SOGs Flashcards

(489 cards)

1
Q

SOG 401 Communications

The JFRD performs radio communications on the ________________________ System (FCRS), an _______ MHz trunked radio system, using mobile and handheld portables.

A

First Coast Radio System
800 MHz

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2
Q

SOG 401 Communications

There are six Flights available to the JFRD on the FCRS:

A

A-Flight
B-Flight
C-Flight
Inter Op
Hospitals 1
Hospitals 2

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3
Q

SOG 401 Communications

A1:
A2:
A3:
A4:
A5:
A6:

A
  1. EMS EAST (East or South of the St. Johns River requiring four or less units) monitored by FRCC at all times
  2. Dispatch (Simultaneously broadcast dispatches across A1, A2, A3, and A4) monitored by FRCC at all times
  3. EMS WEST (West or North of the St. Johns River requiring four or less units) monitored by FRCC at all times
  4. SUPPRESSION (Talk Group for Suppression units requiring dispatch of four or less units) monitored by FRCC at all times
  5. SP EVENT 1 (encrypted, monitored by FRCC when in use)
  6. SP EVNT 2 (encrypted, monitored by FRCC when in use)
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4
Q

SOG 401 Communications

A7:
A8:
A9:
A10:
A11:
A12:

A
  1. REPEATER7 (DVRS assigned for F7)
  2. SUPPORT (Used for non-emergency communications between field personnel and Tactical Support personnel) NOT routinely monitored by FRCC
  3. REPEATER9 (DVRS assigned to F9)
  4. MARINE (primarily used on marine incidents involving multiple agencies. Permanently patched to JSO and FWC) NOT monitored by FRCC
    11 & 12. TALK 1 and TALK 2 (Conventional, simplex radio frequencies used for short range communication within distances of approximately ONE mile) NOT monitored by FRCC
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5
Q

SOG 401 Communications

A13:
A14:
A15:
A16:

A
  1. HANNA (Hanna Park) It is commonly used by Ocean Rescue assigned to Hanna Park, CALL SIGN OCEAN 72 (not monitored by FRCC)
  2. HUGUENOT (Huguenot Park) It is commonly used by Ocean Rescue assigned to Huguenot Park, CALL SIGN OCEAN 73 (not monitored by FRCC)
  3. ATU (used for communication between JFRD and Air transport Units) monitored by FRCC when in use
  4. TRAINING (used for communication between units engaged in training exercises) not monitored by FRCC
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6
Q

SOG 401 Communications

B FLIGHT:
4 Talk Groups located on B-flight (B1, B5, B9, B13)
FRCC will rebroadcast the assigned Talk Group ____ seconds after the intial dispatch for the benefit of responding units.
All the Talk Goups have expansion capabilities, in addition to the Main/Sector Fire Group:
__ Expansion Fire Groups (Sector)
__ Announcement Group (AG) –> CANNOT RECEIVE TRANSMISSIONS

A

15 seconds
2
1

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7
Q

SOG 401 Communications

C-FLIGHT:

C1:
C2:
C3:
C4:
C5:

A
  1. RPTR1 (DVRS assigned to Fire 1)
  2. JB OR (Jacksonville Beach Ocean Rescue)
  3. CECIL OPS ( Cecil Field Operations)
  4. JAA OPS (Jacksonville Airport Authority Operations)
  5. RPTR5 (DVRS assigned to Fire 5)
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8
Q

SOG 401 Communications

C6:
C7:
C8:
C9:
C10:

A
  1. NIMSN (National Incident Management North Branch)
  2. NIMSS (National Incident Management South Branch)
  3. NIMSE (National Incident Management East Branch)
  4. NIMSW (National Incident Management West Branch)
  5. JFRD/JSO (Common channel for JFRD/JSO joint operations)
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9
Q

SOG 401 Communications

C11:
C12:
C13:
C14:
C15:
C16:

A
  1. 8TAC94 (National Mutual Aid Tactical 4. FIRE 8 REPEATER)
  2. 8TAC93 (National Mutual Aid Tactical 3)
  3. 8TAC92 (National Mutual Aid Tactical 2)
  4. 8TAC92 (National Mutual Aid Tactical 1)
  5. 8TAC92 (National Mutual Aid Tactical 0)
  6. MA-FLA (Florida Mutual Aid)
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10
Q

SOG 401 Communications

Which flight is dedicated to surrounding county Fire and Rescue agencies and the Emergency Operations Center?

A

InterOp Flight

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11
Q

SOG 401 Communications

Which Flight is dedicated to area hospitals for unit to hospital communication, with each hospital having a dedicated channel?

A

Hospital Flight 1

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12
Q

SOG 401 Communications

Which Flight is dedicated to area hospitals and future hospitals for unit to hospital communication, with each hospital having a dedicated channel?

A

Hospital Flight 2

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13
Q

SOG 401 Communications

Mutual Aid Communications:
At times, it may require FRCC or the other department to “_______” a radio channel between JFRD and that department.

A

“Patch”

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14
Q

SOG 401 Communications

Digital Vehicular Repeater System (DVRS)

Improves portable radio coverage in challenging structure types, such as high rises.
Which Chiefs are assigned to what channel? Total of (5)

A

C1: Fire 1
C5: Fire 5
A7: Fire 7
A9: Fire 9
C11- (8TAC94): Fire 8 (equipped with a standard conventional repeater, No specialized/dedicated channel is needed)

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15
Q

SOG 401 Communications

Florida Interoperability Network (FIN):

FRCC is equipped with a FIN radio to communicate with other county agencies directly. The FIN may be patched directly into the _____ MHz radio system, allowing JFRD field personnel to communicate with Mutual Aid counties, if necessary.
FRCC will notify JFRD units participating in a Mutual Aid incident of the designated ______________.

A

800 MHz
Talk Group

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16
Q

SOG 401 Communications

This channel will be used to coordinate need ans responses amoung the communication centers:

A

Metro-Jax Talk Group

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17
Q

SOG 401 Communications

Telephone, computer, printer or software problems shall be relayed to ________ (________________________).
Requests for station equipment problems shall be submitted through the ________ system or by calling 255-1818. Urgent repairs occurring outside normal business hours that requre overtime must be authorized by the __________________________.

A

ITD (Information Technologies Division)
Tivoli
FRCC shift supervisor

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18
Q

SOG 401 Communications

The Fire Rescue Communications Center (FRCC) has two locations.
Primary center is located at ________________ (________________)
The Back-Up Communications Center (BUCC) is located at ______________ (5847 Aviation Ave.)

A

JFRD Headquarters (515 N Jualia St.)
Cecil Airport (5847 Aviation Ave.)

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19
Q

SOG 401 Communications

Fire Alarms and Investigations at FRCC:

The first arriving unit must report to the _____________________ to determine if it is safe for FRCC staff to remain in place

A

Communications Center

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20
Q

SOG 401 Communications

Units shall attempt to clear Talk Goups A1, A2, A3, and A4 after hearing emergency dispatch tones (_____________________) transmitted by FRCC.

A

Alert 3, three short beeps in succession

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21
Q

SOG 401 Communications

FRCC shall repeat the following transmissions from field units (5)

A
  1. Disposition updates (Available, On scene etc)
  2. EMS Alerts (Trauma Alert, Cardiac Red, etc.)
  3. W signals
  4. Maydays
  5. Signal 34s
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22
Q

SOG 401 Communications

Units requesting to leave first-due territory while remaining in service will: (2)

Secure permission from the appropriate ________
Coordinate through __________

A

Chief
FRCC

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23
Q

SOG 401 Communications

The following notifications shall generate the ___ minute increment notification from FRCC: Incident Command, Signal 34, Mayday, STEMI Alert, Stroke Alert, Trauma Alert, and Trauma Red.
The ___ minute increments will begin when the applicable command or notification is advised, except for ________________. The ____ minute increment timer for ______________ shall begin upon dispatch of incident.

A

10 minute
10 minute
Structure fires
10 minute
Structure fires

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24
Q

SOG 401 Communications

The 10-minute notifications will continue until FRCC has been advised that the situation is under control or ____________________________. The 10 minute increments will be acknowledged by the _____________________.
Cardiac Reds will generate a _____ minute timer.

