SM 133a - Hypertension Pathophysiology and Pharmacology Flashcards

(48 cards)

1
Q

What is the threshold for medical hypertension treatment if a patient has >10% risk of developing heart disease?

A

Blood pressure should be treated if it is >130 systolic or >80 diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the threshold for medical hypertension treatment if a patient has <10% risk of developing heart disease?

A

Blood pressure should be treated if it is >140 systolic or >90 diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Home blood pressure readings over the course of 1 week measure 125/85

Which blood pressure category does this fall into?

A

Stage I Hypertension

(130-139 systolic or 80-89 diastolic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List the ranges for each category. Note: if systolic and diastolic fall into different categories, go with the higher classification

Normal:

Elevated:

Stage I Hypertension:

Stage II Hypertension:

A

Normal: <120/<80

Elevated: 120-129/<80

Stage I Hypertension: 130-139/80-89

Stage II Hypertension: >140/>90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many measurements are required to make a diagnosis of hypertension?

A

At least 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 3 major physiologic determinants of blood pressure?

A

Volume: Stroke volume and total blood volume

Vascular tone

Cardiac Output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List the mechanisms by which Angiotensin II effects blood pressure

A
  • Sympathetic activation
  • Smooth muscle vasoconstriction
  • Decreased bradykinin -> Prevention of vasodilation
  • Na+ and H2O retention
    • By increasing aldosterone in the adrenal cortex
    • By increasing ADH in the brain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 4 options for first-line hypertension treatment?

A
  • Thiazide diuretics
    • Hydrochlorothiazide
  • ACE inhibitors
    • -pril drugs
  • ARBs
    • -sartan drugs
  • Calcium Channel Blockers
    • Verapamil, Diltiazem, Nifedipine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the mechanism and site of action of thiazide drugs

A

Thiazides like hydrochlorothiazide and chlorthalidone block the Na+-Cl- symporter in the distal convoluted tubule

This traps Na+ in the urinary space, leading to increased K+ excretion via Na+/K+ exchanger activity

(Can combine with an ACE inhibitor to preserve K+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give 2 examples of thiazide drugs

A

hydrochlorothiazide and chlorthalidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the mechanism and site of action of furosemide, torsemide, and bumetanide

A

The -(m/n)ide drugs are loop diuretics

They block the Na+-K+-2Cl- symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

This traps these ions in the urinary space, leading to acute volume loss. They are best used for rapid diuresis, while thiazides are better tolerated in the long term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which diuretics are effective for acute volume loss, but are not recommended for long-term therapy (except in patients who have chronic kidney disease)?

A

Loop duretics: Furosemide, torsemide, and bumetanide

Note: combine with saline if the patient is hypercalcemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What blood pressure measurements constitute a hypertensive emergency?

A

SBP>180 or DBP >120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List 4 K+ sparing diuretics

A
  • Renal epithelial Na+ channel blockers
    • Triamterene
    • Amiloride
  • Renal epithelial mineralcorticoid receptor blockers
    • Spironolactone
    • Eplerenone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List 3 loop diruetics

Who are these drugs recommended for?

A

Furosemide, torsemide, and bumetanide

Effective for acute volume loss, but are not recommended for long-term therapy (except in patients who have chronic kidney disease)

Note: combine with saline if the patient is hypercalcemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which drugs act by blocking the renal epithelial Na+ channels in the late distal tubule and collecting duct?

A

Triamterene

Amiloride

(K+ sparing diuretics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the mechanism and site of action of Triamterene and Amiloride

A

Triamterene and Amiloride act by blocking the renal epithelial Na+ channels in the late distal tubule and collecting duct of the kidney. They are K+ sparing diuretics

If less Na+ gets into the epithelial cells, less K+ is expelled from them (via decreased activity of the Na+/K+ exchanger)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the mechanism and site of action of spironolactone and eplerenone

A

Spironolactone and eplerenone are aldosterone receptor antagonists. They block mineralcorticoid receptors (aka the aldosterone receptor) on epithelial cells in the late distal tubule and collecting duct of the kidney. They are K+ sparing diuretics

If less Na+ gets into the epithelial cells, less K+ is expelled from them (via decreased activity of the Na+/K+ exchanger)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What drugs would you give to a hypertensive patient despite thiazide therapy who is also hypokalemic?

A

K+ sparing duretic

Tiamterene, amiloride, spironolactone, or eplerenone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the effects of aldosterone on blood pressure

A

Aldosterone acts on the distal nephron to increase blood pressure by promoting Na+ absorption

By promoting the absorption of Na+, K+ and H+ are excreted

21
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of clonidine

A

Clonidine is an adrenergic alpha2 receptor agonist

The alpha2 receptors is located on the presynaptic sympathetic neuron. It usually functions as a feedback mechanism that senses and then downregulates norepinephrine.

