Social psychology Flashcards

1
Q

Explain commonplace:

A

Commonplace is the difference between the explanations of the observer and the actor. The observer is inclined to attribute the same factors to the actor that the actor would attribute to situational factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are causal attributions?

A

casual attribution is the construal process people use to explain behaviour. People link an event to a cause, and the attributions we make affect our thoughts, feelings, and future behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why do people make casual attributions?

A

people make casual attributions because they need to draw inferences about other people in order to make predictions about future behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is attribution theory?

A

attribution theory is a set of concepts explaining how people assign causes to the events around them and the effects of people’s casual assessments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is explanatory style assessed?

A

a person’s habitual way of explaining events is assessed along three dimensions; internal/external, stable/unstable, and global/specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do Peterson and Seligman consider a pessimistic explanatory style?

A

the tendency to explain negative events in terms of internal, stable, and global related to a variety of undesirable life outcomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Explain covariation principle:

A

how we attribute a persons behaviour to internal or external causes. If the presence of a factor is necessary for an event to happen, and when eliminated the factor the prevents the event from happening, the factor could be consider possible cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What three factors are combined to explain the causes of a persons behaviour?

A

Consensus; do other people behave this way?
Consistency; does this person always behave this way under similar circumstances?
Distinctiveness; does the person ever behave this way in different situations?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

According to which principle is our confidence in a particular cause being responsible reduced by other plausible causes that could have produced it?

A

Discounting principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

According to what principle do we have greater confidence in a cause if other causes are present that we imagine would produce a different outcome?

A

Augmentation principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are counterfactual thoughts?

A

counterfactual thoughts are mental simulations which add or subtract situation elements to estimate the likelihood of the effect on outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain emotional amplification:

A

joy or pain in response to an event is amplified when counterfactual thinking encourages the thought that things could have turned out differently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is self attributional bias?

A

a cognitive bias where individuals attribute their success to internal factors and failures to external factors. This is motivated by a desire to maintain self esteem and can lead to a distorted view of reality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is fundamental attribution error?

A

the tendency to attribute peoples actions and behaviours to personal characteristics rather than external factors or circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the dangers of fundamental attribution errors?

A

they lead to oversimplification of causes of success and failure. they underestimate the role of external factors and overestimate the role of personal characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Briefly summarise the Quiz Game Experiment (Ross et al 1977):

A

examined if people commit fundamental attribution error in situations with inherent advantages and disadvantages. In the experiment questioners had an advantage and contestants had a disadvantage. Results showed that contestants and observers both overestimated the ability of the questioners and underestimated the disadvantaged contestants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Briefly describe the Business Office Experiment (Humphrey 1985):

A

participants witnessed a random procedure and were randomly assigned as managers or clerks. They rates themselves and others on role related traits such as intelligence, motivation, hard work, assertiveness, and supportiveness. For all traits managers rated fellow managers more highly than clerks for everything but hard working. Clerks also rated managers more highly than fellow clerks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the just world hypothesis?

A

This is a causes of fundamental attribution error where people think they get what they deserve and bad outcomes are brought by bad people. this adds a tendency to attribute negative events to the victim (victim blaming)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In what way is the just world hypothesis a coping mechanism?

A

it reduces anxiety and reassures a person that similar negative events will not happen to themself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe how attribution is a two step process:

A

people characterise others immediately consistent with behaviour and only later adjust this to account for impact of prevailing situational factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are three solutions to fundamental attribution error:

A

consider multiple explanations, consider context and external factors, try to take perspective of others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the psychological definition of attitude?

A

an evaluation of an object in a positive or negative fashion that includes three components; affect, cognition, behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the relationship between attitude and behaviour?

A

attitude can influence behaviour, and behaviour can influence attitudes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Explain the three components of attitudes:

A

Affect (emotion)- how much someone likes or dislikes something
Cognition- thoughts that reinforce a person’s feelings including knowledge and beliefs about the object as well as associated memories and images
Behaviour- attitudes are associated with a specific behaviour. most generally the effective evaluation of good vs bad is connected to a behavioural tendency to either approach or avoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What happens when attitudes are primed (Chan and Bargh 1999)?