A

patient transport is in progress.
person in charge.
20

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25
SOG 401 Communications FRCC's direct line #:
630-0522
26
SOG 401 Communications Last resort for system wide radio communication failure: Utilize the following conventional simplex channels (2)
A11 or A12
27
SOG 401 Communications If radio communications are down FRCC must:
1. Contact the Radio shop to determine length of outage 2. Email "FIRE" advising of the situation and the need for on-duty units to return to their assigned station ASAP 3. Issue BOLO message to all PMDC's advising of the situation and the need for all units to return to their assigned station ASAP 4. Issue message to all Stations via the Purvis Station Alerting system advising of the situation and the need to remain at the station unless dispatched on a call 5. Notify the JFRD Admin Group via the Ready Op messaging 6. Notify all hospitals about the temporary inability to transmit Med Reports
28
SOG 401 Communications Units Responding From Quarters: All dispatches of units in quarters will be preceded by an _______ (sinle alert tone of at least 1 second duration), followed by all applicable dispatch information.
Alert 1
29
SOG 401 Communication All dispatches of units on an Available status will be preceded by an _______ (alternating "hi-low" alert tone of at least a 1-second duration)
Alert 2
30
SOG 401 Communications If a response is not received from a dispatched unit within ___ seconds of initial dispatch, FRCC will attempt to contact the unit directly by radio and/or ____________.
15 seconds red phone
31
SOG 401 Communications FRCC shall upgrade an assignment based upon information received from a _____________, ______________, or ____________________, provided units have not arrived.
complainant, another agency or field personnel
32
SOG 401 Communications Misrouted emergency rescue requests from on-base naval housing received by FRCC with be relayed to the _________________________.
Navy Regional Dispatch Center
33
SOG 401 Communications Automated Skyway Express: FRCC shall notify the ________________________ via the Red Phone if any incident involves the Skyway. FRCC shall instruct the __________ to de-energize the rail system until verification of the incident location has been established.
Skyway Control Center Operator operator
34
SOG 401 Communications If an emergency occurs outside the normal SKyway hours of operation, FRCC will contact the ______________________ to meet the awaiting Suppression Company at the Control Center.
Skyway Operations Manager
35
SOG 401 Communications Field Reports/Benchmarks: The first arriving unit of a multi-unit response shall transmit a brief initial radio report including:
1. Unit identification on-scene 2. Building/incident description (occupancy, size, construction) 3. Obvious conditions and intial tactics
36
SOG 401 Communications Fire Classifications: Any fire that involves ___________ damage to the structure will require the response of a _____________________ Chief.
FLAME Suppression District/Battalion Chief
37
SOG 401 Communications Fire Classifications: W1: W2: W3:
W1: One suppression unit required to handle incident. W2: Two or more Suppression units required to handle incident W3: Full Assignment or Maximum Full Assignment required to handle incident
38
SOG 401 Communications Suppression Benchmarks: (4)
Primary Search Complete Situation Under Control Secondary Search Complete W4
39
SOG 401 Communications EMS Alerts: MCI Level I (how many victims) MCI Level II (how many victims) MCI Level III (how many victims) MCI Level IV (how many victims) MCI Level V (how many victims) Trauma Alert Stroke Alert STEMI Alert Cardiac Red Trauma Red
MCI Level I (5 -10) victims MCI Level II (11-20) victims MCI Level III (21 -100) victims MCI Level IV (101 - 1000) victims MCI Level V (over 1000) victims
40
SOG 401 Communications Activating the Orange Emergency Alarm Button will automatically lock down the channel and open the mic for ____ seconds. To reset, the user must hold the button down until receiving a long steady tone (approximately _______ seconds), then release.
20 5
41
SOG 401 Communications Mayday: FRCC will activate ______ tone (three short beeps in succession) and repeat transmission including "Emergency Traffic Only!" on the assigned isolated Talk Group.
Alert 3
42
SOG 401 Communications An Emergency Assistance Request Assignment shall consist of a Maximum Investigative Assignment (in addition to on-scene units) as well as the following: (3)
Rescue Unit Rescue Chief Appropriate law enforcement agency
43
SOG 401 Communications Coverage: Stations ___, ___ and ____ shall always be covered. In the combined territories of Stations 1, 2, 4, 5 and 9 _____ fully staffed Engine Companies and ____ fully staffed Ladder Company shall always be maintained. In the combined territories of Stations ___ and ____, one fully staffed suppresion apparatus with a pump shall always be maintained.
40, 48 and 55 two, one 60. 71
44
SOG 401 Communications The Decontamination Team is comprised of:
Fire Station 21
45
SOG 401 Communications The _____________________ will be the primary administrative contact for serious and/or unusual events or incidents after normal working hours
Duty Division Chief
46
SOG 402 Vehicle Operations Tactical Support may be contacted on A8 or 693-1445 from _______ to _______ hours, 5 days a week.
0700 - 1700
47
SOG 402 Vehicle Operations Between the hours of ______ and _______, siren use should be limited to an extent necessary to reasonable ensure warning other traffic and not to such a degree that unnecessary disturbance will be afforded to persons along the route of such emergency run.
0100 and 0600
48
SOG 402 Vehicle Operations Emergency vehicles drivers must amek ever possible effort to make their ____________________________ known to other drivers
presence and inteded action
49
SOG 402 Vehicle Operations When the first- arriving unit reports "situation stable" or "nothing showing" ect., any additional units shall continue emergency response with lights and sirens but shall not _____________________________.
exceed the posted speed limit.
50
SOG 402 Vehicle Operations JFRD vehicles are authorized to exceed posted speed limits only under favorable coniditions, and then only when: 1. Responding to __________ 2. Transporting a pt to a medical facility Favorable Conditions: (4) Under these conditions, a maximum of _____ mph over the posted speed limit is authorized. If it becomes necessary to travel in the center or oncoming traffic lanes, the maximum permissible speed shall be ___ mph
Responding to ALARMS 1. Light traffic 2. Dry Pavement 3. Good Visibility 4. Good roads 20 mph 20 mph
51
SOG 403 Incident Command The Incident Command System can be subdivided into 2 stages: Initial Response ICS: This stage of ICS is implemented within the first operational period (approximately the first ____ hours) of an incident. Extended Operations ICS: This stage of ICS is implemented when an operation may extend beyond one operational period or in situations where complex planning is required. Extended Operations ICS is characterized by full activation of the National Incident Management System (NIMS).
12 hours
52
SOG 403 Incident Command ICS Operating Requirements: 1. and 2.
Adaptability Expandability
53
SOG 403 Incident Command During intial Response ICS, personnel in radio communications should use _______________ designations. During extended operations ICS, supervising poersonnel will be referred to by their appropriate ______ designation.
normal unit NIMS
54
SOG 403 Incident Command The ________ of personnel is the main reason for subdividing an incident.
safety
55
SOG 403 Incident Command This level of staging shall be employed for incidents that require strategic positioning of apparatus but which DO NOT require an on-scene reserve of apparatus.
Level I staging
56
SOG 403 Incident Command This level of Staging shall be employed for large scale, complex situtions that require an on-scene reserve of apparatus, personnel or equipment. Will require the designation of a Staging Officer and formal Staging Area both to be designated by command. Units arriving in Staging will announce their arrival and expect to receive an acknowledgement from FRCC only.
Level II Staging
57
SOG 403 Incident Command ___________ Rehab will be set up at large-scall or long-duration incidents. This will require designation of a formal Rehab Area dn a Rehab Officer to ensure that personnel workng at the incident are cycled through the rehab process.
Formal Rehab
58
SOG 404 Personnel Accountability The ____ is ultimately responsible for accountability at all incidents
IC
59
SOG 404 Personnel Accoutability Command will begin a ROLL CALL by reqesting an Alert 3 (____________________) from FRCC.
3 short rapid tones
60
SOG 404 Personnel Accountability On structures other than small, single family residences, an additional _________ shall be requested.
alarm
61
SOG 404 Personnel Accountability The key to personnel tracking is the ________________.
Company Officer
62
SOG 405 Investigations (Signal 24) Signs of heat, smoke or other hazardous conditions may warrant ___________________.
forcing entry
63
SOG 406 Structure Fire/(Signal 25) FIrst Arriving Apparatus Initial Report: Unit Identification on-scene Building ____________ Obvious conditions and _________________ Fire Classification Radio Designation - "______________" Hydrant Location
Description initial tactics Command
64
SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) First Arriving Engine Position engine with the following in mind: (5)
Hose deployment Fire intensity Overhead wires Location of fire Ladder company access
65
SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) Structure fires within complexes that utilize private hydrants require the THIRD arriving engine to state on a __________________ outside the complex.
municipal hydrant
66
SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) First Arriving Ladder Position ladder iwth the following in mind: (5)
1. Aerial Placement 2. Intended Use 3. Expected progression of the fire 4. Width needed for jack deployement 5. Overhead wires
67
SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) First arriving rescue: Identify a _______________ and transmit that location to Command.
rehab area
68
SOG 406 Structure Fire (signal 25) Returning Tankers to Service: Tankers can be returned to service prior to arrival if ANY of the following circumstances exist: There is a confirmed, working fire hydrant within __________ft of the involved structure The fire is ________________ prior to the arrival of tankers There is no ______ present
1000 ft extinguished fire
69
SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) Command Options: The company officer of the first arriving unit must decide on the appropriate commitment for thier company. This will usually fall into one of the following THREE categories a.)________________, b.)_________________, c.)___________________.
A. Nothing showing B. fast attack C. command
70
SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) The _______________________ on scene shall ensure that Post-Fire Decon is performed prior to member reporting to rehab.
Rescue District/Battalion Chief
71
SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) W4 Signal: The minimum apparatus assigned to the W4 signal will be one additional _________, _________, __________, Rehab 5 and Air 5.
engine, ladder, rescue
72
SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) The W4 signal WILL BE AUTOMATIC in the following cases: 1. Primary units exceed ____ bottle of air prior to a Signal 77 being announced 2. Primary units exceeding ____ minutes of strenuous activity prior to a Signal 77 3. All ________ or greater
1. 1 bottle 2. 40 minutes 3. 2nd alarms
73
SOG 407 High Rise Any building which has ____ floors or greater will be considered a high rise regardless of the location of the fire.
4 floors
74
SOG 407 High Rise Initial Operations: First alarm assignments per SOG 401 consist of __ Engines __ Ladders __Suppression Chiefs __Rescue Chief __Squads __Rescues Special Operations Team
5 E 3 L 4 SC 1 RC 2 S 2 R Special Ops Team
75
SOG 407 High Rise Have ______________ deactivated by Building Representative if applicable. Form fire attack teams with minimum of ___ engine company personnel, one of whic is an _____.
electric locks 5, OIC
76
SOG 407 High Rise If the reported location of the fire is below the ___ floor, Stairs shall be used for the intial ascent.
7th
77
SOG 407 High Rise The Initial Fire Attack Team is formed by the ________________________. Only _____ set of high rise equipment is required past the lobby per Attack team.
first and second arriving engine companies. one set
78
SOG 407 High Rise In the event of a radio malfunction, _________ is responsible for relaying all communications between the fire attack teams and Command, via ______________ if available.
Panel Control fire phones
79
SOG 407 High Rise Attack One: Advance to the landing ______ floors below the reported fire location. This shall be a mandatory brief stop. Also determine the feasibility of this location being used as a "______________________".
two floors Forward Staging Area
80
SOG 407 High Rise Upon arrival at the reported fire floor, report __________, __________, __________.
conditions, actions, needs
81
SOG 407 High Rise The 1st and 2nd Ladder Companies in many cases are the "____________".
forward eyes
82
SOG 407 High Rise 3rd Ladder Company: They shall use the stockpile off PPV fans to immediately pressurize the building from the outside at the ground flloor. The stairwells must also be pressurized immediately thereafter. Once this is accomplished they shall pair up with the 2nd Squad (____________________) for RIT.
one floor below the fire floor
83
SOG 407 High Rise 1st Suppression Chief: Assume Command (ensure a __ and __ Alarm as well as a Level ___ MCI has been initiated if a confirmed fire). Assign Fire Floor Chief (radio designation "_____________") Assign "_____________ Chief"
2nd and 3rd Alarm, Level I MCI Forward Ops Lobby Control Chief
84
SOG 407 HIgh Rise Should the need for a Rapid Ascent Team (RAT) be required, one suppression company must be assigned to ______________________________.
every stairwell in the building.
85
SOG 407 High Rise EMS/Triage radio designation is __________________ and it will be managed by the Rescue District Chief on scene.
EMS GROUP
86
SOG 407 High RIse A Forward Rehab area must be established as soon as practical. If the fire is located on an upper floor, the rehab area will be ____ floors below if practical.
two
87
SOG 407 HIgh Rise What group should be considered if elevator use is not available and the Forward Staging is above the 7th floor? This group is to be created by Lobby Control. These personnel will not be allowed to be in hazardous conditions, so PPE shall be minimal. The use of oneperson moving patients or material only __ floors, in a series of continuous exchanges, may result in the most efficient action
Stairway Support Group 3
88
SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team Squads will act as Primary RIT along with the _____ engine and _______ ladder to form the RIT GROUP.
fourth engine 2nd ladder
89
SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team Engine companies shall provide the following equipment:
Forcible entry tools (irons and 6 ft ek hook) Thermal imaging Camera (TIC) if available SCBA with buddy breathing hose Standard issue utility rope
90
SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team Ladder companies shall provide the following equipment:
Forcible entry tools (irons, 6 foot ek hook, and hydra-ram) Thermal Imaging Cameras RIT bag with 60 min. bottle, transfill hose and mask Issued RIT rope with knots/rings 1 in 2 out knots and rings every 20' 200' rope for extended search or downed FF removal Rescue saw with D'AX blade and two chain saws (depending on Bldg. type) Sawzall with metal and wood cutting blades
91
Rapid Intervention Team 408 Squad companies shall provides the following equipment:
Forcible entry tools (irons, 6 ek hook, and hydra ram) RIT bag with 60 min. bottle, transfill and mask Rescue saw with diamond blade and two chain saws (depending on Bldg. type) Sawzall with metal and wood cutting blades Thermal imaging cameras RIT light Sked 200 search/rescue rope
92
Rapid Intervention Team 408 Size-UP All RIT members shall make a note of:
The type of structure Its construction characteristics Where crews are operating Any openings or access points immediately visible Fire Progression/collapse potential
93
SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Place RIT tag on ________________ and notify engineer.
pump panel
94
SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team During softening operation the RIT OIC should maintain a ______ member team including themselves, uncommitted for rapid deployment and reduced fatigue.
3-4
95
SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team The IC will designate a radio talk group to be used for the RIT operation (___________________________).
usually the second expansion group
96
SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team Access to the downed FF should use a __________ approach with crews opening doors and walls around the structure to assist with locating and removing the downed FF.
6 sided
97
SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team On all W-3's in a large commercial structure, second alarm, or greater in any type of structure, a secondary RIT consisting of Ladder __, Heavy Rescue __ and Fire __ will be dispatched.
Ladder 4 Heavy Rescue 4 Fire 4
98
SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team Ensure that the TIC is operational and turned ON ____ to entry.
prior
99
SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team Free Flow From Regulator Issue: Turn cylinder vavle off, hold your breath, exhale and turn cylinder valve ________ on to allow yourself to inhale, turn the valve back off and hold your breath. Repeat the process while searching for exit.
1/4 turn
100
SOG 409 Wildland Fires Little or no fire activity
FRL 1
101
SOG 409 Wildland Fires Some "routine" fires anticipated. No more than 50% of resources expected to be needed at any given time. No difficulty in control or mop-up expected.
FRL 2
102
SOG 409 Wildland Fires Very active fire day anticipated. Fire occurrence above average and difficulty of control expected.
FRL 3
103
SOG 409 Wildland Fires Fire situation expected to be difficult. There may be fires carrying over from the previous day, new fires starting, and difficulty of control expected. All resources will probably be committed and assistance form outside the district may be required.
FRL 4
104
SOG 409 Wildland Fires Fire situation is extreme and ability to respond will exceed district capability. Fires are numerous, large, and difficult to control and mop-up. Outside assistance will be needed byond a 24-hour period.
FRL 5
105
SOG 409 Wildland Fires The ______________ is a measure of the water content of the soil taken daily by DOF. It ranges from ____________. The higher the number the lower the moisture and the more dangerous the conditions
Drought Index 0 - 0800
106
SOG 409 Wildland Fires Command will be established on all Wildland Fires involving an __________ or greater. Once Command has been established, a communication link will be established with ____________________ (DOF) units on scene.
FRL 3 Division of Forestry
107
SOG 409 Wildland Fires Command Post: The site should also have a clear area large enough to ______________________.
land a helicopter.
108
SOG 409 Wildland Fires A structure may be deemed hopeless when one of the following conditions exist: (3) ___ or more of the roof invovled ________ supply low Personnel safety at risk
25% Water
109
SOG 409 Wildland Fires Structural Protection: (4) ___ minute commitment __ unit per structure in isolated areas __ unit per __ structures in subdivisions Limit hose lay to ______ ft
15 minute 1 unit 1 unit per 2 structures 200 ft
110
SOG 409 Wildland Fires LCES stands for:
Lookouts Communications Escape Routes Safety Zones
111
SOG 409 Wildland Fires Mop Up: The fire is considered contained when there is ____% extinguishment within ____' of the fire line. When the Drought Index reaches _____ or higher the fire needs to be checked daily until it is cold.
100%, 100' 400
112
SOG 409 Wildland Fires Maintain ____% of booster tank's capacity for your protection.
25%
113
SOG 410 Hurricane Hurricane Season runs from _________ to ______________.
June 1st to November 30th
114
SOG 410 Hurricane Hurricane Arrival Timeline: Hurricane Alert - ____ hours prior to landfall Hurricane Watch - ____ hours prior to landfall Hurricane Warning - ____ hours prior to landfall
84 hours 48 hours 36 hours
115
SOG 410 Hurricane Saffir-Sampson WInd Scale: Based on hurricane's maxiumum sustained wind speed Category 1 Winds ____-_____ mph Potential Damage: Category 2 Winds ____-_____ mph Potential Damage: Category 3 (major) WInds ____-_____ mph Potential Damage: Category 4 (major) WInds ____-_____ mph Potential Damage: Category 5 (major) Winds ____-_____ mph Potential Damage:
1. 74-95 mph Some damage 2. 96-110 mph Extensive damage 3. 111-129 mph Devestating damage 4. 130-156 mph Catastrophic 5. 157 mph or higher Catastrophic
116
SOG 410 Hurricane Utilizing the National Incident Management System (NIMS) model, the _______ will establish Command at the Emergency Operations Center (EOC).
Mayor
117
SOG 410 Hurricane When the National Weaker Service issues a Hurricane Watch for any part of Duval County, FRCC will notify the _________________, all _________________, and __________________________.
Director/Fire Chief, Division Chiefs, Deputy/Assistant Division Chiefs
118
SOG 410 Hurricane If communications are not available, it will be assumed that personnel who do not return within _____ hours will not be reporting.
2 hours
119
SOG 410 Hurricane On ________ of each year, the Station Captain will report any deficiences found to the Battalion Chief. The Battalion Chief will then submit the Hurricane Season Checklist to the ________________________. All corrective measures are to be completed prior to _______________.
May 1st Assistant Chief of Services June 1st
120
SOG 410 Hurricane Hurricane Alert - (4)
1. Secure all windows above the first floor 2. Locate and fill all water containers 3. Top off LP tanks 4. Contact logistical suppport for delivery of prepackaged rescue supplies
121
SOG 410 Hurricane Hurricane Watch - (4)
1. Secure all first floor windows 2. Secure all loose items in and around the station 3. Have all reserve apparatus fueled and fully loaded 4. Designated stations prepare to evacuate
122
SOG 410 Hurricane Hurricane Warning - (2)
1. Notify personnel to anticipate staying additional shifts 2. Top off front line apparatus fuel tanks
123
SOG 410 Hurricane Escape routes may be inaccessible due to traffic, high tides, and other storm conditions as early as _______ hours prior to landfall. Units housed in structures not suitable for winds above _____ mph must be evacuated ____ hours prior to landfall. The _______________________ will maintain a master list of these structures and station evacuations requirements.
6 hours 74 mph, 6 hours Division Chief of Operations
124
SOG 410 Hurricane No authorization shall be grangted, in advance, for any citizen or family member to obtain shelter in a JFRD facility without the express permission of the appropriate _________________.
Division Chief
125
SOG 410 __________ (leading cause of death during hurricanes) ___________ (second leading cause of death during hurricanes) The most potentially destructive force of any major hurricane is ______________. Evacuation orders will only be issued by the ___________ or the ____________.
Drowning Electrical hazard storm surge Governor or the Mayor
126
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials When a call is received indicationg a possible HazMat incident, FRCC will attempt to obtain information regarding the incident and the materials involved, including: (6)
1. Name (verify spelling of chemical name) 2. Amount 3. Type 4. Size of container 5. Type of problem (leak, spill, fire, etc.) 6. Properties of the reported material
127
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials A critical aspect of the response to a HazMat incident is the ______________ of the situation.
initial size-up
128
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials The objective of size-up is: (3)
1. Identify the product involved 2. Assess the nature and severity of the problem 3. Gather sufficient information to formulate a valid Incident Action Plan
129
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials The primary responsibility/goal of the first arriving unit is ______________ of materials involved and the ______________________.
identification, hazards presented
130
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Control/Stabilization of Incident Defensive: Directing __________ to a safe holding area Dissipating ____________ Offensive: ___________ materials ___________ substance Plugging or shutting off _________
Directing RUNOFF Dissipating VAPORS DILUTiNG materials NEUTRALIZING substance Plugging or shutting off LEAK
131
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials The success of Decon, like that of any operation, is based on ____________________.
standardization
132
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials The size of the Decon Zone and the number of Decon Stations will be determined by the ________________.
HazMat Team
133
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials DOT Hazard Classes (9)
1. Explosives 2. Compressed gases 3. Flammable liquids 4. Flammable solids 5. Oxidizers 6. Toxic 7. Radioactive 8. Corrosives 9. Miscellaneous Hazardous Materials
134
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Class 1 - Explosives Initial isolation distance of _______ ft. Do not overhaul areas where ___________ have burned or exploded.
2000 ft explosives
135
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Class 2 - Compressed Gases Stay _________ Non-flammable gas leaks can _____________ oxygen Poisonous gas leaks will have a TIH (__________________) but can still have flammamble ranges. Most gases are __________ than air.
upwind displace Toxic Inhalation Hazard heavier
136
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Class 2 - Compressed Gases Pressure vessels should have a minimum of ______ GPM applied at each point of flame impingement. Additional streams should be applied to the _______________, above the product level. Propane expansion ratio _____:___ Propane is _____ times heavier than air Flammable range of ___ -____%
500 GPM vapor space 270:1 1.5 times 2.1-9.5%
137
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Class 2 - Compressed Gases: Anhydrous Ammonia _______ than air Can ingnite and explode Shipped as a poisonous gas (________________) Methane __________ than air Flammable range of ___ - ____%
Lighter (non-flammable) Lighter 5-15%
138
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Different types of natural gas lines Residential: __ inch - ___ inch poly or plastic lines Feed into _____________________ that go into the house for service ____ pressure, _____ volume Directionally _____
1/2 inch - 3/4 inch metal transitional risers low pressure, low volume fed
139
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Different types of natural gas lines Commercial: ___ - ___ inch poly or plastic lines Feed into _______________________ ___________ pressure and volume than residential lines Directionally or ______ fed
1 - 2 inch metal transitional risers Higher loop
140
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Different types of natural gas lines Primary Feeders: __ -___ inch poly or metal lines Feed entire areas of the _______________________ _____ pressure, ________ volume Directionally fed or ________ fed
2 - 24 city or large neighborhoods high pressure, high volume loop
141
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Class 3 - Flammable Liquids: The vapors of all flammable liquids are _____________ than air. Use _________________ (CGI) meters to confirm the presence of vapors. If small fires are present: Use ____- chemical, CO2 or ______ extinguishers
heavier Combustible Gas Indicator Dry - Chemical foam extinguishers
142
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Class 3 - Flammable Liquids: (Reportable Quantities (RQ) for Hydrocarbons) Environmental Resource Management Department (ERMD, formerly known as BIO) ____ gallons or more spilled Florida Department of Environmental Protection (FDEP) ____ gallons or more spilled United States Coast Guard (USCG) must also be notified for spills in ____________ waterways or ________________ to those waterways. If a spill creates ________ on the water. No specific gallon amount. Any quantity of a petroleum product which reaches or those which potentially could reach a navigable waterway will require notification of ERMD, State Warning Point and the United States Coast Guard.
10 25 navigable, tributaries Sheen
143
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Class 4 - Flammable Solids DO NOT use ______ or ______ on reactive materials
water or foam
144
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Class 5 - Oxidizers Avoid exposure to smoke, fumes, vapors or dust. Toxic products are frequently produced by _________________. _________________ have special properties that make detonation likely if they are heated beyond their transportation temperatures.
burning oxidizers Organic peroxides
145
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Class 6 - Toxic The words "__________" or "______________" are synonymous with the word toxic. If on fire: Consider letting product __________; this may create less of a hazard to people and the environment.
poison or poisonous burn
146
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Class 7 - Radioactive The Hot Zone shall be any area with an exposure level of ___mR/hr or greater. All personnel in the hot zone should use ___________. Digilert 50 alarms should be set at _____mR/hr or ______ cpm. The area beyond where the Digilert alarms shall be considered the ____________ zone.
2mR/hr or greater dosimeters 0.1 mR/hr or 100 cpm exclusion zone
147
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Class 8 - Corrosives ________________ products are frequently produced by corrosives. Many corrosives react ________ with water, liberating heat and toxic gases. Corrosives may also be _________ and/or ___________.
Highly toxic violently oxidizers and/or ignitable
148
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Class 9 - Miscellaneous Hazardous Materials The danger of chemicals mixing within the same load is ___________.
high
149
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials CBRNE stands for:
Chemical Biological Radiological Nuclear Explosive
150
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Chemical: Generally, chemical agents are ________ at room temperature. Liquids are disseminated as ____________ and may evaporate in a matter of minutes or may take weeks to evaporate.
liquids aerosols
151
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Chemical warfare agents are classified into 5 groups: ________ Agents - (mustard gas, lewisite, etc.) ________ Agents - (cyanide group) ________ Agents - (Chlorine, phosgene, etc.) ________ - (riot and tear gases) ________ Agents - (tabun, sarin, soman, VX, etc.)
Blister Blood Choking Irritants Nerve
152
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Biological: Biological agents are living organisms or are derived from living organisms. They are _________ time more lethal than chemical agents and are invisible to the senses. (e.g., toxins such as RICIN)
1000
153
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Radiological and Nuclear: If first-arriving units cannot measure radiation stage ___________, if possible. Most JFRD Suppression units carry RadAlert 50s, which can measure alpha, beta, gamma and __________ radiation. Rapid rescues can be made for counts as high as ____ R/hr when wearing full PPE with SCBA.
upwind x-ray 25 R/hr
154
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Explosives: Explosives are the most common CBRNE weapon used by _____________. Previous events have shown that first responders are often the target of _____________ devices and ______________ devices. All units that respond to fires or other incidents involving a reported explosion will turn on their _______________ and monitor for radiation.
terrorists secondary, tertiary RadAlert 50s
155
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials Clandestine (Methamphetamine) Labs No JFRD member will enter a suspected Meth Lab without the ________________ or ___________________ team permission.
