecting LWR on the Beacon light switch
A
The upper lights won’t flash low, visibility
8
Q
What is the turning radius with the body gear steering armed?
A
The minimum runway width for a 180° turn is 153ft or 46.6m
9
Q
Where is the emergency equipment located on the BCF?
A
Bulkhead just forward of left upper deck door
10
Q
The escape rope for door, L1 is located where
A
In the upper door sill
11
Q
Bleed air is used in what systems
A
Pressurization
Air-conditioning
Water pressurization
Smoke detection, cargo compartment
Hydraulic reservoir pressurization
AFT cargo heat
Demands air driven hydraulic
Starters engines
Anti-ice wing & engine
Leading edge flaps
Thrust reverses
12
Q
Can the APU provide bleeder in flight? Up to what altitude.
A
Yes, for one pack only up to 15,000
13
Q
Turning engine bleed switch off does what
A
Closes the
Engine bleed valve
PRV pressure regulating valve ,(will open back up for NAI or thrust reverse)
HP valve high-pressure ,(valve will open back up for thrust reverse)
14
Q
If the switch is off, is NAI still available for the engine? Thrust reverse
A
Yes, anti-IC is still available unless:
PRV failed close
HP valve failed open
PRV closed automatically as a result of a bleed air overheat
Engine start valves has not closed
B. Yes, thrust reversing still available unless:
PRV filled closed
PRV closed automatically as result of a bleed air overheat
Engine start valve has not closed
15
Q
What will illuminate the system fault light
A
Bleed air overheat
Bleed air over pressure pressure
HP bleed valve open when commanded close
PRV open when commanded close
16
Q
With the system, fault, light illuminated, is reversing available on landing?
A
Yes, unless light is on due to an overheat
17
Q
What unit in the bleed air system reduces, bleed air temperature,
A
Fan air pre-cooler
18
Q
With a bleed1234 OVHT/PRV what systems are no longer available
A
Naselle anti-ice
Reverse thrust
19
Q
APU bleed air is supplied to which duct
A
Center section of the bleed air duct
20
Q
Where is the duct pressure displayed?
A
Primary EICAS
ECS synoptic page
21
Q
What areas receive anti-ice protection
A
Engine Nacelle
Wings
Windshield
probe heat
Ice detection
Flight deck window heat
22
Q
Under what weather condition is NAI required to be on
A
Clouds
Fog, visibility, less than 1 mile
Rain, snow ice crystals
Ramp taxiways, runways with snow, ice slush, standing water
23
Q
Are the tat probes heated when.?
A
Yes, flight only
24
Q
What indications do we have with the NAI is on? WAI?
A
The NAI displayed to the left of the vertical N1 display; Wai at the bottom of the N1 displays, between number one, and two or three and four
25
What section of the wing is anti-iced
The leading edge
26
At flaps five, what portion of the leading edge is being deiced with WAI on
None, leading edge anti-icing is ineffective with the flaps extended
27
Which windows provide anti-ice and anti-fogging protection
All flight deck windows are electrically heated
The Front windows have both exterior surface icing and interior surface. Anti-fogging protection.
The side windows have interior surface, anti-fogging protection, only
28
When is anti-fogging available to the windows
Anytime the aircraft is powered, (the switch for each side is by the respective pilots Oxygen mask)
29
How do we reset a windshield heat controller fault
Turn the window heat switches off after 10 seconds, then back on
30
Where is the windshield washer fluid reservoir located?
Behind the door in the book storage area over the captains left shoulder.
31
What is the purpose of the OBS audio system switch on the overhead panel
If the captain or FOACP is in operative, allows their audio to be controlled with the observers ACP
32
When illuminated, what does the offside tuning light indicate?
The lighted radio Tuning panel is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with this radio tuning panel.
The radio normally associated with this panel is being tuned by another radio tuning panel
33
How many VHF radios are installed
Three left, C, R
34
With 121. Five selected on the right VHF, can the receiver volume control for the radio be turned off.
No, but the can be turned all the way down
35
How can we tune data into the CVHF?
Dial above 136. 000 or below 118. 000 on the big knob and select transfer.
36
How is the oxygen mask microphone operation verified during preflight
Select FLT microphone on the ACP
Speaker on
Select push to test on O2 panel along with EM ER knob
Simultaneously press, PTT button
On certain aircraft, you must also select ox on ACP and turn back to boom afterwards
37
How can you monitor for an IM signal during Cat II approach?
