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Trimester 7 > Soft tissue Exam 3 > Flashcards

Soft tissue Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the common imaging modalities?

A
  • US
  • CT scan
  • MRI
  • Plain film with contrast
  • fiberoptic
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2
Q
    • GI Imaging contrast agents:
  • how many are there?
  • what are they?
A
  • there are 3

- Barium/ iodinated contrast/ gadolimium

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3
Q

this contrast- GI mucosa and lumen

A

barium

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4
Q

this contrast is used with CT- to see vasculature, duct systems, suspected perforation of lumen, parenchyma of solid organs

A

Iodinated contrast

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5
Q

this contrast is used with MRI

A

Gadolinium

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6
Q
  • what type of barium is used for morphology and motility of esophagus? what is this called?
A
  • barium swallow

- esophogram

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7
Q

barium is used in the upper GI series to visualize ?

A
  • esophagogastric junction to lig of treitz- (the end of upper GI)
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8
Q

barium is administered to the large bowel by?

where is the esophagus located?

A
  • barium enema

- esophagus is located posterior to the trachea

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9
Q

identify

A

esophogus with barium contrast

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10
Q

when the cryophayngeal doesnt relax what does it create

A
  • zenkers diverticulum- could be a pouch of mixed vomit
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11
Q

identify

A

zenkers diverticulum

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12
Q

identify

A

descending colon with small polyps

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13
Q

identify arrows

A
  • diverticulitis in the colon
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14
Q

identify

A

pedunculated polyp inside colon

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15
Q

what type of radiography is used for the liver and bile ducts?

A
  • MRI- Nuclear scintigraphy, US, CT scan
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16
Q
  • detected acute and chronic gallbladder disease gallstones you would use _____ as first choice?
A
  • Ultrasound
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17
Q
  • if you were doing a “functional study” on the gallbladder- tracking the flow of bile what would you use?
  • what could you dx?
A
  • HIDA- hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid scan AKA cholescintigraphy
  • bile duct obstruction, bile leakage, GB function, gallstones, congenital abnormalities of the bile ducts
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18
Q
  • what type of special imaging is used for the urinary tract?
  • what can you see with each method?
  • T/F this is the most basic radiographic study of the urinary tract.
  • what type of contrast is used?
  • how many minutes does it take for films to be taken?
  • what does compression device over ureters prevent?
A

-IVP/IVU: pyelography/urography/ excretory: pyelography/urography
- IVP- you see renal parenchyma/ Excretory- you see renal calyx and urethra
- True
- Iodinated contrast
- 30 minutes
- prevents distention of proximal ureters and collecting system and produces optimal visualization
-

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19
Q

what is the most basic radiographic study of the urinary tract?

A

IVP- IVU

excretory

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20
Q

what are the risks of contrast?

A
  • acute impairment of renal function after exposure to contrast
  • 1- in 75000 contrast admin. result in death allergic rx.
  • greater risk with intravenous delivery
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21
Q

what type of patients are at risk for contrast complications?

A
  • pre-existing renal insufficiency
  • insulin dep. diabetic with secondary renal dz
  • repeated admin. of contrast over short period of time
  • *****transplant and renal dialysis patients
  • total iodine dose is greater than 100g within 24 hrs.
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22
Q

what kind of disease can occur with gadolinium?

A

deposition disease

  • nephrotoxic
  • carries FDA blockbox warning
  • should only be used by FDA approved areas
  • pt with anaphylaxis to Iodine have an increased risk to ANA with gado
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23
Q

this disease causes fibrosis of the skin and internal organs due to the use of gadolinium in patient with renal insufficiency.

A

nephrogenic systemic fibrosis- dermopathy- fibrosis in the skin

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24
Q

what are some indications for plain film?

A
  • mod to severe pain
  • tenderness
  • trauma
  • abdominal distention and pain
  • vomitting, diarrhea, constipation
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25
Q

aorta refers pain to?

A

lumbar spine and abdomen

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26
Q

the colon refers pain to

A

mid lumbar spine

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27
Q

the gallbladder refers pain to

A

inferior scapula, inner scapula, right shoulder

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28
Q

gynecological refers pain to

A

lower lumbar, pelvis

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29
Q

kidneys uerters refer pain to

A

groin, flank

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30
Q

pancreas refer pain to

A

lower thoracic spine

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31
Q

peptic ulcer refer pain to

A

mid thoracic, heart area

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32
Q

peptic ulcer refer pain to

A

midl thoracic , heart area

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33
Q

rectum refer pain to

A

sacral area, left paraspinal region

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34
Q

sigmoid colon refer pain to?