JSO Bomb Squad or Meth Lab Narcotics team
156
SOG 412 Train Delrailments The __________________ will coordinate railroad operations until they get a supervisor on scene. (In regards to information on the materials carried on a train): This information may also be obtained from ________, which may be located in the locomotive, caboose, or with the conductor; or in all three locations.
Raliroad Chief DIspatcher waybills
157
SOG 412 Train Delrailments Elelctrical Hazard - Be aware of the electrical hazard from _____ volt DC generators in the locomotive.
440 volt
158
SOG 412 Train Derailments Pressurized tanks may be found ________________.
inside box cars
159
SOG 412 Train Derailments If other agencies are involved, consider the need for a _______________ to communicate with those agencies.
Liaison Officer
160
SOG 413 Mass Casualty Incidents MCI Level 1 - MCI Level 2 - MCI Level 3 - MCI Level 4 - MCI Level 5 -
1. 5 - 10 2. 11-20 3. 21-100 4. 101-1000 5. Over 1000 victims, or when regional resources are exhausted or overwhelmed
161
SOG 413 Mass Casualty Incidents Command: Will perform duties as outlined in FOG __ Designates ________ Branch (large scale or complex MCI's)
FOG #2
162
SOG 413 Mass Casualty Incidents Operational Personnel: Medical Branch Officer - Will perform duties as outline in FOG ____ Oversees Triage, Treatment and ____________ Sectors.
FOG #3 Transportation
163
SOG 413 Mass Casualty Incidents Triage Officer FOG ____
#4
164
SOG 413 Mass Casualty Incidents Treatment Officer: FOG ____ Coordinates the ________ of all vicitims
FOG #5 re-triage
165
SOG 413 Mass Casualty Incidents Transportation Officer: FOG _____ Records the triage _____________ and destination hospital for each victim on the hospital transport log.
FOG #6 triage tag number
166
SOG 413 Mass Casualty Incidents Staging Officer: FOG ______
FOG #7
167
SOG 413 Mass Casualty Incidents An attatched truck and trailer that is housed at Station __. It carries an assortment of equipment and supplies for IMMEDIATE need throughout the region:
Station 9 MCI-9
168
SOG 413 Mass Casualty Incidents A trailer that is housed at Station _____. It carries an assortment of equipment and supplies for IMMEDIATE needs on JIA property.
Station 16 MCI-16
169
SOG 413 Mass Casualty Incidents A trailer that is housed at Station ___. It carries equipment for LONG-Term need throughout the region.
Station 32 MCI-32
170
SOG 413 Mass Casualty Incidents Each victim should be triaged where they are found (unless a hazard exists) in less than _____ seconds.
60
171
SOG 413 Mass Casualty Incidents START triage (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) RPM (Respirations, Perfusion, and Mental Status) Respirations: If respiratory rate is ____ per minute or less, move on to Perfusion If repiratory rate is ____ per minute or more, tage Red Perfusion: If radial pulse present or capillary reflill is __ seconds or less, move on to Mental Status If radial pulse is absent or capillary refill is greater than ___ seconds, tag Red Mental Status: If victim follows commands and is alert and oriented x4, tag _________ If victim exhibits any signs of altered level of consciousness, tag ________
30 31 2 2 yellow red
172
SOG 415 Air Transportation Unit If further evaluatin indicates that an ATU is not needed after being called, it may be cancelled, just as any other unit. This shall be done by the __________ in charge of the patient.
paramedic
173
SOG 415 Air Transportation Unit ATUs are generally not indicated for patients in _______ or __________ arrest but may be used in extenuating circumstances.
Cardiac or Trauma
174
SOG 415 Air Transportation Unit When possible, the ______________ back boards are preferable for patient loading.
narrow/tapered
175
SOG 415 Air Transportation Unit ______________ will continuously monitor and evaluate use of ATUs.
Rescue Chiefs
176
SOG 415 Air Transportation Unit LZ Criteria: Minimum size: _____' x _____' during the day or night Free of wires, light-poles, loose objects and loose _______ Hard surface: roads with minimum of __ lanes Soft Surfaces: __________ means Ground slope less than ____ degrees ___' clearance needed in approach path
100 x 100 sand 2 secondary means 5 degrees 30 ft
177
SOG 415 Air Transportation Unit LZ Criteria: If loose sand is a factor and you are unable to find an alternate LZ: _______________________________________.
Wet down the area with water from the booster tanks
178
SOG 415 Air Transportation Unit The __________________ with be the only person who communicates with the ATU. The GG should be aware that the _________________ (PIC) is the final authority as to the safety of the LZ.
Ground Guide Pilot in command
179
SOG 415 Air Transportation Unit The Ground Guide shall contact the ATU using the frequency assigned by FRCC (often ______). The Ground Guide shall provide the following to the ATU Pilot:
A-5 Location, Definition, Obstructions
180
SOG 415 Air Transportation Unit Signal Communications: The Ground Guide shall stand ____________________ with _____________________. Wave-Off: To signal unsafe conditions or otherwise wave off the ATU: Radio call " ____________________________" Use wave off signal: _____________________. If there is no time to do both, use wave off signal
Abort Abort Abort. Zone unsafe Cross arms over head and hold
181
SOG 415 Air Transportation Unit With the ATU on the ground stay clear, following these safety rules: Keep emergency personnel a minimum of ____' from the touchdown area. Keep bystandards a minimum of ____' from the touchdown area Never approach ATU from the _______.
100ft 200ft rear
182
SOG 417 Elevator Emergencies
183
SOG 417 Elevator Emergencies Modern elevators are equipped with hoist way door locks, which are automatically released by a _____ on the car when the car is at or within a few ______ of floor level.
cam inches
184
SOG 417 Elevator Emergencies Before using emergency exits, ensure that power to the elevator has been ______________.
disconnected
185
SOG 417 Elevator Emergencies Disconnecting switches/breakers are usually located in one of the following areas: (3)
In the basement of the hoist way in the elevator machine room Near the elevator machine room
186
SOG 417 Elevator Emergencies There are two types of emergency exits:
Side Exits - (Rarely found on elevator cars). Top Exits - (found on all elevator cars).
187
SOG 417 Elevator Emergencies Geared elevators are always provided with a crank that is located in the _______________. By turning the crank, the car may be moved up or down. Front and back movement of the car: The _________________ may be removed to permit more movement. They are fastened to the _________ by four bolts.
machine room top guide shoes, crosshead
188
SOG 417 Elevator Emergencies Elevators Fire Service Mode may be initiated automatically by _______ or ___________ sensors.
smoke or heat
189
SOG 418 Confined Space A Confined Space refers to a space which: (3)
Is not intended for continuous occupancy Has limited openings for entry and exit Has unfavorable natural ventilation which may contain (a toxic and/or flammable atmosphere) (Oxygen levels below 19.5% or above 23.5%)
190
SOG 418 Confined Space FIRST ARRIVING UNIT: (5 things)
1. Establish Command 2. Size up the incident 3. Determine the condition of the victim(s) prior to entry 4. Determine the condition of the atomosphere (must assume that an untested confined space has an unsafe atmosphere. 5. Initiate the appropriate action.
191
SOG 418 Confined Space Personnel should await the arrival of a District Chief before making entry into the Confined Space if any of the following conditions exist: (3)
The victim is obviously deceased The victim is out of the line of sight Entry cannot be made with SCBA properly donned (per manufacturer's recommendations)
192
SOG 418 Confined Space Command Positions: Incident Commander (responsible for ensuring that a ___________________ sheet is completed. Safety Officer Accountability Officer Rehabilitation Officer (the __________________ checklist must be used for all entry personnel)
Confined Space Command Sheet The Confined Space Medical Checklist
193
SOG 418 Confined Space Operational Positions Atmosphere Monitoring Ventilation Lock-out/Tag-out Attendant (Person in charge of the _________). Entry Team (If possible, a minimun of ____ members) Entry Rescue Team (This team shall of ___ members for every ___ on the Entry Team)
Hot zone 2 2, 1
194
SOG 418 Confined Space Due to the potential for structural instability, special caution must be taken if there has been ________________.
external flooding
195
SOG 418 Confined Space The Hot Zone may extend beyond the Confined Space opening, especially during __________________.
ventilation
196
SOG 418 Confined Space Command will assign responsibility for monitoring the atmosphere, which will be done prior to entry and while personnel are operating in the Confined Space. The _______________ should be given this assignment if they are on scene.
HazMat Team
197
SOG 418 Confined Space Ventilation: If there is only 1 entry/exit point: If there are 2 entry/exit points into the Confined Space: The space should be sufficiently ventilated so that level of combustibles do not exceed ____% of their lower explosive limit (LEL)
Duct work should be placed in the Confined Space and PPV applied NPV may be provided at one entry/exit point and PPV at the other. 10%
198
SOG 418 Confined Space SCBA use - Since SCBA use is limited due to air supply, working time must be ____________________. SAR use - The Supplied Air Respirator system is required anytime removal of the _________ is necessary for entry.
continuously monitored SCBA
199
SOG 418 Confined Space Lifelines shall be attended by ____________ per line.
one member
200
SOG 418 Confined Space Increasing the oxygen content in the space above _____% could result in a very dangerous atmosphere, particularly if flammable substances are present. For this reason, _________________ must never be used in a Confined Space.
21% medical oxygen
201
SOG 419 Rope Minimum Rope Issue Engines: (__) Utility Lines (___" x ______ft) Engines 43 and 48: (____) Life Safety Line (___" x _____ft) in addition to the ______ utility lines Ladders: ______ - Utility Lines (____" x ____ ft) ______ - Life Safety Lines (___" x ____ ft) ______ - RIT Rope (____ millimeters x ____ ft)
2 Utility (1/2" x 200 ft) 1 Life Safety Line (1/2" x 200 ft) in addition to the 2 utility lines Three - Utility lines (1/2" x 200 ft) Two - Life Safety lines (1/2 x 200 ft) One - RIT rope (6 mm x 130 ft)
202
SOG 419 Rope Life Safety lines (lifelines) shall never be used for ________ or as _____________. Lifelines shall be labeled as such at _______________.
training, utility lines each end
203
SOG 419 Rope Before a lifeline is reissued, it shall be evaluated by _____________________.
competent personnel
204
SOG 419 Rope All utility and life safety lines used by JFRD are of the ________________ type.
static kernmantle
205
SOG 419 Rope The load carrying core (_______) provides approximately ____% of the rope's tensile strength. The ______ is afforded protection from dirt, cuts, and abrasions by a tightly braided outer sheath (_________) which provides approximately ____% of the tensile strength.
kern, 75% kern, mantle, 25%
206
SOG 419 Rope One - _____" lifeline has a tensile strength of _______ lbs. With proper safety factor of ______ accounted for, the actual usuable capacity of the line is _____ pounds. _____ pounds is the NFPA standard for a ____________________.
half inch, 9000 lbs 15:1, 600 pounds 600 pounds, two - person load
207
SOG 419 Rope __________ is the most common form of rope destruction. Nylon static kernmantle rope becomes sticky at _____ degrees and melts between _____ and _____ degrees F.
Abrasion 445 degrees 480 and 500 degrees
208
SOG 419 Rope DO not store rope in compartments with or near these items: (3)
Batteries Gas cans Gas Powered equipment
209
SOG 419 Rope Dirt will shorten the life of a rope through ____________. If possible, use a commercial rope washer or a front loading washing machine with a glass front. If using a washing machine, the rope must be place in __________. Wash in ______________________; never use bleach.
abrasion its bag cold water with mild soap
210
SOG 419 Rope Inspect the rope __________ and after each use.
weekly
211
SOG 419 Rope Kernmantle has a _________ sheath over a ________ core. A _________ shall be maintained on each Life Safety Line.
colored, white Rope Log
212
SOG 419 Rope When inspecting rope look for: (4)
Differences in flexibility Differences in diameter Lumpiness Badly frayed or abraded sheath (exposing the kern)
213
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express Some apparatus carry ______________. It is recommended that these be used at the scene to verify that power is disconnected.
Tig-Tracers
214
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express Elevations in some areas of the San Marco section exceed ________ ft.
52
215
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express Batteries on Skyway cars present a fire and ____________ hazard.
explosion
216
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express Main power to the Skyway is supplied to substations located at the __________ and ____________ stations and ___________ Center. Tansformers located outside of these stations supply power to the _____________.
Central and San Marco O&M breakers
217
The breakers, which are located inside ____________ rooms at each of these stations, supply power to the ______________________ (PDPs). PDPs are located at each passenger station and switch. They supply power to the __________ power rails that power the car's traction motors, inverters and APU's.
equipment Power Disconnect Panels three
218
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express Methods of Power Shut-Down: 1. Control Center The Control Center has the ability to shutdown power to the entire system at ________ or in ____________. Although power can be shutdown in specific sections, the entire system shall be de-engergized until the location of the incident is verified.
once, sections
219
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express Methods of Power Shut-down: 2. Blue Light Stations Each station loading platform has _______ Blue Light Stations located ____________ to eachother, but _________________ from each other. Blue Light Stations must be activated on ________ sides of the emergency as well as the station involved. Power will be shutdown at the station involved and in each direction along the guideway all the way to the next station. Blue Light Stations still must be activated on __________ sides of the emergency as well as the station ____________.
2, diagonally both both, involved
220
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express The Y-Junction Area is located at ______ and __________ streets. If an emergency exists in this area, it will require shutting down the power at the _____________ and either ____________ street or ____________ stations.
Bay and Jefferson streets San Marco and either the Jefferson Street or Central Stations
221
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express The Y-junction Area has a section of track that is ________________ operated and ______________ actuated. These sections are to be regarded as potential crushing hazards even after power shutdown.
hydraulically, electrically
222
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express The Skyway Express Control Center building is located at __________________.
725 Leila St.
223
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express Intercoms are located on the ________________ and the ______________ of the Skyway Control Center building. The Control Room is located on the _________________ of the Skyway Control Center building.
front gate, front door second floor
224
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express There will be no operator on-duty at the Skyway Control Center from _________ Friday night until __________ Monday morning.
2330, 0400
225
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express The Control Center is equipped with an _________ Extinguishing System. The __________ Extinguishing System is used in three areas of the Skyway Building:
FM-200 FM-200 Coontol room, Computer Room, Signal room
226