ON ACP ,select MKR and push volume knob
38
What should be seen when pushing the cockpit Voice Recorder test button?
Pulsating indications on meter
39
How many P TT switches are in the cockpit
7-10 depending upon aircraft (glare shield 2 ,yoke 2,ACP 3,hand mic 3
40
Selecting the SERV interphone switch to on does what
Connect ground crew stations around the aircraft to the flight intercom
41
What does the IDG stand for?
Integrated drive generator
42
How many AC power sources are available to the aircraft?
8 IDG’s ,2APU,2 to external power receptacles
43
What turns on an IDG drive light
High oil temp
Low oil pressure
Uncorrectable, frequency, fault
44
What is the purpose of the utility buses?
Load shedding, controlled by electrical load control unit ELCU
45
What buses are powered with number 1and number 2 external power available but not on
Ground handling bus (when APU 1 or external 1on or available)
Main deck, cargo handling bus (when APU 1 or external 1or available)
46
What bus normally powers the service bus? Is there an alternate means to power the bus
AC bus one is normal source
Can be powered by ground handling bus by pushing the L1 door, ground service switch
47
The APU in Main standby buses are normally powered from which bus
Main STBY bus; AC bus 3
APU standby bus: AC bus 3 via captains transfer bus
48
With the loss of the number 3 AC bus, the APU standby bus is powered from which source
AC bus 1 (via captain transfer bus)
APU standby Inverter (via APU hot bat bus ( if both AC bus 3and AC bus 1fail)
49
How can I isolate the number 4 DCIR
Deselect the # 4 bus tie switch
50
What will power the main deck cargo handling bus with number two external available and number two AP generator available?
Number two external power
51
What is the minimum oil quantity for dispatch
16
52
If EGT limit is exceeded what is indicated? On takeoff?
Depends on which EGT limit has been exceeded:
Start limit, red line, EGT, vertical indicator, digital value, and box turn red
Continuous limit Amberline, EGT, vertical indicator digital value in box turn Amber
Takeoff limit, redline, EGT, vertical indicator, digital value, and box turn red
53
The Amberline on the N1 indicator represents what
Maximum N1; N1 over boost limit EEC in norm)
The red line indicates operating limit
54
What valves are controlled by the fuel control switch?
Spar and engine fuel valves
55
When will standby ignition turn on if the switch is in normal
With loss of power, standby ignition just ensures a standby power source to the igniter, does not turn on igniter
56
When will continue ignition come on automatically
Normally, single igniter;
NAI selected on
Flaps out of up
Into below 50% during ground engine start
Normally, duel igniter
Engine flameout/in-flight start
57
What protection provided by the EEC
Overspeed and overboost
58
What is approach, idle active?
NAI selected on
Flaps and landing position
Continues ignition switch selected on
59
With the AP running, turning off the AP selector, does what
Closes a bleed air isolation valve
Initiates normal shut down with 60 second cool down cycle
Resets auto shut down, fault logic, except when shut down due to APU bleed duct leak
60
What are the five thrust reference selectable from the CDU?
TO
CLB
CRZ
CON
GA
61
How many fire bottles are on the BCF?
11 two per 6 cargo 1APU
62
After a fire test pass, what two systems are no longer being monitored by the aircraft
Wheel well
Leading edge, duct
63
With the engine fuel switch in run, can the fire switch be pulled?
The fire switches locked the field control switch in run, but it will be unlocked by:
Pressing the mechanical release switch
Fire, warning, signal, actual or test
64
Pulling the number one engine fire switch does what
Closes bleeder valve
Arms, the squib
Closes the hydraulic shut off valve
Depresses the hydraulic pump
Closes engine and spar fuel valves
Trip generator field
65
With a main, cargo fire, arming the main deck fire switch does what
Enables main deck, fire, suppression by turning off all air, float to the main deck, and all airflow and heat into the lower, cargo compartments, including:
Turns off two packs remaining pack goes to low flow
Configures equipment cooling to close loop
Closes master trim, air valve
66
Is a lower forward, cargo fire, pressing the cargo fire discharge, which does what. How many minutes of protection is provided
Discharges, two bottles immediately
Remaining 2–4 bottles tailed dependent begin to meter flow after 30 minutes or pond. Landing whichever occurs first.
Gives 334 minutes of protection or 180 minutes on ERF
67
Are the engine fire loops AN and or or logic system?