A

sacral region

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35
Q

what does KUB stand for?
what is the definition
what is the purpose?

A
  • kidney- ureter- bladder (is what you see)
  • plain film of abdomen, scout view of abdomen
  • to see hemidiaphragm, pubic symphysis- gas and fluid patterns, free air , calcifications, masses, abnormal organs,
  • without contrast it would be difficult to see.
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36
Q

where would you see normal bowel gas?

A
  • see it in stomach with meganblasse
  • small bowel- 2-3 loops of nondistended bowle- or normal diameter- < 3cm
  • large bowel- rectum and sigmoid almost always less than 5 cm
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37
Q
  • would you find air in the stomach?
  • would you find air in the small bowel?
  • would you find air in the large bowel?
  • how do you tell if someone is supine?
A
  • almost always except supine
  • 2 or 3 levels possible
  • none normally
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38
Q

which one is normal- which one is supine?

A

left side is supine- right is upright

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39
Q

identify

A

supine air in bowels

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40
Q
  • this may be difficult to see due to the soft tissue structures surrounded by soft tissue and fluid
  • must be able to see an edge or notice displacement of surrounding structures- not able to see unless massive
A

organomegaly

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41
Q

what abnormal variant is caused by hepatomegaly?

A

riedel lobe- which is a tongue like projection

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42
Q

identify

A

displacement of bowel loops due to hepatomegaly

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43
Q

what are the abnormalities and displacements that splenomegaly causes?

A
  • it should not project below the 12th posterior rib
  • meganblase displacement is moved medial
  • splenic flexure is moved inferior
  • left kidney is moved inferior and medial
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44
Q

what are the kidney measurements for the adult?

A
  • 10-14 cm
  • no more than 1.5 cm difference side to side
  • right projects shorter than the left
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45
Q

what are the kidney measurments for the child?

A
  • measure from superior endplate of L1 through the inferior endplate of L4
  • add 1 cm to this measurement
  • this should be the length of the right kidney
  • allow 1 cm differnce side to side
  • kidney issues in kids is serious and shouldnt have back pain
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46
Q

this is the most common focal renal parenchymal lesion

this is them most common lesion in the kidney

A

simple renal cyst

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47
Q

what is the age range for a simple renal cyst?

what are the characteristics?

A
  • under 30 is rare, found in 50% of adults over 50
  • characteristics include- benign and contain serous fluids- may slowly increase- decrease in size over years/ will be seen on plain film only if calcification at peripheral rim
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48
Q

is the bladder visualized on plain film? if so how?

A
  • it can be seen if full of urine
  • males- round on top
  • females are flat on top (due to the uterus siting on top)
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49
Q

explain horseshoe kidney

A
  • could be inferior or superior fusion of poles- MC is inferior fusion
  • occurs in 1-400 births
  • MC renal fusion anomaly
  • MC in males
  • 1/3 have other anomalies- visceral or skeletal
  • 1/3 asymptomatic
  • kidney axis deviation can be seen on film
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50
Q

what are some complications that relate to horseshoe kidney?

A
  • poor drainage- renal calculi and hydronephrosis
  • infection
  • certain malignancies like Wilms, TCC or carcinoid
  • renovascular hypertension
  • increased susceptibility to trauma
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51
Q

what is calxed kidney? AKA’s

what are some complications”

A
  • fusion of both superior and inferior poles, forming a cake- donut- or “pancake kidney”
  • it is rare
  • complications are similiar to horseshoe
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52
Q

this development of the kidney is retention of lobular outer surface- residual from development.

A

fetal lobulation

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53
Q
  • this feature happens when splenomegaly is present?
A
  • dromedary hump
    prominent focal bulge on the lateral border of kidney due to impression by spleen
  • location is LEFT kidney near spleen (NOT RIGHT)
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54
Q

what is the most common etiology of a mechanical small bowel obstruction?

A
  • Post surgical adhesions

- (hernia is 2nd and neoplasms are 3rd)

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55
Q

when taking plain film upright what kind of air do you see?

when taking plain film recumbent what do you see?