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express Skyway Cars: The doors have ____________ glass windows and the car's remaining windows are made of __________. Emergency walkways are _______ inches - __________ inches wide and are provided on the inboard side of the cars throughout the system.
tempered, Lexan 18 inches - 30 inches
227
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express Cars run on a ____________________ system and are held in place by the force of the guidance wheels on the monorail beam.
monorail beam system
228
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express Each vehicle is comprised of two cars (an A and a B car) permanently linked together . Total vehicle capacity is ___ people or ____ per car.
56, 28
229
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express Electrical traction motors are located under the car between the three sets of running wheels. Electronics are located inside compartments isn the _____ car. They are also found in between the cars in the ____________ sections. ________________ (NICAD) batteries are located under the seats in the ____ car only. The batteries can be accessed form the inside or outside of the car.
A, inner car sectins Nickel Cadmium batteries, A
230
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express Burning batteries are metal fires and are _________________. Use _________ extinguishers only.
water reactive Metal-X
231
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express The second arriving Suppression District Chief will report to the ________________ and assume Control Room Sector. Engies take: (1) Ladders take: (3)
Control Center portable extinguishers Rope, forcible entry tool and appropriate extinguishers
232
SOG 421 Respiratory Protection A HEPA mask has been provided to all JFRD personnel for the prevention of ________________ and other airborne diseases. Information from FRCC (Signal ____, TB, etc,) indicates a potential TB exposure hazard.
tuberculosis (TB) signal 13
233
SOG 421 Respiratory Protection Signs and symptoms of TB (5)
Persistant cough (longer than 3 weeks) bloody sputum Night sweats Anorexia (loss of appetite) Fever
234
SOG 421 Respiratory Protection HEPA mask shall NOT be reused if the mask is odler than ____________.
6 months
235
SOG 421 Respiratory Protection JFRD personnel shall be tested and certified in the safe and proper use of the SCBA and facepiece prior to use by new personnel and ____________ for all personnel. This shall be done by the Training Division using ________________ measures. Chiefs and Company Officers will ensure that personnel under their supervision are: Able to properly don and doff the SCBA Trained __________ until proficient enought to done the SCBA within ____ minutes.
annually quantitative quarterly, 2 minutes
236
SOG 421 Respiratory Protection Minimum fill pressure of the SCBA must be ________ PSI.
4050 PSI
237
SOG 421 Respiratory Protection The use of _______ contact lenses during SCBA use is prohibited.
hard
238
SOG 421 Respiratory Protection An _______________ response will be required anytime the SAR system is used.
Air Truck
239
SOG 421 Respiratory Protection Personnel who may be required to use the SAR to enter toxic atomspheres in confined space rescue situations will be trained in Emergency procedures including _______________.
escape pack.
240
SOG 421 Respiratory Protection The cleaning, maintenacne and storage of the SAR system will be the responsibility of the ___________________.
Special Operations Team
241
SOG 421 Respiratory Protection Bottles may be over-filled by ____% max (_________PSI)
10%, 4950 PSI
242
SOG 421 Respiratory Protection The air quality from compressors, cascade system cylinders, storage receivers, and other such breathing air manufacturing or storage equipment used for filling SCBA cylinders shall be tested at least every ________________.
three months.
243
SOG 421 Respiratory Protection Hydrostatic Testing: Compressed air cylinders used by the JFRD shall be hydrostatically tested within the periods spacified by the manufacturers. This shall occur at lwast every ____ years for the air cascade storage cylinder and carbon fiber SCBA cylinders.
5 years
244
SOG 422 Infection Control BSI is generally accomplished by __________________.
barrier techniques
245
SOG 422 Infection Control _____________________ are the most effective products for reducing the number of germs on the hands of healthcare providers. _________________ are recommended for cleaning visibly dirty hands.
Alcohol based hand sanitizers Soap and water
246
SOG 422 Infection Control When hand washing facilities are not immediately available, use of ____________________ is recommended.
antiseptic hand cleaner
247
SOG 422 Infection Control In the event of a needlestick or other skin puncture, the wound should be scrubbed with ___________________ as soon as possible and rinsed with a ___________ solution of household bleach and water. ___ gallon containers of bleach are to be carried on all JFRD apparatus.
soap and warm water 1:100 1 gallon
248
SOG 422 Infection Control Soiled/contaminated uniforms or protective clothing are to be placed in __ red biowaste bags and delivered to stations: (16) or the Training Academy to be placed in the extractor on a 30 cycle for decontamination.
2 stations 1, 5, 7, 21. 24, 26, 28, 30, 31, 32, 35, 58, 59, 61, 62, or 73
249
SOG 422 Infection Control Surfaces and equipment should be scrubbed with ____________ and rinsed with a _________ solution of household bleach and water.
hot, soapy water, 1:1000
250
SOG 422 Infection Control Manual Decon of Patient Compartment after Transport of an Airborne Infectious Patient: This section is not applicable when more extensive protective measures have been applied to a Hazardous Materials Team rescue unit, such as draping the interior of the patient compartment, or utilizing ___________________________ (PAPRs).
powered air purifying respirators
251
SOG 422 Infection Control An ____________ device is intended to provide superior decontamination since it proveds a hands-free disinfecting mist throughout the entire patient compartment.
AeroClave device
252
SOG 422 Infection Control When Deconning: Open the rear and side doors of the patient compartment to allow air exhange for a minimum of ___ minutes.
30
253
SOG 422 Infection Control Doff PPE in the following order: (4) Lastly: Wash Hands for a minimum of _____ seconds with warm water.
Gloves Goggles Gown Mask 20
254
SOG 422 Infection Control Tactical Support shall be requested via ________ to pick up the biowaste. Requests for pick up shall be submitted when the large storage containers at the station are full or after ___ month since the last pick up, whichever comes first.
Tivoli 1 month
255
SOG 423 Infectious Exposure LIfe Threatening Infections Diseases: (4)
HIV Hepatitis A, B, and C Pulmonary Tuberculosis Meningitis
256
SOG 423 Infectious Exposure A source patient is a patient with whom JFRD personnel have had a _____________________.
significant exposure
257
SOG 423 Infectious Exposure Any employee suspecting or knowing of another to have aninfectious disease shall report this to their company officer, who will notify HSO. The HSO will then notify the __________________.
Director/Fire Chief
258
SOG 423 Infectious Exposure Exposed Personnel: Wash the exposure site with __________________ as soon as possible and rinse with 1:100 solution of household bleach and water.
soap and warm water
259
SOG 423 Infectious Exposure Full treatment for the most communicable diseases can be initiated within ____ hours without complications.
72
260
SOG 423 Infectious Exposure Health and Safety Officer: Notify the affected personnel and ____________________ of the source patients test results.
Risk Management
261
SOG 423 Infectious Exposure Reports: JFRD exposure Report - Filled out by HSO. The _____ copy is placed in the employee's confidential medical file. The _________ copy is given to the employee. JFRD Source Patient Blood/Body Fluid Exposure Tracking Form - Filled out by HSO or the ____________________ Chief. The charge nurse of the ER where the source patient was transported MUST sign that they received the source patient tracking form. The ______ copy is left with the charge nurse. The _______ copy is placed in the employee's confidential medical file.
white, yellow Rescue District/Battalion Chief white, yellow
262
SOG 423 Infectious Exposure Follow up written reports are to be hand delivered to HQ or faxed to the ________________________ at 630-0609 to be placed in the confidential medical file of the exposed individual.
Office of Health and Safety
263
SOG 424 Bomb/WMD Investigation The first-arriving company will direct incoming units to the _________________.
staging area.
264
SOG 424 Bomb/WMD Investigation While in staging, the JFRD IC will ensure that the following responsibilities are assigned: (3)
Crew with portable extinguishers Crew with EMS jump kit Crew with Hi-rise kit (when multi-story or large floor area structures are involved)
265
SOG 424 Bomb/WMD Investigation JSO BOMB SUIT There are ______ quick release handles. One that is visible on the ______ and another on the side under the ____ arm.
2 chest, left arm
266
SOG 425 Hostage Situation _______ has ultimate responisbility for the incident. This includes: (3)
JSO Inner and outer perimeters Crowd and traffic control Support activities
267
SOG 425 Hostage Situation En-Route: All units will respond in _______________ status. Outside speakers will be _______________ prior to arrival.
non-emergency turned off
268
SOG 425 Hostage Situation First-arriving unit: The Company Officer will report to _______ for instructions while the rest of the crew remains with the apparatus. The Company Officer will also direct incoming units to the ________________.
JSO Staging Area.
269
SOG 425 Hostage Situation JFRD personnel ordered to report to the __________________ for functions other than EMS shall wear full structual PPE.
inner perimeter
270
SOG 425 Hostage Situation Rescue Unit(s) will be assigned a position within the _________________ designated by the JFRD IC. Vehicles shall be parked in a manner to remove the need for unnecessary _____________.
outer perimeter backing
271
SOG 425 Hostage Situation The ____________________ shall secure an adequate water supply and be prepared to layout. The officer will ensure that the route is unimpeded by contacting the __________________.
Engine Company's Officer Liaison Officer (Safety Officer)
272
SOG 425 Hostage Situation HazMat Team: They will ensure that a ________________________ is set up, in the event that personnel are contaminated with chemical agents.
decontamination station
273
SOG 425 Hostage Situation Relief Companies: Because incidents can be of an exteded duration, it is recommended that deployments be limited to _____ hour rotations. FRCC shall notify relief companies at least ____ minutes prior to their deployment to allow for preparations and travel time.
2 hour 30 minutes
274
SOG 426 Crime Scene _________________ is a major factor in preserving and protecting crime scenes.
Situational awareness
275
SOG 426 Crime Scene If after arrival the scene deteriorates and is no longer secure, all JFRD personnel shall withdraw from the scene upon orders form the __________________.
Company Officer
276
SOG 426 Crime Scene Crime Scene Protection: Personnel should maintain a _____________ into and away from the scene, using sidewalks or other paved walkways, if possible.
direct path
277
SOG 426 Crime Scene The Company Officer will consult with law enforcement personnel to determine if the scene is to be processed by an ___________________.
Evidence Technician
278
SOG 426 Crime Scene Patient Care: Clothing - Bullet and stab holes shall not be used as _______________ for cutting off clothing. Cut along seams if possible.
starting points
279
SOG 426 Crime Scene In most cases death can be easily confired and requires only ______ personnel to perfor the examination.
2
280
SOG 426 Crime Scene Accidental or Foul-Play A visual examination is usually all that is required in cases below: (4)
Severe Burns Decapitation Dismemberment Advanced Decomposition
281
SOG 426 Crime Scene Exercise extreme care to minimize ________ and __________ of blood and bodily fluids.
casting and trailing
282
SOG 426 Crime Scene All personnel operating at a crime scene are subject to ______________.
subpoena
283
SOG 427 Open Burning Regulatory and Environmental Services Department, Air and Water Quality Division issue open burning permits _____________. Each permit is for ________ location only and cannot be transferred to another site.
each day one location
284
SOG 427 Open Burning Open burning permits are for ___________ only.
land clearing
285
SOG 427 Open Burning Burning is permitted from ________ until ___ hour prior to sunset.
0900, 1 hour
286
SOG 427 Open Burning Open burning must be at least ______ ft away from any public highway or road; and with _____ carrying smoke away from any traffic thoroughfare.
100 ft. wind
287
SOG 427 Open Burning Land clearing debris can only be transported off-site when it is to be burned using an ____________________.
Air Curtain Incinerator
288
SOG 427 Open Burning Residential land clearing is an operation that is conducted by the homeowner of an existing residential dwelling of not more than _____ family units for the purpose of intially clearing vegetation.
two
289
SOG 427 Open Burning For residential land clearing, any fire must be at least _____ feet away from any occupied building. For commercial land clearing, any fire must be at least ______ feet away from any occupied building if not using and AIr Curtain Incinerator and at least ______ feet away if using one.
300 ft 1000 ft, 300 ft
290
SOG 427 Open Burning The noncommercial burning of materials other than rubbish for pleasure, religious, ceremonial, cooking or similar purposes in which the fuel purned is not contained in an incinterator, a barbecue pit and the total fuel area is not exceeding ___ feet in diameter and ___ feet in height. This definition defines what?
A recteational fire 3 feet in diameter and 2 feet in height
291
SOG 427 Open Burning The fire will be extinguished immediately if: (3)
There is no valid permit Conditions of 427.01.04 have been violated The size of the fire creates excessive amounts of smoke
292
SOG 427 Open Burning Citations: The initial arriving company officer should attempt to educate the violator and issue a ______________.
verbal warning
293
SOG 427 Open Burning If JFRD has made multiple responses to the same address for open burning violations, or if resistance to extinguishment is encountered, the OIC will request FRCC to notify ____________________________________________________ for possible issuance of a citation.
Regulatory and Environmental Services Department, Air and Water Quality Division
294
SOG 427 Open Burning After normal work hours or on weekends and holidays, FRCC shall request a __________________ to respond and issue a citation, if warranted.
District/Battalion Chief
295
SOG 427 Open Burning Citations may be issued for active burning that does not comply with 427.01.05 including: Open burning within _________ ft of an active runway at a State Department of Transportation approved public airport. Open burning of land-clearing debris within _____ ft of any public highway or road, or prevailing winds direct smoke toward public highway or road. Open burning of land-clearing debris prior to _______ a.m. or after _____ hour before sunset. Open burning of land-clearing debris causing excessive visible emissions equal to or greater than _____ percent opacity.
1000 ft 100 ft 9 a.m. or after 1 hour 40%
296
SOG 427 Open Burning Each day, during any part of which an offense occurs shall constitute a ________________________.
separate offense
297
SOG 427 Open Burning Citation Books: The _________________________ will isue all citation books and will keep a record of the Suppression District/Battalion Chief designation to which it was issued.
Division Chief of Prevention
298
SOG 427 Open Burning ALL SECTIONS OF THE CITATION FORM MUST BE COMPLETED Place hard page between the ticket to be written and the next ticket in the book (______________)
carbon protect
299
SOG 427 Open Burning 8 parts to a citation form In regards to Part 1 - Information Regarding Identity of Person or Facility Causing Offense: The issuer MUST write the phycial or mailing address of the business, person, etc. and NOT the ___________________.
violation address.
300