A

when specific attitudes are primed (brought to mind even unconsciously) people are more likely to act in ways consistent with the attitudes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is meant by Spread of Activation Network (Preston and de Waal 2002)?

A

neuroscientific studies indicate that our attitudes activate particular brain regions (areas of motor cortex) that supports specific actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe response latency:

A

the amount of time it takes to respond to a stimulus such as an attitude question

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is an implicit attitude measure?

A

an indirect measure of attitudes that does not involve self report. used when people are unwilling or unable to report their true feelings or opinions. implicit attitudes are designed to bypass conscious awareness to get people to disclose attitudes which people might not even be aware of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is an issue with using a Likert scale to measure attitudes?

A

the scales might miss important elements when measuring complex attitudes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is accessibility of attitude measured? (Russel Fazio

A

accessibility (how readily it comes to mind) is measured by response latency which is the time taken for a person to respond to an attitude question

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Explain centrality of attitude:

A

this is a way to assess the strength and importance of someone’s attitude by determining the centrality of the attitude to the person’s belief system. this is measured by calculating how strongly each attitude within a domain is linked to others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Name two widely used implicit attitude measures:

A

Affective priming and the Implicit Association Test (IAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how can nonverbal measures portray attitudes?

A

nonverbal attitudes including smiling behaviour, degree of physical closeness, and sweaty palms act as indices of attitude towards others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe affective priming:

A

a measure of implicit attitudes by assessing the speed and accuracy of responding to target words that are preceded by subliminal primes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe the Implicit association test (IAT):

A

IAT measures the strength of associations between concepts (e.g. gay people) and evaluations (E.g. good or bad) or stereotypes (e.g. athletic or clumsy). IAT is widely used to uncover biases specifically prejudices. They are not always accurate and should be used in combination with other assessment methods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the difference between explicit and implicit attitudes?

A

explicit attitudes are deliberate, conscious and slow, measured by self report. Implicit attitudes are automatic, non conscious, and fast, measured by response time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what did Richard LaPiere’s (1930) discrimination study reveal about attitudes and behaviour ?

A

of the 250 establishments visited, only one denied service. when they were emailed to ask whether their policy was to serve Orientals, 90% said they would not. this study suggested that attitudes might bot predict behaviour very well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Why might attitudes not always be a strong a strong predictor of behaviour?

A

attitudes compete with other determents of behaviour. a person’s understanding of prevailing social norms can weaken the relationship between attitudes and behaviour. when asked to explain reasoning for an attitude a person may focus on easily identifiable factors rather than underlying reasons. this therefore does not end up being an accurate predictor of behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Explain why attitudes can be inconsistent:

A

sometimes the effective and cognitive components of an attitude might be inconsistent and so will not predict behaviour very well. attitudes can be influenced by various factors and it can be hard to know exactly why someone holds a certain attitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What makes attitudes and behaviour align more consistently?

A

consistency is higher when attitudes and behaviour are both at the same level of specificity. highly specific attitudes tend to predict specific behaviours while general attitudes tend to predict how someone behaves across different instances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In Lord et al (1984) study male students were asked to express their attitudes about gay men stereotypes. How did the students react when asked to take ‘John B’ on a tour?

A

those with positive attitudes said they were willing to take John B on the tour. those with negative students said they were not willing, however only if John B matched their previously stated protype of a gay individual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What promotes fast and efficient behaviour?

A

often behaviour tends to be more reflexive than reflective. when automatic behaviour is consistent with your attitudes behaviour is quicker and less effortful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What did the Priming Elderly (slow walking) study (Bargh et al 1996) reveal about conscious attitudes?

A

automatic behaviour can conflict with conscious attitudes without our knowledge

44
Q

What do cognitive consistency theories suggest?

A

the impact of behaviour on attitudes reflects the powerful tendency to justify or rationalise our behaviour and minimise inconsistencies between our attitudes and actions

45
Q

What is cognitive dissonance theory?