Clonidine “artificially” stimualtes the alpha2 receptors, thus inhibiting norepinephrine release and preventing vasoconstriction

22
Q

Which blood pressure medication is an alpha2 adrenergeic receptor agonist?

23
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of methyldopa

A

Methyldopa replaces norepinephrine in secretory vescicles of adrenergic neurons.

This blocks central adrenergic outflow through negative feedback mechanisms, thus inhibiting vasoconstriction

24
Q

Which blood pressure medication replaces norepinephrine in secretory vescicles of adrenergic neurons?

25
What are the two major centrally acting blood pressure medications?
**Methyldopa** (replaces norepinephrine in secretory vescicles of adrenergic neurons) **Clonidine** (alpha2 adrenergeic receptor agonist)
26
Which blood pressure medications are alpha1 adrenergic receptor **blockers?**
**-zosin** drugs Prazosin, Terazosin, Doxazosin
27
Describe the mechanism of action of -zosin drugs (Prazosin, Terazosin, Doxazosin)
-zosin drugs are **alpha1 receptor blockers** Inhibiting the alpha1 receptor = inhibition of vasoconstriction in response to adrenergic signaling The result is **decreased peripheral vascular resistance**
28
List 4 cardioselective beta blockers Which beta receptors are blocked?
Cardioselective = blocks beta1 receptors in the heart * Atenolol * Metoprolol * Carvedilol (also alpha1 blocker) * Labetalol
29
Which beta blockers act on beta1 and beta2 receptors?
Propanolol Timolol
30
Which drug is both beta1 and alpha1 adrenergic antagonist?
Carvedilol
31
Are beta-blockers conidered first line agents for hypertension? When are they used?
No; they are typically used with other agents (ACE inhibitor, thiazide, ARB, Ca2+ channel blocker), especially if the patient has heart failure
32
List 3 Ca2+ channel blockers that can be used to treat hypertension
* Non-dihydropyridines * Veramapil (a Phenylalkylamine) * Diltiazem (a Benzothiazepine) * Dihydropyridines * Nifedipine
33
What precaution should be taken when prescribing non-dihydropyridine drugs?
Do not use in conjunction with another agent that lowers heart rate (beta blocker), or in patients with LV systolic dysfunction
34
Describe the mechanism of action of verapamil
Verapamil is a non-dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blocker It blocks L-type Ca2+ channels in the **heart only** Less intracellular Ca2+ = decreased contractility = decreased stroke volume = decreased blood pressure
35
Describe the mechanism of aciton of diltiazem
Diltiazem is a non-dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blocker It blocks L-type Ca2+ channels in the **heart AND vascular smooth muscle**. This leads to... * Decreased cardiac contractility, leading to decreased BP * Decreased constriction in vascular smooth muscle
36
Describe the mechanism of action of nifedipine
Nifedipine (and other -dipines) are dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blocker They L-type Ca2+ channels in **vascular smooth muscle**. This leads to decreased constriction in vascular smooth muscle, which **decreases peripheral vascular resistance**
37
Which Ca2+ channel blocker acts on the heart only?
Veramapil (and other phenylalkylamines)
38
Which Ca2+ channel blocker acts on the heart and vascular smooth muscle?
Diltiazem (and other Benzothiazepines)
39
Which Ca2+ channel blocker acts on vascular smooth muscle only?
Nifedipine (and other dihydropyridines)
40
List 3 hypertension drugs that are peripheral vasodilators
Hydralazine, minoxidil, nitroprusside
41
Describe the mechanism of action of hydralazine
Peripheral vasodilator Relaxes arteriolar smooth muscle
42
Describe the mechanism of action of minoxidil
Peripheral vasodilator Activates K+ channels on vascular smooth muscle. This promotes **K+ efflux, hyperpolarizing the cell**. This prevents contraction and promotes relaxation
43
Describe the mechanism of action of nitroprusside
Peripheral vasodilator Nitroprusside is metabolzed by endothelial cells to **nitric oxide**, which **activates guanyl cyclase to increase cGMP, leading to vasodilation**
44
Which drugs should not be prescribed with diltiazem? Why?
Beta blockers Too much decrease in CO due to decreased HR
45
Which drugs should not be prescribed with ACE inhibitors? Why?
Spironolactone, eplerenone, triamterene, amiloride (K+ sparing diuretics) This would lead to hyperkalemia
46
Which drugs should not be prescribed with nifedipine?
Hydralazine Leads to edema
47
Which drugs should not be prescribed with hydralizine?
Nifedipine Leads to edema
48
What is the mechanism of action of -sartan drugs?
-sartan drugs are **angiotensin II receptor blockers**, also known as **ARBs**. They block the action of angiotensin II at AT1 to **promote vasodilation and Na+ excretion** Note: AT1 may also mediate the progression of atherosclerosis and myocardial remodeling; ARBs may inhibit this as well