SOG 427 Open Burning In regards to Part 2 - Information Regarding Identity of Person Served with this Citation: If the name in Part 1 is different than person served with the citation in Part 2, issuer must write the full name of the person _________ the citation and the address of that person.
receiving
301
SOG 427 Open Burning In regards to Part 7 - Agent's signature, Time served, Date served: JFRD personnel _____________________ MUST sign the citation and write the date and time issued.
witnessing the violation
302
SOG 427 Open Burning In regards to Part 8 - Signature of Person being served: If the person refuses to sign, you may write "REFUSED TO SIGN" and hand them the unsigned citation. If no one is present at the time the violation is observed, you may write "_____________" and tape or otherwise secure the citation to the door, fence or other publicly accessible location where it will be seen when someone returns.
POSTED
303
SOG 427 Open Burning White Copy - hand delivered to the _________________________ Pink Copy - to person __________ Yellow Copy - hand delivered to the _________________________
Division Chief of Fire Prevention person cited Division Chief of Fire Prevention
304
SOG 431 Marine Operations The ___________________ has the ultimate authority concerning the safe operation of the vessel.
vessel master
305
SOG 431 Marine Operations JFRD Marine Vessels work closely with the following Federal, State and local agencies: (4)
Unisted States Coast Guard (USCG) United States Navy (USN) Florida Fish and WIldlife Commission (FWC) Jacksonville Sherriff's Office (JSO)
306
SOG 431 Marine Operations The JFRD's primary marine units are house at Stations: (3)
38, 39 and 40
307
SOG 431 Marine Operations Jake Godbold Length: ____ ft Beam: _____ ft ____ inches Draft: ____ ft Fire Pump: ________ GPM 1 3/4 inch, 2 1/2 inch and 5 inch discharges as well as _____ fixed monitors Foam application and storage capabilities Heated/Air conditioned patient care area Full compliment of marine electronics (Including Forward Looking Infra-Red (FLIR))
50 ft 15 ft 10 inches 2.5 ft 6000 GPM 4 fixed monitors
308
SOG 431 Marine Operations Robert F. Kiley Length: ____ ft ____ inches Beam: ____ ft Draft: ____ ft ____ inches Fire Pump: _______ GPM 1 3/4 inch, 2 1/2 inch and 5 inch discharges as well as ____ fixed monitors Foam application and storage capabilities Heated/air conditioned patient care area Full complement of marine electronics (including Forward Looking Infra-Red (FLIR))
70 ft 10 inches 22 ft 3 foot 10 inches 14000 GPM 4 fixed monitors
309
SOG 431 Marine Operations 37 Foot Boat Length: _____ Beam: _____ ft. ____ inches Draft: ___ ft ____ inches Fire pump: ______ GPM _____ 5 inch discharges and a roof mounted monitor ____________ monitoring equipment Heated/Air conditioned patient care area Full compliment of marine electronics including _________________ Landing craft design
37 ft 10 ft 5 inches 2 feet 8 inches 1500 gpm (2) 5 inch discharges side scan sonar
310
SOG 431 Marine Operations 29 Foot boat: Length: _____ ft Beam: ____ft ____ inches Draft: ___ ft ___ inches Fire Pump: _______ gpm 2 1/2 inch and 5 inch discharges as well as ____ fixed monitor Foam application capabilities Heated/Air conditioned patient care area
29 ft 10 ft 2 inches 3 ft 2 inches 1250 gpm one fixed monitor
311
SOG 431 Marine Operations ____ ft Rigid Hull Inflatable boat (RHIB) side scan sonar
19 ft
312
SOG 431 Marine Operations Other JFRD Marine Assets: Station 40 (Marine 40) - ____ ft RHIB on a trailer Station 42 (Marine 42) - Jon boat and trailer Station 32 (Marine 32) - Jon boat and trailer Station 39 (Marine 39) - Jon boat on ______ Station 38 (Marine 38) - ____ ft shallow water "Mud boat", _____ ft RHIB on trailer
Station 40 - 14 ft RHIB Station 39 - jon boat on lift Station 38 - 20 ft shallow water Mud Boat, 14 ft RHIB on trailer
313
SOG 431 Marine Operations VHF Channels are listed: (6) Safety Channel Calling Channel Navigational Channel Distress, Safety and Hailing Channel Coast Guard Channels Noncommercial Channels
Safety Channel - Ch. 6 Calling Channel - Ch. 9 Navigational Channel - Ch. 13 Distress, Safety, and Hailing Channel - Ch. 16 Coast Guard Channels - Ch. 21A, 22A, 23A, 83A Noncommercial Channels - Ch. 68, 69, 71, 72, 78A
314
SOG 431 Marine Operations Marine Channel ____ and JFRD ____ shall be monitored at all times while underway. JFRD _____ is designated as the marine channel and may be used between multiple agencies such as JSO, FWC, NCFR and others. JFRD marine units utilizing _____ need to monitor the talk group assigned by FIre Comm (A4, B1, etc.) and relay information to land based units as needed.
16 and JFRD A2 A10 A10
315
SOG 431 Marine Operations All personnel and passengers on any vessel that is away from the dock shall require use of personal floatation devices (PFD). (PFDs are not required while inside on enclosed cabin). All PFDs shall be equipped with a suitable waterproof PFD _______________.
light/flashlight
316
SOG 431 Marine Operations While underway, all personnel operating outside the cabin of the vessel shall use a ______________ in addition to their PFD.
safety harness
317
SOG 431 Marine Operations Float coats are insulated jackets designed to aid buoyancy and retain ____________.
body warmth
318
SOG 431 Marine Operations These do not include a built in PFD. These float coats must be used in addition to a PFD. They do not replace PFDs.
Orange Hi-VIsibility Coat
319
SOG 431 Marine Operations Highly Reflective Coat with Built-In Flotation Device - these float coats include a built-in manual/water activated ____ floatation device. These may be used in lieu of a PFD.
CO2
320
SOG 431 Marine Operations Some JFRD vessels are equipped with a ____________ lanyard designed to stop the engine in case the operator is ejected or falls overboard. On vessels so equipped, personnel shall have the lanyard attatched to their PFD.
Kill-switch lanyard
321
SOG 431 Marine Operations Hazards: Reduced-Visibility Hazards: (3) Specific nighttime hazards: (4)
Reduced Visibility: Collisions with obstacles and floating or partially submerged objects, such as dredging pipes and barges or other boats Disorientation and difficulty judging distances Less time to identify and react to hazards Specific nighttime hazards: Increased commercial traffic Unlit docks, buoys, and markers Boats or obstacles with improper lighting or no lighting at all Distortion from background lights on land and cars on roads and bridges
322
SOG 431 Marine Operations For operations occurring at night the lookout should be equipped with __________________.
night-vision goggles
323
SOG 431 Marine Operations For all draw span bridges, the crew shall ____________________ well in advance of approaching the bridge. The crew shall stand by until the bridge is _______________. Once the bridge spans have reached their _______ the vessel may proceed through at a slow and safe speed. Bridge tenders are contacted on VHF Channel ___ or ____.
contact the bridge tender fully raised, apex 9 or 16
324
SOG 431 Marine Operations Unlike most bridges, railroad trestles often remain in the open position for passage of marine traffic. However, when railroad trestles move to the down position, they may remain so for _________________.
a very long period.
325
SOG 431 Marine Operations All run reports for assistance calls should include: (4)
Conditions found Corrective actions taken Vessel ID number Operators name and contact information
326
SOG 431 Marine Operations Before preceeding offshore (________________) the person in charge shall assess weather conditions, seat state, vessel limitations and severity of situation. If the decision is made to proceed offshore, the person in charge shall notify _______. FRCC shall contact the vessle to confirm location status every ____ minutes.
beyond the Mayport jetties FRCC 15 minutes
327
SOG 431 Marine Operations Because of Station ___ and ___'s low elevation, it shall require evacuation during any hurricane above Category ___. THe Godbold (___ foot) and the Kiley (___ foot) will be manned with minimum crew of ___ qualified operators for the duration of the threat of a hurricane or tropical storm.
38 and 40 category 1 50 foot 70 foot 4
328
SOG 431 Marine Operations Hurrican category ___ or above both vessels are to be moved out of the affected area ___ hours prior to tropical storm force winds projected. Location of larger vessels will be determined by storm track and vessel captains.
1 12 hours
329
SOG 431 Marine Operations Smaller vessles will be removed from water by _________________ personnel and qualified operators for hurricanes category ___ or above ____ hours prior to tropical sotrm force winds projected. These boats will be stored at station ____.
tactical support 1, 12 hours 37
330
SOG 431 Marine Operations Stations ___ and ___ shall follow standard station evacuation procedures. Stations other than ____ and ___ that house marine assets shall consider the need to transport the boats to a safe location (usually the station they are evacuating to).
39 and 40 38 and 39
331
SOG 431 Marine Operations Other than the ___ foot boat and the ___ foot boat, all JFRD marine apparatus may be tansported by trailer. The machanical condition of trailers that may be used to transport marine assets to safer locations shall be checked prior to __________. Safe Storage Locations: _______________ will make these determinations.
70, 50 June 1st Tactical Support
332
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents The Jacksonville Aviation Authority (JAA) owns and operates the following airports and is the controlling entity for all airport operations: (4) Operations on these airfields and their associated properties are governed by the FAA, TSA, JAA, National Aerospace Standards (NAS) 3306, and other military guidelines regarding ARFF protection and operations.
Jacksonville International AIrport Cecil Airport Jacksonville Executive at Craig Airport Herlong Recreational Airport
333
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents Incident Termination Control of the site/aircraft rendered to the appropriate agency/person listed below: (8)
Jacksonville Sheriff's Office (JSO) Jacksonville Aviation Authority (JAA) National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) Department of Defense (DoD) Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) Florida Air National Guard (FANG) The aircraft owner/operator
334
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents At any time, ___________________ (ATCT) or the JFRD ARFF OIC may upgrade the Alert Level.
Air Traffic Control Tower
335
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents (Local Standby) - Defined as an aircraft that is known or suspected to have an operational defect that should not normally cause serious difficulty in achieving a safe landing. This is a notification only and no response is required. What Alert is this? Further information from the ________ or Pilot who can either terminate the Alert or upgrade to an Alert ___.
ALERT 1 ATCT, 2
336
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents (Full Emergency) - Defined as an aircraft that is known or is suspected to have an operational defect that affects normal flight operations to the extent that there is danger of an accident. What Alert is this?
Alert 2
337
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents (Aircraft Accident) - Defined as an aircraft indicent/accident that has occurred on or in the vicinity of the airport. What Alert is this?
Alert 3
338
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents Terminating an Alert: Alert 1: The ________ will notify emergency responders when an Alert 1 is terminated. Alert 2: The ___ will notify the ATCT and JAA Airport Operations Control Center (AOCC) or Cecil Operations when an Alert 2 is terminated. Alert 3: ____________ or ________________ will notify the ATCT when an Alert 3 is terminated.
Alert 1: ATCT Alert 2: IC Alert 3: JAA AOCC or Cecil Operations
339
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents All JFRD units not assigned to Stations ____ or ____ shall respond to the designated staging area or hydrant. Escort onto a controlled airfield is ___________ for all responding companies, regardless of the nature of the emergency. Personnel permitted to act as an escort will be identified by a photo ID badge issued by ______.
16 or 56 mandatory JAA
340
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents If an escort is not waiting upon arrival at the designated gatre or staging area, notify the ____________________. Do NOT breach the gate or follow behind a non-escort vehicle. Upon access to the airfield, ALL incoming JFRD units MUST remain under escort for the _______________________.
Incident Commander (IC) duration of the incident
341
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents Response will require coordination between _______, ______, and the ________ due to aircraft that may still be landing and taxing during the emergency.
JFRD, JAA, and the ATCT
342
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents Command should consider the following resources for an off airfield crash: (4)
Brush trucks for access DOF tractors for access JSO helicopter to locate crash site Apparatus with bettery powered extrication equipment
343
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents Number to call for receiving permission for ARFF apparatus to leave the airport property:
904-741-2020
344
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents JFRD station ____ has the ability to locate downed aircraft with the use of special equipment. The speed and accuracy of loacting the downed aircraft will depend on the __________________________ on the downed aircraft.
16 type of transmission equipment
345
The _______________________________ (ARFCC) coordinates and provides emergency responders with the crical resources needed to locate a downed aircraft. The AFRCC can be contacted at 850-283-5955. They are staffed 24 hours a day, seven days a week.
Air Force Rescue Coordination Center
346
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents The passengers may be safer on the aircraft if the ______ is on the outside.
fire
347
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents The 2nd arriving Suppression Chief shall report to the indicent site to assume the role of the ________________________. The 1st arriving Rescue Chief shall report to Command and be prepared to assume the role of ______________________.
Operations Section Chief EMS Branch Director
348
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents The 1st Suppression Chief will form Unified Command with _____ Operations and ____ police as soona s possible at all airports.
JAA, JAA
349
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents Aircraft Hazards Cargo and passenger aircraft may be carrying "Dangerous Goods". These packages may be identified by all of the methods outlines in SOG 411 Hazardous Materials, the cargo manifest or by the statement "______________________" on the packages.
Cargo Aircraft Only
350
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents NEVER lean on or touch a propellar, due to the possibility that the _____________ could engage and rotate the propeller without warning.
magneto
351
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents As a general rule, areas ___________ and ____ of the jet engines are to be avoided.
forward, aft
352
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents Always approach aircraft wheel assemblies from the _____ side to avoid being struck by fusible plugs that may become overheated and blow out.
tread side
353
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents Evacuation slides explosively deploy from most non-over the wing emergency exits. These slides deploy approximately ___ feet past either side on the door opening. Some over the wing exits have lsides that deploy on the ____ portion of the wing.
2 feet aft portion
354
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents Exploding Stored Energy Devices: Airbags, fusible plugs, hydraulic accumulators, oxygen cylinders, aircraft tires, and ____________________ (BPS) typically found on small General Aviation (GA) aircraft all expose responders to hidden hazards.
Ballistic Parachute Systems
355
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents Hydraulic Fluid: Synthetic based hydraulic fluids are the most commonly carried and are usually found in high quantities (approaching ______ gallons) throughout the aircraft.