A

the theory that inconsistencies between a person’s thoughts and actions cause an emotional state known as dissonance that leads to efforts to restore consistency (Festinger 1957)

46
Q

What can cognitive dissonance occur due to?

A

inconsistency between two cognitions or between our cognitions and our behaviour. hard decisions cause feelings of dissonance because the rejected alternative has some desirable features and the chosen alternative has some undesirable features which creates inconsistency

47
Q

why can the processes of rationalisation start even before making a decision?

A

people try to anticipate the future and try to minimise/eliminate dissonance

48
Q

what is effort justification?

A

the tendency to reduce dissonance by justifying time, effort, or money devoted to something that turned out to be unpleasant or disappointing

49
Q

What is the following an example of: pet owners exaggerating the pleasure they get from their pets to offset the negative aspects of owning one

A

sweet lemons rationalization

50
Q

In a study where female undergrads were made to go through either mild or severe initiation to join a group that turned out to be boring, which condition is likely to rate the discussion more highly?

A

participants in the severe initiation condition rated the group more highly to reduce their dissonance

51
Q

Describe Induced compliance:

A

subtly compelling people to behave in a manner that is inconsistent with their beliefs, attitudes or values in order to elicit dissonance and change their original views

52
Q

What constitutes inconsistency?

A

Elliot Aronson- inconsistency will arouse dissonance if it challenges a person’s core sense of self including their rationality, morality, or worthiness

53
Q

Explain the relationship between dissonance and free choice?

A

dissonance is more likely to occur if the behaviour was freely chosen and had negative consequences that were foreseeable. In the uni student essay study, where students were offered money to write an essay in favour of something bad, those in the free choice group were more likely to feel dissonance, and those in the low money group were more likely to change their attitudes because their action wasn’t justified by a large sum of money.

54
Q

What is insufficient justification?

A

if a person’s behaviour is justified by existing incentives, even behaviour that is dramatically in conflict with a person’s beliefs and values will not produce dissonance

55
Q

What did Festinger and Carlsmith (1959) find when they asked participants to lie?

A

the study found that when there were no negative consequences such as deception, there was no dissonance effect

56
Q

How does the foreseeability of negative consequences generate cognitive dissonance?

A

negative consequences that are not foreseeable don’t threaten a person’s self image as a moral and decent person and so shouldn’t arouse dissonance

57
Q

Describe self perception theory:

A

suggests that people come to know their own attitudes by looking at their behaviour and the context in which it occurred to infer what their attitudes must be

58
Q

What is the argument between cognitive dissonance theory and self perception theory?

A

self perception theory contend that no arousal is involved as people rationally infer what their attitudes must be in light of their behaviour. However, Croyle and Cooper (1983) contested that behaviour inconsistent with prior attitudes does indeed generate arousal

59
Q

What is the consensus as a result of Self perception Theory and Cognitive dissonance?

A

dissonance reduction and self perception processes both occur. dissonance reduction processes are activated when behaviour is inconsistent with pre existing attitudes of some importance. self perception processes are invoked when behaviour conflicts with attitudes that are relatively vague or of little importance.

60
Q

How do people deal with the potentially crippling anxiety about death?

A

Terror Management Theory. People deal by striving for symbolic immortality through preserving valued worldviews and believing the have lived up to standards. Denial is also common where people believe that death only refers to physical body and not the soul. Comfort is also found in the idea that when we die things we value will still live on such as our children

61
Q

What is system justification theory and an example?

A

people are motivated to see the existing socio politics as desirable, fair and legitimate. e.g. women sometimes report they deserve less pay than men doing the same work (Jost 1997)

62
Q

When death is made salient, how would people act according to Terror Management Theory?

A

people strive to achieve and maintain high self esteem in order to feel connected to worldviews they care about. people become more hostile to critics, committed to their ingroups, and eager to punish rulebreakers

63
Q

What is human nature in terms of relationships?

A

human nature is profoundly social and a person’s identity and sense of self are defined by social relationships

64
Q

Biologically, what is the importance of need to belong?