And
But reverts to, or logic, when configured for single loop operation due to a fault
The AP fire detection loops operate on or logic
68
What fire protection do we have in the wheel well
None
69
How many overheat loops are installed for the APU?
None
70
Where is the AU ground control panel located?
Right body gear wheel well
71
The stabilizer is powerful what hydraulic system?
2&3
72
What is the auto position of the stab trim cut out switch for?
Allows auto cut out if unscheduled stabbed trim is detected
73
When are the stab trim switches on the control wheel inhibited
Multiple auto pilots engaged
74
When do the outboard anilerons unlock?
Flaps out of up or airspeed low (lock with flaps up and airspeed high)
75
Speed, braking arm when do the speed brakes deploy on landing? Not arm?
Armed
Thrust levers, one and three near the closed position
Main gear touchdown switch
Not armed
Thrust levers, one and three near closed position
Main gear touchdown switch
Reverse lever, two or four reverse idle
76
What flap protection is provided in secondary mode?
Trailing edge flap the symmetry only( not flap load relief)
77
What will occur if the trailing edge flap is in the secondary mode with hydraulic pressure available?
Trailing edge flap will be driven electrically instead of hydraulic at a much slower rate, they will remain in secondary mode until fully retracted.
Lef-stay in secondary mode until reaching selected position
Ted-secondary mode due to loss of hydraulic pressure, they will switch back to primary mode as soon as hydraulic pressure is restored, but since the question said that they were in secondary mode with hydraulic pressure available, they must’ve been some other fault
78
In the alternate control mode how is flap extension sequenced
All leading and trailing edge flat roofs begin immediately
TEF extends to a maximum position of flaps 25
During retraction all LEF groups retract after the inboard TEF are completely retracted
79
On landing, why does the flat position indicator change from green to magenta?
Due to inboard and mid span, LEF retracting, when reverse thrust is commanded
80
What is the max altitude for flap extension?
FL200
81
When is the pitched limit indicator displayed on the PFD and what is its purpose?
Displayed: when flaps out of up
Purpose: stick shaker, activation point
82
What is/are the input sources for the command speed display on the PFD?
Speed set on mode, control panel(mcp window open)
FMC computed speed (when window is blank)
83
What identifies the active waypoint on the ND
Magenta star
84
The altitude range arc green arc displays what information
Indicates where MCP altitude will be reached, based on current vertical speed and groundspeed
85
The WXR, STA, WPT, AARPT, DATA, POS, and TERR on the EFIS control panel display what information when pushed each individually
WXR – powers the radar, trans. Selected on the center console WX radar control panel, display radar returns on respective ND and deselect terr
Modes: MAP, MAPCTR, VOR, and APP
STA Dash displays VOR‘s according to range
Less than 40 NM – high and low, VOR greater than 80 nautical mile – high VOR only
MAPNMAPCTR
WPT – displays white points range selector is 40 NM or less
Mode, MP and MPCTR
AARP Dash in MAP and MA P center mode displays airports in all ranges airports with runaways longer than 6000 feet
Mod: MAPNMA P center
DATA Dash displays FMCET and health to constraints at each waypoint
MAP, MAPCTR, and plan
Pause – displays, navigational, inputs, including:
VOR – displays raw data radios from the VOR tuned on the NVR page, extending from no apply with DME ends at VOR without DME radio ends at VOR
IRU – display of IRU with a snowflake symbol
GPS displays GPS position
Modes: M A,P and MAPCTR
TERR – displays GPS look ahead train data and D’lex WX radar
Green dash train 500 feet to 2000 feet below aircraft altitude
Amber – terrain 500 feet below 2000 feet above altitude aircraft
Red terrain, greater than 2000 feet above altitude of aircraft
MAPMAPCTR, VOR, and APP
86
If the captains INDB and LWR EICAS CRT is an offer, how and where could the HYD synoptic information be displayed
On the first officers selecting EAS on NBD CRT knob
87
In what ND modes will Weather raider not be displayed
PLAN, VORCTR, and a PPR CRT
88
What indicates the route modifications on the ND
A white dash line
89
Standby horizon is powered from what source
Main battery bus
90
When will the G/S space and LOC indicators/scales display and when will they fill to the solid magenta
Display when signal is received frequency tuned and identified
Solid: when within 2 1/3 dots from center
91
What is the maximum amount of fuel we can carry impound with a field density of 6.7 per gallon
359, 414 LBS
92
With the aircraft, completely full of fuel, discuss the different field, configurations, beginning with engine start through landing
On ground
After engineer – CWT pumps were selected on before start because there was more than 17,000 pounds in the CWT. All engines are fed from CWT by the CWT override/jettison pumps through the crossfeed manifold.