200 gallons
356
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents It should be assumed that all military aircraft are "____" (loaded with live weapons and ordnance) and should be approached with caution.
"Hot"
357
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents Certain military aircraft (F-16) use ____________ in the Emergency Power Unit (EPU). ____________ is toxic, highly flammable, and may be absorbed throught the skin in liquid and vapor form.
hydrazine, Hydrazine
358
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents Approach all military aircraft from a ____ degree angle from the nose or tail of the aircraft due to the dangers posed by armament, fusible plugs, and navigational aids.
45 degree
359
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents The ______________________, if available, is generally the best route of entry onto the aircraft for victim rescue or interior fire attack. Responders should anticipate using a ladder to access the wing. It is generally recommended to place the ladder on the ______ of the wing, as its flight control surfaces move less radically than the rear. A ____ ft extension ladder is preferred ladder for aircraft ingress/egress for responders.
over wing emergenchy exit front 24 ft
360
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents Aircraft Stabilization: The IC should consider requesting Station 4 due to the need for very large quantities of _______________.
cribbing
361
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents There are ______ primary hydrants that will be used to refill ARFF apparatus during aircraft indicents at JIA. Hydrant #1 is located in front of JFRD station _____. Hydrant #2 is located ______ of the FedEx facility and is accessible fromt he _______ side of the airfield.
2 16 south secured
362
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents There are _____ primary hydrants that will be used to refill ARFF apparatus at Cecil Airport. Hydrant #1 is located onthe airfield side of station _____ on the apron. Hydrant #2 is located on ________________. just inside Gate ____ off 103rd street. Hydrant #3 is located at the ___________ corner of hanger ___________________. Hydrant #4 is located at the ____________ corner of Hanger ______ (Coast Guard Hanger), inside the gate. This gate is at the end of ____________________.
four 56 Perimeter Rd, Gate 2 southeast, 905/Flightstar Bldg southwest, 13 New World Ave
363
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents The maximum inlet pressure for ALL ARFF apparatus is ____ PSI.
80
364
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents JIA ARFF Communications: Station 16 ARFF units will routinely use Talk Group _____ for unit to unit coordination. Talk Group _____ is a shared channel used by Station 16, FANG, JAA Operations and JAA PD. Responding units are encouraged to have one portable set to monitor traffic on ______ for INFORMATIONAL purposes ONLY. The OIC of Engine _____ will monitor the FRCC Talk Group and relay all pertinent information between responding units and ARFF units.
C-3, C-3 C- 3 16
365
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents Cecil Airport Communications: Station ____ ARFF units use _______ for unit to init communications. ARFF units utilize the Cecil ground channel to communicate with the __________. Responding units are encouraged to have one portable set to monitor traffic on ______ for INFORMATIONAL purposes ONLY. The OIC of Engine ____ will monitor the FRCC Talk Group and relay all pertinent information between responding units and ARFF units.
56, A-12 ATCT A-12 56
366
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents JIA VHF Radio Frequencies: (3) Cecil VHF Radio Frequencies (2)
JIA VHF Radio Frequencies 118.300 Jacksonville Tower 121.900 Jackonville Ground 121.500 International Emergency Frequency Cecil VHF Radio Frequencies 126.100 Cecil Tower 121.625 Cecil Ground
367
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents The first arriving engine (normally Engine ___ or ___) will provide all atack lines for initial entry teams.
16 and 56
368
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents The _____ owns an MCI trailer that is maintained by Station ____ personnel. Movement of the trailer requires the use of a ____________ hitch which is located on the trailer. Any heavy duty vehicle with a ____ inch receiver will be sufficient.
JAA, 16 load leveling 2 inch
369
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents The AEP is carried by CR ___, E ___, E___, CR ___ and F____. The AEP MUST be reference by the IC on all incidents requiring the dispatch of ARFF apparatus. Incident specific response guidelines and responsibilities for JFRD at JIA, Cecil Airport, Herlong Airport, and JaxEx (Craig) Airport are listed in their respective AEP's. JFRDs actions at aircraft indicent will be assessed by the investigating authority based on the responsibilities outlined in the _______.
CR 16, E 16, E 56, CR 56 and F 8 AEP (Airport Emergency Plan)
370
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents EMS Transport: The IC should consider requesting respnse from _________________. The IC should consider contacting the ______________________ (JTA) if additional transportation of stable patients is needed.
private ambulance services Jacksonville Transportation Authority
371
SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents The ______________________ (FANG) fire department is located adjacent to JIA. Their equipment consists of ARFF crash trucks, a structural firefighting engine, a ___________ gallon water tanker and a Chief's vehicle. FANG can be contacted on ______.
Florida Air National Guard 4000 gallon C-3
372
SOG 434 Portable Radio Operations The standard issue for the JFRD is the Motorola XTS ____________.
5000R
373
SOG 434 Portable Radio Operations The Tiller position will always be number ___ regardless of how many personnel are assigned to the ladder.
5
374
SOG 434 Portable Radio Operations Portables used by the Officer or person in charge will reatin the _____________.
unit number.
375
SOG 434 Portable Radio Operations Radio positions/Seats names are at the discretion of the _______________. The radio itself will always carry the same number.
company officer
376
SOG 434 Portable Radio Operations If your radio is dirty, clean it with a ____________ and immediately dry it. The portable number should match the seat and __________ number.
damp cloth SCBA
377
SOG 434 Portable Radio Operations The intent of assigning each position a radio is NOT to give that member the freedom to talk on the radio; rather, it is to allow him or her to _________________________.
monitor fire ground activity.
378
SOG 434 Portable Radio Operations Hold the microphone __ to __ inches from either your mouth or your SCBA mask speaking diaphragm and key the microphone for __ to __ seconds before speaking.
1 to 2 inches 1 to 2 seconds
379
SOG 434 Portable Radio Operations Consider using the _______________________ button prior to announcing a Mayday.
orange emergency transmission
380
SOG 436 Emergency Incident Rehabilitation Members shall undergo rehab and rest for a minimum of ____ minutes following the complete use of a single ____ minute self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) or ____ minutes of intense work.
20 minutes 45 minute SCBA 40 minutes
381
SOG 436 Emergency Incident Rehabilitation The Rehab Officer (usually a _____________). Establish Rehab Area: _________ and at a ________ level to avoid contact with contaminated runoff
Rescue Chief Upwind and at a higher level
382
SOG 436 Emergency Incident Rehabilitation ___________ the rehab unit's engine to prevent exhaust contamination of the rehab area.
Shut off
383
SOG 436 Emergency Incident Rehabilitation Everyone should drink at least _______ quart of fluid per ______ of extended operations.
1 quart per hour
384
SOG 436 Emergency Incident Rehabilitation During extended rehab, vital signs shall be completed every ___ minutes.
10
385
SOG 436 Emergency Incident Rehabilitation Release From Rehab: The JFRD _________________ and ___________________ have determined the conditions listed below must be met in order for an individual to be released from Rehab.
Medical Director and Dvision Chief of Rescue
386
SOG 436 Emergency Incident Rehabilitation Release From Rehab: All firefighters shall remain in the rehab a minimum of ___ minutes (_____ minutes in Haz Mat decon situations) Systolic BP shall be between: Greater than ___ mmHg and less than ____ mmHg Diastolic BP shall be between: Greater than ___ mmHg and less than _____ mmHg Pulse rate must be below _____ bpm and above ____ bpm Temperature must be below ______ degrees F Carbon monoxide oximeter reading less than ____% Respirations must be between ____ and ____
20 minutes, 30 minutes 90, 160 50, 100 100, 50 100 10% 10 and 20
387
SOG 437 Overhaul Several studies have shown that firefighters are exposed to high levels of known occupational carcinogens during the overhaul phase of the fire. Other known _____________________ (VOCs) are present as well. The concentrations found exceed _____________________ (PEL) and Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH) limits
Volatile Organic Compounds Permissible Exposure Limits
388
SOG 437 Overhaul SOG 437 Overhaul Structure Fires will now be divided into two separate phases; ________________ and ______________.
extinguishment and overhaul
389
SOG 437 Overhaul Under Control A.K.A (_________)
Signal 77
390
SOG 437 Overhaul The _________________ or ________________ designated by the IC will use his/her air monitor to make sure the atmosphere within the structure is within acceptable limits before turning the scene over to the owner/occupant.
Safety Officer or Company Officer
391
SOG 437 Overhaul If the IC requests relief crews, FRCC will dispatch ____ engine and _____ ladder, unless otherwise directed by the IC, for the first alarm assignments. On larger fires, such as a 2nd Alarm, FRCC will request from the IC the number and types of companies he/she would like to respond for relief. These crews, unless otherwise instructed, will be contacted FRCC, either via red phone or radio, prior to dispatch and advised to respond on a Signal ____ status.
one engine and one ladder Signal 15 status
392
SOG 437 Overhaul The readings on the 4 - gas meter must be within the following limits: CO -- < ___ ppm O2 - ____ to _____ % H2S -- < ___ ppm LEL -- ___ %
<9 ppm 19.5 to 23.5% <10 ppm 0%
393
SOG 437 Overhaul The readings on the 5-gas meter must be within the following limits: CO - < __ ppm O2 - ____ to ____ % HCN - ___ ppm LEL - ___% VOC - ___ ppm
<9 ppm 19.5 - 23.5% 0 ppm 0% 0 ppm
394
SOG 437 Overhaul General Overhaul Guidelines: To minimize CO levels, ________________ shall be used when possible to ventilate the structure.
electric blowers
395
SOG 437 Overhaul Make sure that all personnel understand that ___________ can be one of the most dangerous tasks performed on the fire ground.
overhaul
396
SOG 437 Overhaul Close up the structure with _____ paper or ____________. Cover holes in roofs if possible.
felt paper or visqueen
397
SOG 445 Active Assailant Incidents The assault usually continues until the assailant(s) is/are engaged by __________, flees the scene or _________________.
police, commits suicide
398
SOG 445 Active Assailant Incidents
399
SOG 445 Active Assailant Incidents Active assailant incidents are often over before law enforcement arrives on the scene, usually within ___ or ___ minutes.
10 or 15 minutes
400
SOG 445 Active Assailant Incidents A location(s) where fire-rescue personnel can receive patients from law enforcement personnel:
Casualty Collection Point (CCP)
401
SOG 445 Active Assailant Incidents Normally devised from non-military components.
Improvised Explosive Device (IED)
402
SOG 445 Active Assailant Incidents When the incident is classified by law enforcement or FRCC personnel as an active assailant incident the appropriate _____ level will be dispatched.
MCI
403
SOG 445 Active Assailant Incidents
404
SOG 445 Active Assailant Incidents Ballistic vest and helmets are only to be worn when directed by ____________________.
District/Battalion Chiefs
405
SOG 445 Active Assailant Incidents At all times, ballistic vest and helmets are to be stored in ______________________ to prevent degradation and contamination.
bags issued by LSF
406
SOG 446 Peer Support Program To contact Peer Support call the on duty CIO at (904) 535-3727 If no response in ____ minutes call FRCC (904) 630-0527
15
407
SOG 446 Peer Support Program The Director Fire Chief will assign a ______________________ (CIO) to lead the Peer Support Program. A licensed behavioral health provider will serve as the Peer Support Program's _____________________________ (BHP). If the BHP is a uniformed member of the JFRD, the BHP may serve as CIO.
Critical Intervention Officer Behavioral Health Professional
408
SOG 446 Peer Support Program The CIO shall have a close working relationship with the City of Jacksonville's ______________________________ (BHAP) counselors. CIO reports to the ___________________ or his/her designee.
Behavioral Health Assistance Program Director Fire Chief
409
SOG 446 Peer Support Program Peer Support Program Team Members Team membership requirements will be determined by the _______________________. JFRD personnel must have completed their firefighter probationary period, have approval of JFRD Human Resources, approval from the Director Fire Chief, and a clean file with the ___________________________ to apply for membership on the team.
Director Fire Chief Office of Professional Development
410
SOG 448 Special Event The provision of EMS service at Special Events conducted on CIty of Jacksonville Property is the responsibility of the JFRD as established by the Charter of the City of Jacksonville and the Special Events Ordinance. The administration and coordination of this activity is the responsibility of the ___________________ or his designees in conjunction with the JFRD ________________.
Division Chief of Rescue Medical Director
411
SOG 448 Special Event The _________________ may assign an employee to a Special Event function while on duty.
Director/Fire Chief
412
SOG 448 Special Event This person will have the operational authority of an Incident Commander at many events:
JFRD Special Events Coordinator
413
SOG 448 Special Event Employees will typically be assigned to a ______________.
med team
414
SOG 448 Special Event IF a JFRD employee finds that they are unable to work the assigned event, the assigned employee is responsible for obtaining their replacement. They must notify: If an individual assigned to work a Special Event find they will not be able to report on time. They must notify: During an event, should a JFRD employee become ill or injured, the _____________________ must be immediately notified.
Special Event Coordinator Event Supervisor or the Special Event Coordinator Event Supervisor
415
SOG 448 Special Event Radio flight ____ is dedicated to Special Events.
A5
416
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident The _______ of the vessel, captain, or ________ representative has ultimate authority and responsibility for the safety of the vessel and its crew/passengers.
master, vessel
417
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident The USCG _____________________ (COTP) is responsible for the safety and security of the vessels and ports for a given area. It is important to remember that all operations fall within his/her concern.
Captain of the Port
418
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident First Arriving Unit Identify a secondary water supply (__________)
fireboats
419
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident The 3rd arriving Suppression Chief will report to Command and be prepared to assume the role of ____________________ (prepare to be on the deck of the vessel).
Operations Section Chief
420
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident The 1st arriving Rescue Chief will report to Command and be preppared to assume the role of ___________________ and establish Rehab.
EMS Section Chief
421
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident The IC should plan for intervals between entry teams to be no longer than ___ minutes.
15
422