A

the need to belong is biologically based and negative consequence result from their absence (Baumeister and Leary 1995)

65
Q

Explain the need to belong:

A

this is the evolutionary basis of the tendency to seek relationships and long term romantic bonds to facilitate reproduction and raise offspring who are vulnerable and dependent for years. Parent offspring relationships help ensure that infants and children are protected and will survive until they can be independent

66
Q

Why did friendships evolve?

A

friendships evolved as means for non kin to cooperate avoiding the perils of competition and aggression. if relationships have an evolutionary basis, similar dynamics should exist between parent and child, siblings and also friends

67
Q

What happens if the need to belong isn’t satisfied in existing relationships?

A

we seek to satisfy it in other relationships, hence in prisons, prisoners suffer loss of contact and form kinship like ties with other prisoners (Burkhart 1973)

68
Q

What is evidence for the need to belong in humans?

A

mortality rates are higher for divorced, unmarried and widowed individuals (Lynch 1979). admissions to hospitals for psychiatric issues are 3 to 23 times higher for divorced people (Bloom et al 1979).

69
Q

What is marriage benefit?

A

married people fare better than unmarried ones on various indices of well being (Gove et al 1990). LGBT relationships saw partnered individuals score higher on well being (Wienke and Hill 2009)

70
Q

What are the health benefits of having good social support?

A

strengthens cardiovascular, immune, and endocrine systems (Oxman and Hull 1997)

71
Q

Describe the nature of a communal relationship:

A

the individual feels special responsibility for another, the relationship is expected to be long term based on sense of oneness and family like sharing of common identity. this is based on the principle of need with individuals giving and receiving according to who has the most pressing need at a given times

72
Q

Describe the nature of an exchange relationships:

A

relationships are often short term, trade based and individuals feel no special responsibility towards each other. giving and receiving are governed by concerns about equity and reciprocity

73
Q

which cultures and nationalities prefer a communal relationship?

A

East Asian and Latin American societies tend to prefer communal approach, people from catholic countries are more likely to take a communal stance than protestant countries

74
Q

What is the rewards and social exchange theory?

A

intimate relationships are based on rewards of some sort. according to reward framework people tend to like those that make them feel good. there is a notion that relationship rewards lies at the heart of a theory that views much of human interaction as social exchange.

75
Q

Describe social exchange theory:

A

key assumptions that people are motivated to maximise their own feelings of satisfaction. people seek rewards in interactions and are willing to pay costs to obtain them. people prefer relationships where rewards exceed the costs

76
Q

Define equity theory:

A

people are also motivated to pursue fairness in relationships such as the ratio of rewards to cost is similar to both partners

77
Q

What are the three categories of ‘love’ relationships?

A

companionate love with friends and family members, compassionate love for communal relationships with bonds on responding to people’s needs such as mother-child, romantic love associated with emotion and sexual desire= passionate love

78
Q

what is the investment model of commitment?

A

three determinants that are satisfaction, few alternative partners, and investments in relationships. commitment is linked to longer lasting relationships increasing relationship promoting behaviours like forgiveness and self sacrifice

79
Q

What are predictor’s of marriage dissatisfaction?

A

disparities in personality and socioeconomic status, marrying too young, communication issues, and behaviour problems such as stonewalling, contempt, and blame.

80
Q

How do healthy couples work on strengthening their relationship?

A

capitalising good event, being playful, looking on the bright side and seeing each others positive attributes

81
Q

Why are arranged marriages associated with high divorce rates?

A

lack of romantic love, and mismatches between socioeconomic status and religion

82
Q

In Robbers cave experiment, in what instance did the teams begin to get along?

A

The groups stopped being hostile when they were in a position where they had to work together on tasks e.g. towing a truck to have food supplies

83
Q

in realistic group conflict theory, when is prejudice and discrimination likely to arise?

A

over competition between groups for limited resources

84
Q

what is contact hypothesis and when is it beneficial?

