Small Animal Med final- old quizzes Flashcards

(124 cards)

1
Q

what is pica?

A

hunger for something abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

example of pica for a dog

A

rocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does an animal get rid of increased body temperature

A

sweating
panting
decreased muscle movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Veterinary schools teach their students to work up cases using one of two methods. What are they?

A

POA: Problem Oriented Approach
SOAP: Subjective Objective Assessment Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

define problem?

A

an activity or observation of something that is abnormal from typical behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are 4 benefits from fever in an animal?

A

increased interferon
prevent growth of microorganisms
increased WBC motility
increased phagocytic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the characteristics that define F.U.O. ?

A

“fever of unknown origin”
duration of at least 2w
1.5 degrees above normal
unable to determine with PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are exogenous pyrogens?

A

fever inducing substances that come from outside the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

example of 4 exogenous pyrogens

A

gram + bacteria
tumor
viruses
bacterial endotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two categories of pyrexia?

A

pathologic
physiological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

define endothermic vertebrate

A

an animal able to regulate temperature by using the controls of specific body systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 3 components of plan formulation?

A

observation/data collection
therapeutic
client education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A newborn kangaroo is the size of a

A

lima bean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are some examples of primary anorexia?

A

headache
unpalatable diets
loss of smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some examples of secondary anorexia?

A

hypercalcemia
stress
malnutrition with ketosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some examples of pseudoanorexia?

A

mandibular paralysis
blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T/F: in normal animals. the accumulation of fat stores in the body tends to increase feeding desire

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T/F: pain inhibits the hunger center

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T/F: for most dogs, jumping up is a display of affection, however for some dogs, jumping up is the beginning of dominance

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F: cats are easier to give a pill to due to their small size than dogs are

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which is the most resistant microorganism?

A

Protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which is not an example of direct contact transmission ?

A

brucellosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F: Animals vomiting in recumbent positions usually results in aspiration

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The gold standard for “ steam under pressure” sterilization