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident If the extent of the fire/incident is substantial, the IC should begin establishing ______ Chief(s), _________ Director(s) and _______/_______ Supervisor(s) positions consistent with the NIMS model and prepare for multiple operational periods.
Section Chief(s) Branch Director(s) Division/Group Supervisor(s)
423
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident A ___________________ (JIC) should be identified early in the event to accommodate the media and coordinate with other agencies regarding the release of information.
Joint Information Center
424
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Some of the Command Responsibilities: Ensure that a 360 degree survey of the vessel with a ______ is accomplished. Understand that areas below the __________ may hide true temps. Ensure that ______________ are recorded early in the incident and regularly throughout incident duration. Establish a submersion time for entry firefighters (no longer than _____ minutes) Crews entering the hot zone without a hose line must secure a ________ line outside the hot zone and remain in contact with the line at all times.
TIC waterline Draft Marks 15 tracer
425
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Protect ________ lines from the fire and radiant heat. Ensure drone team is enroute to monitor incident. Consider requesting _____ drones for extended operations.
mooring JSO
426
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Consider assigning an _________________, or attendant to track firefighter entry times and location (consider AT position for entry control)
Air Supply Officer
427
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident All crews entering the hot zone on the vessel (vision obscured by smoke) or descending below the deck level without a hose line (regardless of conditions) must secure a __________ outside the hot zone and remain in contact with the line at all times.
tracer
428
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident The vessel may have hoselines available and deployed. These hoselines should be used for purposes other than fire attack (_________ cooling, __________ protection, etc.)
boundary cooling, exposure protection
429
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident International Shore Connection To connect to this flange, JFRD must use an adaptor. This adaptor looks like the flange, has bolts and washers and a gasket for connection to the flange, and a _____ inch female connection. The maximum pressure for supplying the ISC is _____ PSI at the flange.
2 1/2" 150 PSI
430
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident It is important to remember that if you adapt ____ to the ship's fire main system then you will need to adapt _____ at the ships hydrants or hose cabinets to use JFRD hose with those devices. Ships hydrants and hose may use _________ connections. We cannot utilize the ships hydrants to supply JFRD hose without __________ adaptors for our hose.
IN, OUT Camlock connections camlock adaptors
431
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident When drafting, ensure that the drafting hose is outside any ______________________.
containment booms
432
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Multiple 2 1/2" or 3 inch lines can be supplied to the deck of the vessel and fed through __________, over rounded deck edges or over a ______________.
fairleads, hose roller
433
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Locating and ________________ the fire should be a goal prior to activating ventilation systems to prevent accelerating and spreading fire. Many vessels (cargo, military, etc.) have large, steel plates or pads that are located on the ________ of the vessel. These plates can be removed by using a crane connected to the _____________, exposing the decks below and allowing heat and smoke to escape.
confining deck pad eye
434
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident The following additional personnel should be sought or contracted as soon as practical after arriving at a shipboard fire/incident: (4)
Chief Engineer of the vessel Port Security Official Captain of the Port USCG representative
435
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Depending on the size of the vessel, the Fire Control Plan is likely to be found in one or all of the following areas: (3)
Outside the deckhouse in a marked, watertight container Permanently mounted in an accessible area near ingress/egress In the crew's living area
436
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Information on the chemical characteristics of the cargo may also be in the form of a ______________ (SDS), _________________ (DCM), or ______________________ (GHS) chemical classification sheet.
Safety Data Sheet, Dangerous Cargo Manifest, Globally Harmonized System
437
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Vessels are ______________________ to prevent the complete loss of the ship at sea. This compartmentation can be utilized to identify primary and secondary boundaries for fire attack.
compartmentalized
438
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident JFRD members should not open a set _____________ without permission from the IC.
boundary
439
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident If the fire is located in a machinery/engine room, the application of large quantities of foam into the fire area should be considered. Enough foam must be on hadn to sustain a _____ minute application. The foam can be applied through weather access points, hatches or skylights on the top side of the compartment.
65 minute
440
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Cooling boundaries are established by positioning hoselines in all ____ areas directly affected by heat transfer and cooling the boarders of the compartment involved. The lowest GPM setting capable of keeping the steel cool should be used.
6
441
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Runoff and water accumulation from firefighting operations can cause the vessel to ______ to one side or the other. Command should consider using Marine units to monitor ______ and ______ marks.
list listing and draft
442
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Draft marks are located __________, ___________ and _______ of most vessels. The location that the water is touching the draft marks should be noted ______ to and during firefighting operations.
forward, midship and aft prior
443
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Vessels also have _____ pumps, _______ pumps etc. If electrical power has been removed due to firefighting activities, these pumps may not be available.
bilge, ballast
444
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Consider the need for ____________________ around ships in port if not already in place. Before beginning dewatering efforts consult with the _________ to prevent water pollution.
containment booms COTP
445
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Communications on board vessels could be intermittent or non-existent on normal channels (B-1, B-5 etc.). Consider using ___________ from Fire 1, 5, 7 or 9 as permanent repeated channels for the incident.
repeaters
446
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident In order for elevators to be used, all three of the following conditions must be met:
Positive key control of the elevators is established Information indicates that elevators are safe to use Hoist-way is clear of smoke and fire
447
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Equipment: Companies will bring ______ spare air bottle per person (not including the initial attack team) and the following equipment: Engines: ____' of 1 3/4" hose, gated wye, 1 1/2" fog nozzle _______ line Thermal Imaging Camera _____ Adaptor (if equipped) Bolt cutters Ladder: (___) 200' bags of _________ rope _________ line Irons Thermal Imaging Camera Hydra Ram Bolt Cutters
one spare air bottle Engines: 100ft tracer ISC adaptor Ladder: (2) 200' bags of hoisting rope Tracer
448
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Command Responsibilities/Shipboard Fire Underway or at Anchorage (NOT AT A PIER) If there is a USCG vessel on scene that is large enough, the chief should consider utilizing this vessel as the Command Post. If there is a second USCG vessel on scene, they should be requested as a _________________.
safety boat
449
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident Command Responsibilities/Shipboard Fire Underway or at Anchorage (NOT AT A PIER) The IC should determine if the vessel has a VRP (________________) and if its been activated.
vessel response plan
450
SOG 449 Shipboard Fire/Incident How much time should you give the fixed fire suppression system to work?
Up to 24 hours
451
SOG 450 Post-Fire Gross Decon There are two types of decon:
Emergency/gross decon Technical/secondary decon
452
SOG 450 Post-Fire Gross Decon Drop Zone: A remote area within the warm zone, preferably _________ of the hot zone but ___________ of the cold zone. Gross Decon and cleaning of the body using dermal wipes shall take place within the Drop Zone.
upwind, downwind
453
SOG 450 Post-Fire Gross Decon It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving ________________ to assure that gross decon is established and to oversee the gross decon area and process.
Rescue Chief
454
SOG 450 Post-Fire Gross Decon Personnel shall rinse off debris and products of combustion in a systemic and thorough manner from the collar line down, being mindful of higher potential collection points such as the __________ and __________ areas.
armpit and groin
455
SOG 450 Post-Fire Gross Decon This wet soap decon process has been shown to remove up to ____% of contaminants on PPE.
85%
456
SOG 450 Post-Fire Gross Decon After a final rinsing of the exterior of the PPE, personnel may go off air and proceed to the __________, where they will doff their PPE.
drop zone
457
SOG 450 Post-Fire Gross Decon Two buckets for washing SCBA facemasks utilized within the drop zone area: A wash bucket consisting of a mixture of ___ oz. MSA SCBA wash concentrate per ___ gallon of water
1 oz., 1 gallon
458
SOG 450 Post-Fire Gross Decon Crew members will Decon equipment and apparatus, and "______________".
shower within the hour
459
SOG 456 Fire Alarm (Signal 32) On all fire alarm responses, the _______________ of the structure and the _____________ of the occupants should be considered prior to evacuation.
characteristics mobility
460
SOG 456 Fire Alarm (Signal 32) If there is still NO indication of smoke, fire, or water flow after ____ minutes, advise these conditions and return to service. The ___ minute on scene time does not apply to structures where the alarm has been activated more than ______ in the same shift.
20 20, once
461
SOG 456 Fire Alarm (Signal 32) Forcible Entry Indications: (5)
Sprinkler water flow (check the exterior drainpipe and all exterior doors) Halon CO2 Dry Chemical Hood system
462
SOG 456 Fire Alarm (Signal 32) The OIC shall notify FRCC and request contact from Car 5 (____________________) or disignated Fire Prevention representative.
Division Chief of Fire Prevention
463
SOG 456 Fire Alarm (Signal 32) JFRD field units are to _______________ until the system is restored to normal operation, or Car 5 or the designated representative has arrived on scene.
remain on scene
464
SOG 461 Vehicle Extrication The immediate area around the involved vehicles where PPE is required and which will remain clear of non-essential personnel is known as the:
Action Circle
465
SOG 461 Vehicle Extrication If rapid extrication exists ____________ from standard protocol is authorized.
deviation
466
SOG 461 Vehicle Extrication Notify the Officer in Charge of any secondary entrapments, with _______________.
possible solutions
467
SOG 461 Vehicle Extrication First Arriving Rescue Unit: The Engineer shall be in the appropriate personnel protective equipment and establish or take over _________________. The officer will __________ patient care and gather any information needed for reporting.
patient care direct
468
SOG 461 Vehicle Extrication Second Arriving Rescue Unit: The rescue shall be the ___________________ for the patient(s).
primary transport unit
469
SOG 461 Vehicle Extrication First Arriving Rescue Chief: The chief shall establish __________________ per Mass Casualty Incident SOG 413.
medical command
470
SOG 462 Automatic Aid/Mutual Aid JFRD has Automatic Aid/Mutual Aid agreements with the following municipalities/agencies: (8)
Clay County Fire/Rescue St. Johns County Fire/Rescue Nassau County Fire/Rescue Baker County Fire/Rescue Macclenny Fire/Rescue NS Mayport NAS Jacksonville Florida Air National Guard (FANG)
471
SOG 462 Automatic Aid/Mutual Aid A plan developed between two or more fire departments for immediate, joint response on first alarms is:
Automatic Aid (AA)
472
SOG 462 Automatic Aid/Mutual Aid An agreement for services under a written plan among agencies that is part of the communication center's protocol is:
Mutual Aid (MA)
473
SOG 462 Automatic Aid/Mutual Aid _______ and ___________ Chiefs shall organize and conduct quarterly training with AA/MA departments that are adjacent to their response territories.
District and Battalion
474
SOG 463 Missing Endangered Persons Search and Rescue (MESPAR) An immediate response to assist LEOs with canvasing the last known or suspected area is what phase? This phase is requested through FRCC. FRCC will make notification to the __________________________________.
MEPSAR PHASE 1 Division/Deputy Division Chief of Operations
475
SOG 463 Missing Endangered Persons Search and Rescue (MESPAR) The on scene Chief should request all suppression units in the vicinity of the last known location of the missing person(s) canvas the area on an _______________ status. The _________________ (Fire 4) will be assigned to the search effort.
available Special Operations Chief
476
SOG 463 Missing Endangered Persons Search and Rescue (MESPAR) __________________ should be considered as early in the incident as possible.
JFRD canines
477
SOG 463 Missing Endangered Persons Search and Rescue (MESPAR) MEPSAR Phase 2 is a large scale, prolonged multi agency response effort. This will apply to all emergency operations where any of the following exist: (5)
Large geographical area Multiple victims Incident overwhelms initial response resource capabilities Response requires coordination of multiple resouces/agencies Large scale USAR response
478
SOG 463 Missing Endangered Persons Search and Rescue (MESPAR) On activation of MEPSAR Phase 2, full implementation of the _________________________________ shall be implemented.
National Incident Management System (NIMS)
479
SOG 463 Missing Endangered Persons Search and Rescue (MESPAR) The ________________________ (Fire 4) will determine the necessary resources based on information provided by law enforcement.
Special Operations Chief
480
SOG 463 Missing Endangered Persons Search and Rescue (MESPAR) The Tactical Action Plan Should Include: (5)
Reconnaissance Deployment Search Recovery Demobilization/Incident termination
481
SOG 463 Missing Endangered Persons Search and Rescue (MESPAR) To maintain scene integrity, ___________ teams should be utilized in the areas of highest probability prior to an extensive grid search.
canine
482
SOG 466 Tablet Command Operation Accountability/Training Captain (ATC) assignments: (3)
AT1, AT2, AT5
483
SOG 466 Tablet Command Operation ATCs shall frequently monitor and provide guidance to ______ assigned to their battalion.
ATEs
484
SOG 466 Tablet Command Operation Suppression Accountability/Training Engineer (ATE) positions: (9)
AT3, AT4, AT6, AT7, AT8, AT9, AT10, AT11, AT12
485
SOG 466 Tablet Command Operation Rescue Accountability/Training Engineer positions: (6)
AT103, AT104, AT105, AT106, AT107, AT108
486
SOG 466 Tablet Command Operation Rescue Accountability/Training Engineer: When assigned to an incident, Rescue ATEs shall ensure proper documentation and accountability of personnel within the ___________ area.
rehab
487
SOG 466 Tablet Command Operation Functions/actions that must be completed at each incident are known as:
Checklist
488
SOG 466 Tablet Command Operation Identify important safety information, contact information, and general information specific to that type of incident. This information needs to be viewed at dispatch and throughout the incident. What is this?
Reminder List
489
SOG 466 Tablet Command Operation Management of an incident begins ___________________.
AT DISPATCH