A
  • upright has multiple air fluid levels, step ladder appearance, dilation of bowel loop with inverted u-loops.
  • recumbent- dilated loops- ladder appearance, dilated loops- stack of coins
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56
Q

what does the obstruction of the large bowel look like?
what sections are usually involved?
how much dilation would cause rupture?
is large bowel known for air fluid levels?

A
  • colon dilated to the point of obstruction
  • cecum is usually the most dilated segment-
  • 12-15 cm may rupture
  • no or very few air fluid levels
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57
Q

what is the most common first and second etiologies of large bowel obstruction?

A
  • # 1 most common is colon carcinoma
  • # 2 most common is diverticulitis
  • 3 is cecal volvulus
  • 4 is herni
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58
Q

identify

A

large bowel obstruction

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59
Q

what kind of large bowel obstruction is this?

A

cecal volvulus

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60
Q
  • define extraluminal air in abdomen

- what are the different types?

A
  • air outside of the bowel
  • pneumoparitoneam- air in peritoneal cavity
  • pneumotosis intestinalis- air in bowel
  • pneumobilia- air in biliary tree due to communication with GI tract or skin.
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61
Q

what are the most common causes of pneumoperitoneum? (air inside the peritoneum)

A
  • the MOST COMMON cause is SPONTANEOUS- from a perforated gastric or duodenal ulcer
  • Trauma- severe external trauma to the abdomen, recent surgery, colonsocopy
  • recent lararotomy/laparoscopy- 3-7 days, amount of air will decrease daily
  • other- perforation from diverticula, appendix rupture, carcinoma
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62
Q
  • what are some radiographic findings of pneumoperitoneum?
  • upright?
  • left lateral decubitus?
  • supine?
  • what is the double wall sign?
A
  • upright- air beneath the diaphragm but on top of liver
  • left lateral decubitus- air surrounding liver- liver makes good contrast
  • supine- visualization of both sides of bowel wall- falciform ligament sign
  • double wall sign is air on inner and outer wall- called RIGLER sign-
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63
Q

identify

A

Riglers sign- Double wall sign- air on inner and outer wall

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64
Q

identify

A

RIGLERS SIGN- DOUBLE WALL SIGN- ALSO CALLED GAS-RELIEF SIGN

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65
Q

what is the most common abnormal localized intraperitoneal gas collection?

A
  • pneumobilia is the MOST COMMON type
  • emphysematour cholecysititis
  • gas in portal vein
  • abscess
66
Q

what is pneumobiia?

what is the etiology for pneumobilia?

A
  • air in biliary tree due to communication with GI tract or skin
  • etiologies of pneumobilia include:
66
Q

what is pneumobilia?
what is the etiology for pneumobilia?
what is the most common nonsurgical cause for pneumobilia?

A
  • air in biliary tree due to communication with GI tract or skin
  • etiologies of pneumobilia include:
    - surgery- stone removed from duct- air can remain for yrs.
    - biliary enteric fistulas from stone eroding into bowel- this is the MOST COMMON non surgical cause.
    - infections
    - anomalous development of duct.
67
Q

what are radiographic findings for pneumoperitoneum?

A
  • tubular branching, lucencies over the liver shadow

- air in the lumen of the gall bladder-

68
Q

Identify - what is A and what is B?

A

A represents air in biliary tree _b represents portal vein

69
Q

What is emphysematous cholecystitis?

What is the fatality rate?

A
  • It is a condition due to acute infection (gas forming organism ) of the - gallbladder wall = air is in the lumen or gallbladder
  • 15%
70
Q

Identify

A

Air within the lumen of the gallbladder and air in ‘ gallbladder wall

71
Q

How does air in the portal vein present?
what is the most common cause?
what is mortality rate?
what is function of portal vein?

A
  • Multiple tubular lucency’S that extend to liver periphery
  • MC due to bowel necrosis or infection
  • 75% mortality rate
  • carried blood from GI tract, gallbladder, pancreas, spleen to liver
72
Q

how does an abscess present?
what is common hx?
what is method of choice for dx?

A
  • small air bubbles are commonly seen
  • common hx- recent surgery, pancreatitis, diabetes
  • CT scan is method of choice for d/dx could be abscess from bowel gas.
73
Q 
what is gallstone ileus?
what is mechanism?
what is mc demographic? Age- sex- 
what is mc location you would see?
could result in what kind of triad?
A
  • obstruction of intestine by an ectopic gallstone
  • inflammation- adhesion- duodenum- gallstone erodes through.
  • it is most common in females- under 70
  • 70% of small bowel obstruction are this
  • results in Rigler’s Triad
74
Q

what is Riglers Triad and what does it arise from?