The two and three main tank override/jettison pumps are armed because the CWT space override/jettison pumps are on. All main tank boost pumps are on, but overridden by the higher pressure from the CWT.
2.
Setting T/O flaps crusted valves, two and three clothes with system. Logic engines, one and four are fed from CWT by the CWT override/jettison pumps. Engines two and three are fed from their respective tanks by their respective main tank boost pumps. The main tank override/jettison pumps remain armed, because CWT override/jettison pumps are on.
Climb
Flaps up – system logic opens two and three crossfeed valves. All engines are once again fed by the CWT override/jettison pumps out of CWT.
Less than 7000 pounds in CWT during climb this condition is rare and will only occur when departing with not much more than 17,000 pounds in the center wing tank. The fuel pulled in the back of the CWT, while the pumps are near the front, and we don’t want them to cavitate. CAS fuel low CTR space L/R space comes on, and when we turn off the CWT pumps. The armed main tank two and three over ride/jettison pumps, turn on, and feed all four engines through the crossfeed manifold.
Cruise
Greater than 4000 pounds of fuel and CWT previous steps, was accomplished during climb. The EICAS message fuel OVD cTR L/R. Displays after the aircraft levels off and accelerates pitch less than 5° directing us to turn the center wing tank override jettison pumps back on.
Less than 3000 pounds fuel in center win tank the message feel low CTR space L/R space displays on EICAS. Space CWT space pumps must be turned back off. That 3000 pounds remaining in the center wing tank for several hours override jettison pumps from main tanks, two and 3 feet all four engines through the cross feed manifold Engines one and two receive field from the number two main tank and engines three and four receive fill from the number three main tank due to proximity to the pump. The two sides are now isolated from each other.
Less than 40, 2200 pounds in the inboard main tanks, reserve tanks two and three begin to transfer to main tanks two and three transfer valves stay open for the remainder of the flight the CT scavenge activates to salvage the remaining 3000 LBS transferred to maintain tanks. Number two. It will run for 120 minutes or until low pressure is sensed ?
When all main tank quantities are approximately even 29,000 pounds EICAS message field tank to engine display select override pump off and then close one and four Crossfields in the order EICAS message will blank upon closing crossfeed bels even if you forget to turn off the override pumps, the aircraft is in tank hundred configuration with the main tank, boost pumps, feeding each engine from its respective tank for the rest of the flight
93
How do we and what happens when we jettison fuel
94
What is the difference between total feel, and calculated fuel? When are the values different?
Total calculated is what the field quantity system is reading in the tanks calculated fuel calculation of the that should remain based on how much the engine have used
A few league will make these values different significantly
95
Protein start with usable fill in the center wound tank after field pump configuration are the number two and number three override jettison pumps on or armed
Armed, even though the switches are on
96
What is the max feel balance between one and four and two and three?
EICAS message feel imbalance 1–4 comes on at a difference of 3000 pounds
EICAS message fuel imbalance one and four comes on at a difference of 6000 pounds
97
What is the purpose of the number one and four transfer valves?
Open to allow gravity transfer from outboard to inboard main tanks will transfer until approximately 7000 pounds between each outboard tank
Automatically opened during jettison one main tanks, two and three have less than 20,000 pounds
Those me be open manually using the field, transform main one and four switch on the overhead panel, but this is normally just a maintains function to correct in balance on the ground
98
Does the flow bar disappear on the crossfeed two and for transfer valves?
No flow bar in the end board crossfeed, just means that the valve is controlled by system logic not necessarily that it is open
99
After position the field jettison selector to a or B, where does the fuelto remain value display
Replaces field temp on the primary EICAS
100
What’s activated how long will the scavenge pump operate?
120 minutes or until the low pressure is sensed by the pump
101
What three things will illuminate the system fault light
Closest system, pressure system, quantity excessive temperature
102
What will turn on the number for demand pump the switch is in auto
Control switch selected off
Low EDP pressure
Flaps and transit on the ground
Flops out of up in flight
103
And sent into LAX the number for hydraulic quantity goes to zero what systems would be affected for the approach in landing?