A

contact between members of different groups can reduce group stereotypes and intergroup hostility. this is especially beneficial when members of different groups interact as equals and work together to achieve common goals

85
Q

What are the three dynamics of Group Behaviour?

A

social facilitation, group decision making, leadership and power

86
Q

Explain the need to belong (Baumeister and Leary 1995):

A

human beings are group living animals who influence and must get along with others

87
Q

Define a group:

A

a group is a collection of individuals who have relations to one another that make them interdependent to some significant degree (Cartwright and Zander, 1968)

88
Q

What was the first experiment to examine the effect of other people’s presence on human performance?

A

Norman Triplett (1898) conducted an experiment where 40 children had to turn in a fishing real as fast as they could in the presence of absence of other children engaged in the same activity. children tended to turn the reel faster when in the presence of another child

89
Q

What was the first experiment on the effect of other people’s presence on human performance inspired by?

A

Norman Triplett (1898) was inspired by noticing that the fastest times in cycling were recorded when cyclists competed directly against one another on the same track at the same time

90
Q

The social facilitation effect would be initiated merely by an audience of passing observers. True or False:

A

true, even although the observers were not doing the same thing

91
Q

What are the adverse effects of others being present on human performance?

A

sometimes this inhibits performance on arithmetic problems, memory tasks, and maze learning

92
Q

In what circumstances is arousal more likely to hinder performance?

A

on new or hard tasks

93
Q

What factors can intensify social facilitation effects in the presence of others?

A

evaluation and apprehension of a person. there is a concern about looking bad in the eyes of others (Cottrell et al 1968)

94
Q

how does social facilitation work according to distraction-conflict theory?

A

being aware of another person’s presence creates conflict between paying attention to the task at hand and paying attention to the other person . this attentional conflict is arousing and produces social facilitation effects.

95
Q

What is social loafing?

A

social loafing is the tendency to exert less effort on a group task when individuals contributions cannot be monitored (Latane et al 1979)

96
Q

Who is most likely to come up with the correct solution: individuals or groups

A

when presented with problems that have precise, factual answers, groups are more likely than the individual t come up with the correct solution (Laughlin 1988)

97
Q

what does groupthink refer to?

A

faulty thinking by members of cohesive groups in which critical decision making scrutiny is subverted by social pressures to reach consensus

98
Q

What affects group decisions?

A

how cohesive a group is, how directive its leader is, ingroup pressures that can lead to the rejection of alternative viewpoints and self censorship (McCauley 1998)

99
Q

Explain risky shift:

A

risky shift is the tendency for groups to make riskier decisions than individuals would

100
Q

What is group polarisation?

A

group polarisation is the tendency for group decisions to be more extreme than those made by individuals. Whatever way the group is leaning, the group decisions tend to make it lean further in that direction

101
Q

When can group polarisation occur?

A

can result when group discussion exposes members to more persuasive arguments in favour of a consensus opinion that they would have thought of themselves, and through social comparison when people compare their opinions to those of others

102
Q

How is social hierarchy implemented in groups?

A

evaluation outcomes produce differences in respect and prominence contributing to determining a person’s power within a group

103
Q

How does workplace abuse occur according to approach theory?

A

people in positions of power look at things more simplistically and act in more disinhibited ways leading to extremes and abuse

104
Q

What people are more likely to fail in empathy?

A

empathy failures are associated with elevated powers (Magee et al 2006)

105
Q

How are women and people of colour prejudiced in the workplace?

A

men who stereotype female employees by focusing on their weaknesses grant them fewer resources and evaluate them more negatively in masculine contexts, anticipating less success from them.
feeling powerful leads prejudiced whites to focus a greater extent on weaknesses of black employees relative to other employees

106
Q

Which social behaviours are associated with elevated power at work?

A

increased antisocial behaviour, violation of polite norms including interrupting, speaking out of turn, and acting rudely (DePaulo and Friedman 1998)

107
Q

In a fraternity experiment, which status members are likely to treat other members worse?

A

higher power participants teased low power participants in more aggressive and humiliating ways whereas lower power participants were quite restrained in how they teased high power members (Keltner et al 1998)