A
  • it comes from Gallstone Ileus
  • and it includes:
    • SBO small bowel obstruction
    • air in biliary tree
      - radiopaque gallstone (atleast one) eptopic
75
Q

identify

A

gallstone ileus- showing Riglers triad

76
Q

identify

A

gallstone ileus

77
Q
  • what is a hiatal hernia?

- it is _____ dx entity seen on radiographic imaging of upper GI tract

A
  • all or part of stomach herniates through diaphram

- IT is the most common dx entitiy seen on radiographic imaging of Upper GI

78
Q
  • how many different HH are there?

- what are they?

A
  • sliding axial- MC
  • paraesophageal
  • intrathoracic
  • short esophagus
79
Q

sliding- axial HH?

A

MC of HH- 95% of all are this- gastroesophageal junction and part of fundus

80
Q

paraesophageal HH

A

part of fundus

81
Q

intrathoracic HH

A

entire stomach , not pylorus

82
Q

short esophagus HH

A

gastroesophageal junction

83
Q
  • what are some radiographic characteristics of HH
  • describe frontal view
  • describe lateral view
  • what are some d/dx?
  • how to diagnose?
A
  • may be fluid filled, or air filled or air-fluid level
  • Frontal view- medial base of left lung, over left side of heart
  • lateral view- posterior mediastinum if large may cover spine
  • D/Dx- pulmonary cyst, lung abscess, diaphragm tumor.
  • use barium swallow to diagnose
84
Q

what organs are in the intraperitoneal space? (anterior)

A
  • liver- gallbladder- spleen- stomach- omentum- bladder (portion) - prostate (portion) - large and small bowel (portion)
85
Q

which organs are in the retroperitoneal space (posterior)

A
  • kidneys and ureters
  • pancreas
  • ovaries and uterus
  • rectum
  • bladder (portion)
  • prostate (portion)
  • large and small bowel (portion)
86
Q

what are the patterns of calcification?

A
  • cyst
  • conduit
  • concretion
  • mass
87
Q
  • where is the cyst of calcification found?

- what are the types of cyst calcifications?

A
  • they are found in the wall of abnormal fluid-filled structures
  • types of cyst wall calcification include-
    • aneurysms AAA (should not have fluid in them)
      - cysts withing kidneys, adrenals, liver, ovary , mesentery (should not have fluid in them)
      - some uterine fibroids
      • bladder wall - rare
      • renal cell carcinoma (some)
88
Q
  • AAA is ____% increase in diameter
  • greater than _____ means possible dilation- _____ = dx, _____ = surgery
  • ____ AAA are smaller than 4cm
  • what are signs of leakage, rapid expansion or rupture?
A
  • 150% increase
  • greater than 3cm/ 4cm =dx/ 5cv=surgery
  • 80% AAA are smaller
  • mild-severe flank pain, back, abdominal testicular groin pain
89
Q
  • for AAA what are radiographic findings ?
  • what would you see lateral view
  • what would you see AP view?
  • what kind of “erosions” would you see?
  • what is the special imaging of choice?
A
  • cyst calcification
  • you would see soft tissue mass
  • measurement greater than 3 cm with special imaging
  • AP view- usually projects to left of midline/ erosions are OPPENHEIMER EROSIONS - due to pulsations- erodes anterior vertebra
  • special imaging is the ultrasound
90
Q

identify

A

-this AAA is 12.5 CM THATS HUGE!!!

91
Q

identify

A

-this AAA is 12.5 CM THATS HUGE!!!

92
Q

what is an openheimer erosion and what percent do you see it?

A
  • vertebral bodies are eroded- anterior vertabrae

- seen 5% of the time - due to pulsations

93
Q

identify

A

endovascular stent

94
Q
  • what is the most common site of a visceral arterial aneurysm?
  • what is demographics and mc sex?
  • if the are 2 cm what needs to happen?
A
  • MC site is splenic artery aneurysm
  • 10% of population over 60 and MC females
  • surgery
95
Q

what are some risk factors for SAA?

A
  • portal hypertension
  • multiparity
  • systemic hypertension
  • chronic inflammatory process
  • arteriosclerosis
96
Q

what are some symptoms of SAA?