Wing gear actuation
Right outboard elevator
Outboard, trailing edge flaps
In board spoilers, 567 and eight
Rate outboard, aileron
Normal brakes, including auto brakes
104
What’s the loss of number one hydraulic quantity? What systems will be affected for the approach and landing?
Center auto pilot
No body gear steering
Nose body gear, actuation
Left outboard elevator
Inboard, trailing edge flaps
Alternate brake source one of two
105
With loss of system, two and three why is there a speed additive for the approach?
Loss of steps from an elevator field is in the degraded mode within input only from mechanical Springs
106
On landing the brake source light illuminates what does it mean?
Loss of normal and alternate brakes systems 4,1,2
107
The demand pumps are powered how
One and four are pneumatic
Two and three are electric
Whitney engines
All 4 are pneumatic
108
The hyd aux pumps is or are powered from which source
Ground handling bus
109
With the number for ox pump on and providing pressure, will the hydraulic system fault light be on or off?
Off
110
What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch where do you read this value?
0.80 on the step page on the lower EICAS
111
How many tires do we have and what is the numerical order?
18 encounter clockwise
112
Selecting value three on the auto brakes selector does what from which source does the auto brake system receive deceleration inputs
Pain fixed deceleration rate, so it will ease off the brakes when other de acceleration force factors, such as speed break, and thrust reversers kick in
113
What does the EICAS message gear tilt mean?
Main gear truck, not in full tilt position after takeoff
114
How do we ultimately extend the gear and where are the switches located?
To alternate nose/body and wing gear switches pushed on
Floor landing gear panel to the right of the gear lever
115
Do you have a wheel well slayer what speed should you be at before extending the gear?
270 KTS or .82 MACH
116
And takeoff roll windows RTO arm what kind of breaking is provided
85KTS
Max breaking
117
What does the white hash box displayed on the expanded gear position indicator indicate
Gear is in transit
118
How long does the gear up indication remain on the EICAS
10sec
119
At what speed does the body gear steering Disarm
Greater 20 kts on takeoff roll ,rearms at 15 kts on landing, roll or reject
120
What does the brake torque limiting system do?
Prevents excessive torque to preventing landing gear damage functions like an ant skid, but it is for excessive torque instead of skidding tire. Excessive torque is detected by sensors the ant skin system receive a signal to release break.
121
What are the 3 levels of EICAS alerting
Alerts (warning caution advisory
Memo reminds crew of configuration/equipment
Status discrepancies Mel etc.
122
Cana warning EICAS msg be cancelled
No
123
When the fire bell and master warning lights inhibited
From V1 until 400’ AFE or 25 sec after V1
124
What items will activate the takeoff config warning
Flops and takeoff position
Body gear steering, not centered
Parking brakes set
Speed, brake lever, not in down detent
Stab trim not, in takeoff range
Wrong runway programmed into fms and NG box reference
125
When is predictive windshield system, active
Manually on the ground, when weather is selected on the EFIS control, panel, and the weather radar is in any mode other than test
Automatically on the ground when takeoff thrust 60% to 70% and one is set
Automatically in flight below 2300 feet over caution and warnings are generated only when the airplane is below 1200 feet AGL
126
In what phase of flight will you get a GPS don’t sink warning
Al to loss with flaps and/or gear up after takeoff or go around
127
What is the purpose of the event record switch how many events can be recorded?
Record currently displayed engine parameters in additional MX info
Up to five events may be recorded. A sixth recording will record record over the first.
128
What is a status message?
In the equipment faults requiring MEL reference prior to dispatch
129
What does the TCAS alert traffic traffic mean
Traffic advisory a resolution advisory means conflict is within 20 to 30 seconds. Crew action is required.
130
What switch turns on TCAS advisories on the ND
TFC button on EFIS control panel
131
What is the maximum wind limit for operating the main cargo door?
40 KTS
132
What is the max ZFW of the BCF
610000
133
What is the max Tillman for takeoff in landing?
15kts
134
What is the max takeoff Crosswind component for a dry runway landing?
40 KTS
36KTS
135
What is the max depth of slush for landing?
0.5
136
What is the max landing weight of the ERF?
653000
137
What is the minimum crew oxygen dispatch pressure
1400psi
138
What is the minimum TCH?
40’
139
What is the max N1
117.5%
140
What is the max engine start egt
750 GE
535 P&W
141