A

121 degrees C at 15lbs/in squared for 15 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A nervous cat comes into the clinic and is "stressed out" while collecting blood for a screening test. Which WBC(s) is/are most likely to be elevated?
lymphocyte
26
A 6-year old, female dog in your care has an extremely high WBC count (22,000), high neutrophils, normal band, normal hemoglobin, low RBC's and high monocytes. What is most likely disease that would elicit these blood results?
pyometra
27
T/F: when using radiographs and one view shows the fracture, it is unnecessary and a waste of time and money to take other views
false
28
T/F: a general physical examination of most animals takes 20 min or more if done in a complete, systematic manner
false
29
What 2 WBC's will be elevated in a baby kitten with a severe, systemic flea infestation?
eosinophils basophils
30
what is the TPR of a dog?
T= 101 degrees F P= 120 bpm R= 25 breaths/min
31
what is the TPR of a cat?
T=101 degrees F P=120 bpm R= 28 breaths/min
32
define sanitation
the destruction of the bacterial #'s of contaminants to a safe (acceptable, normal) level
33
define disinfection
the destruction of most pathogenic microorganisms
34
give an example of a small animal disease that has fungus antigen
ringworm
35
give an example of a small animals disease that has protozoa antigen
cryptospotidiosis
36
What is "vector borne transmission" and give an example"
illness/disease brought to animal via different species and could be transmitted by the bite mosquitoes, heartworm
37
A cat has a low RBC count, a high PVC, low neutrophils, normal band cells, low WBC count and a high monocyte count. What is wrong with this cat?
anemic, dehydrated, viral disease
38
What is the technical term for the surgery to open up a bladder?
cystotomy
39
An acute, overhydrated dog with an overwhelming bacterial infection would show what on his CBC?
low PCV, low WBC, low segmented neutrophils, high bands
40
what is function of ethylene diamino tetraacetate or edetate?
to prevent blood from clotting
41
What is the most consistent, initial clinical sign of canine respiratory disease complex?
a dry, hacking cough and bringing up mucus while gagging
42
Which is not true about borreliosis?
10-65% of the common brown dog ticks harbor the spirochete
43
T/F: All 3 stages (larval, nymphal, adult) of the tick that causes borreliosis will feed on humans
true
44
What is the drug of choice for the treatment of borreliosis?
oxytetracycline
45
T/F: there is no rabies vaccine licensed for use in wild animals
true
46
T/F: dogs are more likely to experience the furious form of rabies
false
47
T/F: canine parvovirus is acute and contagious, and can be transmitted by both direct and indirect means
true
48
which 2 diseases can be spread through contaminated urine
parvo & leptospirosis
49
which disease contains a neurologic component to it?
canine distemper
50
T/F: canine distemper is a stable virus in the environment for years
false
51
The rabid cat will most likely go through the
prodromal form, then the furious form
52
Which scenario would be indicative of a cat with a current, active toxoplasmosis
increase IgM and decrease IgG
53
T/F: feline toxoplasmosis is a different diagnosis for cats with FUO
true
54
which virus a has reverse transcriptase enzyme?
feline leukemia virus
55
T/F: FIV is a relatively new disease and is similar to the human immunodeficiency virus but is species specific
false
56
T/F: FIP is tropic and cytotoxic for T-lymphocytes and thereby induces progressive and often fatal syndrome
false
57
T/F: barn cats or any outdoor cat should be vaccinated for leptospirosis
false
58
the etiology of FIP is a
corona virus
59
T/F: clinical signs of FVR and FCV is are usually self limiting in a 10-14 days
true
60
T/F: feline panleukopenia virus (FPV) is extremely stable as it can survive for years in the environment
true
61
Which of the following breeds would be a poor choice with the most aggressive traits?
dalmation
62
T/F: the positive response to anti-anxiety drug will support a neurological diagnosis
false
63
What is the treatment for coprophagia?
forbid
64
nippers older brother "psycho" was recently diagnosed with psychomotor aggression. You view a DVD of his latest brutal murder and quickly recommend_______ for his treatment
anticonvulsant
65
T/F: inappropriate urination is the most common behavioral problem in cats
true
66
T/F: cats prefer an increased population density
false
67
T/F: copraphagia is an abnormal animal behavior
false
68
T/F: "the mad itch" is a herpes viral infection that causes pyrexia, neuro signs and seizure
true
69
T/F: you can expect a positive treatment outcome when treating aggressive dogs with clomicalm medication
false
70
which breed of dog has the least amount of aggressive tendencies?
german short haired pointers
71
4 reasons cats urinate outside their litter box
dirty litter new litter box trauma/pain new type of litter
72
what is the breed predilection and specific treatment for dogs with pancreatic exocrine insufficiency?
Breed predilection= german shepherds specific treatment= viocase (sprinkle enzyme in feed
73
define paresthesia
burning, itching sensation that is extremely uncomfortable
74
aggressive behavior may be a result of an organic brain lesion, name 3 types
cancer neuritis trauma
75