A
  • only 20 % of ppl have symptoms and they include:
  • LUQ pain
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • hypovolemic shock if ruptured
97
Q

identify

A

SAA- splenic artery aneurysm

98
Q 
this disease is from a larva or tape worm
what is definitive host? 
what is intermediate host? 
what is mc organ? 
what is 2nd mc
what film would you use to see?
A
  • hydatid-echinococcal cysts- echinococcus granulosis/ larva from the tape worm
  • dogs, coyotes, wolves, fox
  • sheep, pig, cattle, goat, horse, camels, humans
  • MC is liver
  • 2nd MC is lung
  • ## MC is US and 2nd MC is CT or MRI
99
Q

identify

A

hydatid cysts

100
Q

what is conduit calcification?
how would it present?
is it rare to see?

A
  • it is calcification within channel or structure that conveys fluid
  • may show as flecks of calcification along route of vessel, parallel tracts, branching tracts, ring like opacities
  • yes it is rare
101
Q

what are some locations of conduit calcifications?

what is the most common?

A 
urinary tract- ureters
pancreatic ducts
vas deferens
uterine tubes
biliary ducts
gallbladder wall- porcelain gallbladder
blood vessels ARE THE MOST COMMON
102
Q

identify

A

ureter calcification /conduit calcification

103
Q

identify

A

splenic artery calcification- conduit calcification

104
Q

identify

A

vas deferens- conduit calcification

105
Q
  • this is calcification of the gallbladder wall- AKA’s
  • what do the walls of gallbladder turn into?
  • it is most common with who?
  • what is it associated with
  • what are radiographic findings?
A
  • porcelain gallbladder - calcifying cholecystitis
  • they are chronically inflamed and thickened
  • MC with females
  • associated with stones, obstructed cyctic duct, carcinoma 10-20%
  • they are ovoid or pear shaped
106
Q
  • what is calcification that forms within a duct, conduit or hollow organ?
  • formed by calcium salts
A
  • concretion calcification

- formed by precipitation of calcium salts which form layers over time similiar to pearl in oyster

107
Q
  • what organs could have a concretion calcification?

- what mimics this type of calcification?

A
  • gallbladder
  • urinary tract
  • diverticulum- appendix
  • pelvic veins
  • prostate
  • scrotum
  • pancreas
  • *** undigested tablets mimic concretions
108
Q
  • concretion calcification in the gallbladder is called?
  • CC in the urinary tract is called?
  • CC in the diverticulum and appendix is called?
  • CC in pelvic veins is called?
A
  • GB is gallstones
  • urinary tract (renal, ureteral) called bladder stones
  • diverticulum and appendix is called appendicolith, fecalith
  • pelvic veins is called phlebolith
109
Q
  • what is the MC calcification in the pelvis?
  • what is it calcification of?
  • where would you find these?
  • what is the histo?
  • what is the etiologies?
A
  • phlebolith
  • calcified thrombi in a vein
  • periphery of the pelvic basin
  • composed of calcified laminated fibrous tissue with a surface layer that is continuous with the vein endothelium
  • venous malformation- slow blood flow/ damage to venous walls/ poor blood flow/ constipation and straining
110
Q

identify

A

phleboliths

111
Q

identify

A

pancreas concretion

112
Q
  • positive gallstones are ___- based, calcified, and have a ____ surface
  • negative gallstones are _____ based and you ______ on plain film
A
  • 10-15%- calcium based/ rough surface

- cholesterol / you won’t see on plain film

113
Q

identify

A

pancreatic concretions

114
Q

identify

A

laminated gallstone with continuous outer margin typical of concretion

115
Q

these stone are seen 90% on plain film

what is AKA

A
  • kidney stones

- nephrolithiasis

116
Q
  • kidney stones are easier to see vs. ????

- you would find KS in (part of body cavity)

A
  • easier to see than ureters

- retroperitoneal

117
Q

identify

A

kidney stones

118
Q

identify

A

kidney stones

119
Q

identify

A

medullary calcinosis of the kidney

120
Q

this looks like deer horn/ mc in ______/ associated with _______?

A
  • staghorm calculi
  • mc in females
  • ## associated with UTI
121
Q

this concretion is mc in elderly males

- occurs with urinary _____ and ______ hypertrophy

A
  • bladder calculi

- stasis and prostate

122
Q

identify

A

bladder calculi

123
Q
  • this concretion is due to prostatitis

- where is this located?

A
  • prostate calcification

- anywhere over the pubic symphysis

124
Q

identify:

  • what is B
  • what is A
A
  • enlarged prostate

- the conretions/calcification above the pubic symphysis

125
Q

identify-

  • what is this due to?
  • repetitive_____
  • what is MC occupation?
A
  • scrotal calculi
  • due to rep trauma
  • MC in mountain bikers
  • below the pubic symphysis
126
Q
  • a stone in the appendix is called?

- what quadrant is this in?

A
  • appendicoliths

- RuQ

127
Q

identify

A

appendicoliths

128
Q

identify

A

appendicoliths

129
Q
  • define mass calcifications - what are the radiographic patterns?
  • they are typically _______ center with _____ margins.
  • there may be _______ , opacities within the mass, as well as, regions of _____ .
A
  • a dense center with irregular patterns- wide range of radiographic patterns
  • they may be AMORPHOUS- IRREGULAR SHAPED- CURVILINEAR, FLOCCULENT, STREAKED OR SPECKLED CALCIFIC OPACITIES within the mass, as well as regions of lucency
130
Q

what are types of mass calcification?

what is the most common mass seen in the abdomen?

A
  • lymph nodes- look like cottage cheese
  • lymph nodes are the MC common mass calcification in abdomen
    • uterine fibroids/ pancreatic cystadenoma and cystadenocarcinoma
  • *splenic granulomas
  • *adrenal calcification
  • *renal cell carcinoma
  • *many benign tumors
131
Q
  • how does a small renal mass present?
  • ____ benign? %%
  • what is the mc benign renal neoplasm presenting as SRM?
A
  • contrast enhancing kidney tumors smaller than 4cm
    • kidney tumor brightens with contrast
  • 20% benign
  • ANGIOMYOLIPOMA IS THE MOST COMMON BENIGN RENAL NEOPLASM
132
Q
  • what is the MC primary malignant tumor and most lethal ?

- what is MC sex and age

A
  • RENAL CELL CARCINOMA is the most common primary malignant and most lethal.
  • MC male median age of 57
133
Q

-what is the most common mass calcification in the abdomen?

-

A

mesenteric lymph node calcification- MC mass calcification

134
Q
  • 10% of all ovarian tumors are these
  • they are mature_____ and cystic _____
  • these contain tissue from ______ layers- meso endo ecto
  • they arise during active ______years
  • what are the radiographic findings?
A
  • ovarian dermoid cysts- dermoid cysts
  • teratomas- cystic teratomas
  • all 3 layers
  • reproductive years
  • ## may contain teeth, bones, other tissue, have marginal calcification- 35% contain fat.
135
Q

identify

A

dermoid cyst- teratoma

136
Q
  • this is MC benign uterine tumor what are the AKA’s
  • calcification pattern is popcorn, cauliflower, mottled or speckled, coarse marginal rim, cyst like rim.
  • cannot determine the size or number of lesions based on calcification
  • if area of calcification is noted ot expand on films taken weeks apart- it suggests?
A
  • leiomyoma- uterine fibroid, uterine fibroma

- suggests malignant degeneration

137
Q

identify

A

leiomyoma, uterine fibroid uterine fibroma

138
Q

identify

A

uterine leiomyoma

139
Q
A
140
Q

Identify

A

Adrenal gland Calcification

141
Q

Identify

A

Undigestad tablets mimic concretions

142
Q

identify

A

undigested tablets mimic concretiosn

143
Q

indentify

A

injection granulomas - fat necrosis- looks like phlebolith

- injection in butt causes necrosis

144
Q

this mimics contrast in the gallbladder- cholecystography

  • this is a chronic obstruction of the _____ duct by stones
  • decreases _______________________?
A

milk of calcium bile

  • chronic obstuction of the cystic duct by stones
  • decrease function leads to stasis leads to accumulation of Ca carbonate
145
Q

identify

A

Staghorn caliculi

146
Q

Identify

A

Appendicolith

147
Q
A

uterine fibroid

148
Q
A

nephrolithiasis- kidney stone

149
Q
A

Horseshoe Kidney

150
Q
A

Positive gallstones

151
Q
A

Positive gallstones

152
Q
A

AAA

153
Q
A

Adrenal Calcification

154
Q
A

Pancreatic lithiasis

155
Q
A

Bladder calculi

156
Q
A

Negative gallstones

157
Q
A

Prostate calcifications

158
Q
A
159
Q
A
160
Q
A

Trimester 7 (13 decks)

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