how would you diagnose the "guilty party when you have inappropriate urination in a multi-cat household
inject cat with sodium fluoroseen 0.3mLs and use the light to see if the urine will glow in the affected areas
76
Where is aggressive behavior controlled
limbic system
77
what is a behavior modification technique to use before leaving
give distracting toy or treat
78
what is a behavior modification technique to use when returning
wait till the dog calms down before acknowledging
79
when is a behavior modification technique to use when at home
diffuse keys and coat
80
why would an adult dog hate other dogs
interactions as a puppy
81
what are 4 consequences of copraphagia?
damage to teeth chronic parasitism impactions to teeth blockage due to foreign body
82
a 12 year old intact beagle is mutilating his right front foot. There is a raised mushrooming, quarter sized lesion on the dorsal aspect of the foot. Devise a diagnostic plan for this situation
CBC Profile U/A PE History neuro exam, radiographs, ultrasound
83
T/F: small animals usually have polyuria as their primary problem with a compensatory polydipsia
true
84
T/F: animals with a urine specific gravity of > 1.035 are polyuric
false
85
T/F: cancer causes PuPd by causing inhibition of ADH
true
86
when the glomerular filtrate has a specific gravity equal to plasma which is 1.008 to 1.012, it is known as
isosthenuric
87
which diuretic crosses the blood-brain barrier easily?
mannitol
88
which causes Pd actually best anticipates water needs prior to actual deficiencies?
secondary thirst
89
the concentration of _______ in the body is critical for normal muscle contraction
acetylcholine
90
T/F: the antidiuretic hormone control center lies adjacent to the thirst center and is controlled by extracellular fluid osmolality
false
91
T/F: organic disease of the nervous system usually creates consistent signs of weakness
true
92
T/F: diabetes can be a cause of episodic weakness
true
93
define acetylcholine
neurotransmitting agent that is sent between brain and muscle to allow muscle to contract
94
T/F: with the loops of henle in the countercurrent system, water is reabsorbed along concentration gradients established in the renal medulla in order to decrease osmolality
false
95
define atrophy
loss of muscle mass
96
two causes of atrophy
destruction of neurons in muscle not using muscle for various reasons
97
how would heartworm disease cause episodic weakness?
located in right ventricle, blocks blood flow & decreases O2
98
what are 2 reasons to terminate the water deprivation test
increases osmolality concentration of urine
99
4 clinical signs of episodic weakness
severe panting collapsing exhaustion ataxia
100
what is the water deprivation test primarily used to rule out
primary polydipsia
101
T/F: aerobic glycolysis is the most effective way to produce energy in the skeletal muscle
true
102
what are the two reasons why urine cannot be concentrated
ADH deficiency medullary washout
103
what is a diagnostic plan for episodic weakness
history PE Neuro exam CBC, U/A, profile EKG ultrasound & radiographs
104
what is the etiology of canine kennel cough
bordetella bronchiseptica
105
define villi
fingerlike projections
106
function of villi
nutritional absorbtion
107
where anatomically are the popliteal lymph nodes located?
behind the knee
108
pro for giving steroids to a dog with parvo
animal feels better (eats)
109
con for giving steroids to a dog with parvo
suppresses immune system
110
what oral tablet with no pesticide residue can kill fleas within 30 mins?
capstar
111
vaccination plan for new puppy
8 weeks -DHPPC 12 weeks DHPPC Bordetella lyme lepto 16 weeks DHPPC Bordetella rabies lyme lepto
112
DHPPC meaning
distemper, hepatitis, parvo, corona, parainfluenza
113
etiology of rabies
rhabdovirus
114
what should happen to your "vaccinated for rabies" cat that has just been bitten by a potential rabies suspect?
the cat should be re-vaccinated immediately, quarantined and observed for 10-45 days
115
define stomatitis
an inflammation and/or infection of the tongue and/or mucous membranes
116
a good client brings a stray cat in on an emergency for further evaluation. It is found to be FeLV positive with F.O.C.M.A, anorectic, lethargic, pyrectic, and in poor body condition. Give a summary of your discussion with these new owners
this cat is very sick with a (+) FeLV. the presence of FOCMA is a horrible sign and means that the cat will have a shortened lifespan. no tx, only supportive care
117
why is outpatient management of feline respiratory disease complex preferred to in clinic hospitalization?
cats do better at home (less stress), dont spread disease all over hospital
118
how do you tell if anemia is regenerative or not
cytology of the blood & look for reticulocytes or immature RBCs which indicate a regenerative condition
119
name 4 properties in the fluid analysis of a FIP (+) peritoneal effusion
straw or golden colored increase protein content SG > 1.018 decreased cell count
120
which disease are you most likely to find nasal commissure ulcers in?
calici cirus FCV
121
FVR stands for
feline viral rhinotrachitis
122
FVRCP-C stands for
feline viral rhinotrachitis, calici, pankeukopenia, chlamydia
123
what are you hopes when treating a FIP positive cat with levamisole
stimulate the immune system for extra protection
124
define spleenomegly
abnormally enlarged spleen or blood controlling organ