SOP’s 200 Flashcards
(344 cards)
1
Q
201.01A
The term for “ a forward staging position located just outside the immediate hazard zone, safely distanced from the entrance of a tactical position/Sector”
A
On Deck
2
Q
201.01A
What information should be exchanged when an on deck crew does a face to face?
A
-Sector Conditions
-Routing to work area/obstructions
-Sector Objectives
-Tools/Resources Needed
3
Q
201.01A
The term for “a timely and efficient means of air replacement and rehydration of companies while maintaining their sector assignments”?
A
Recycling
4
Q
201.01A
Who is responsible for the completion of tactical objectives?
A
The Incident Commander
5
Q
201.01
What are the tactical objectives in order of priority?
A
- Remove endangered occupants and treat the injured
- Stabilize the incident and provide for life safety
- Conserve property
- Provide for the safety, accountability and welfare of personnel (ongoing throughout incident)
6
Q
201.01
The term for “standard activities that are performed by the incident commander to achieve the tactical objectives”?
A
The Functions of Command
7
Q
201.01
What are the eight functions of command?
A
- Assume, confirm, position command
- Situation evaluation “size up”
- Initiate, maintain and control communications process
- Deployment Management
- Identity strategy/Develop incident action plan
- Incident organization
- Review, evaluation and revision
- Continuing, transferring and terminating command
8
Q
201.01
What are the three modes command can be in?
A
- Investigative
- Fast-Action
- Command (Stationary)
9
Q
201.01
Who should assume the role of Senior advisor when arriving on scene?
A
First arriving shift commander (preferable from the same city the incident is in)
10
Q
201.01
Who assists setting up the command van and moving command to CV?
A
The second arriving shift commander
11
Q
201.01
When is an Incident Management Team put into play?
A
When an incident becomes so large that state and/or federal resources are needed. A delegation of authority must be signed by both the JHA and IMT
12
Q
201.01
When the alarm room gives instructions to callers and dispatching a response they are starting what process?
A
The Incident Command System
13
Q
201.01
What are the three primary roles of a command team?
A
- Incident Commander
- Support Officer
- Senior Advisor
14
Q
201.01
Who is the highest ranking member of the Command Team?
A
Senior Advisor
15
Q
201.01
The command level which has objectives assigned to sectors
A
Tactical Level
16
Q
201.01
How many units is appropriate for the span of control?
A
5 (Offensive)
7(Defensive)
17
Q
201.01
When should separate radio channel be used on large incidents
A
When branches are created to be responsible for multiple sectors
18
Q
201.01
Branch officers add a command level called what?
A
Coordination Level
19
Q
201.01
This level of command involves Sector officers being responsible for the tactical deployment of assigned resources, evaluation, and communication with the IC
A
Tactical Level
20
Q
201.01
This level of command involves activities necessary for overall operational control, considering critical fire ground factors and risk management plan to determine the strategy and develop and IAP, establishing objectives, managing a strategy, setting priorities, allocating resources and thinking ahead?
A
Strategic Level
21
Q
201.01
This level of command involves work being performed by assigned companies and resources.
A
Task Level
22
Q
201.01
What are the three command levels?
A
Strategic Level (ICT)
- Coordination Level (Branches)
Tactical Level (Sectors)
Task Level (Individual Companies)
23
Q
201.01
Section responsible for:
-Providing Rehab
-Managing Staging
-Supplies/Equipment
-Communications Equipment
-Food
-Fuel and Repairs
-COLLECT info for After-Action-Review
A
Logistics Section
24
Q
201.01
Section responsible for:
-Information Gathering
-Gather information for IC
-Evaluate Strategy and plan with IC
-Evaluate organization and span of control
-Evaluate future resource needs
-Critical factors and safety
A
Planning Section
25
201.01
Section responsible for:
-Tactical priorities and accountability
-Safety and welfare of personnel
-Give sectors/branches tactical priorities
-Assign units to Sectors/Branches
-Located WITH IC in command post
Operations Section
26
201.01
Section responsible for:
-Financial requirements
-Procurement of services and supplies
-Document all finical costs and cost recovery
-Liaison between city officials and regulatory agencies (EPA, OSHA, DOT, FBI)
-Obtain ALL needed incident documentation
Administration Section
27
201.02B
What are the two types of power outages?
1. Local Outage (down poles and wires)
2. Feeder Outage ( damage to substations and distribution lines)
28
201.02B
Local outage affects how many residences (SRP and APS)
SRP = 10 residences
APS = 35-800 residences
29
201.02B
Feeder outages affect how many residences? (SRP and APS)
SRP = 200 residences
APS = 2,000 residences
30
201.02B
The Emergency Power Outage Plan (EOP) can be activated by who?
Duty Chief or ANY senior staff/Command Officer
31
201.02B
The Emergency Power Outage Plan (EOP) can be implemented when heat/stress factor (temp & humidity) exceeds ____ on hot days and is below ____ on cold days?
Hot temperatures above 105
Cold temperatures below 34
32
201.02
____ is to be used in the EOC and is identified as the nationwide approach for Federal, State, Local and Tribal governments to work effectively and efficiently together?
NIMS
33
201.02
Possible uses for Emergency Operations Center?
Large catastrophic events occur that require coordinating team of department heads. These events may include:
-Large Fires (mulit-jurisdictional response)
-Mass casualty events
-Floods, tornadoes
-Microburst
34
201.02
Who opens Emergency Operations Center?
Emergency Manager (after conference with IC)
35
201.02
Who is authorized to activate EOC?
-City Manager
- Assistant City Manager
- Police Chief/Assistant Police Chief
- Fire Chief/Assistant Fire Chief
- Emergency Manager
-Police Deputy Commanders
- Fire Department Shift Commanders
36
201.02
What are the 5 functional areas of the EOC staff?
1. Command Team (City Manager, Police/Fire Chief)
2. Operations
3. Planning
4. Logistics
5. Finance and Administration
37
201.03
Upon arriving on scene who is the initial accountability officer?
The first arriving Engineer
38
201.05B
____ is assigned under the Logistics Section Officer
Resource Sector
39
201.05B
When will Command System Management and Section Heads respond?
2nd Alarm or greater
40
201.05E
Evacuation Type: Small Number of citizens, times are typically short
Site Evacuation
41
201.05E
Evacuation Type: Normally affects fewer than 100 people lasts 2-4 hours
Intermediate Level Evacuation
42
201.05B
Evacuation Type: Thousands of citizens could be evacuated. Could last hours to many days.
Large Scale Evacuation
43
201.05B
Red Cross needs ____ hours to assemble personnel, equipment supplies and shelters
3
44
201.05F
PIO location will be marked with ____
Green light
45
201.07
Apparatus must be kept at least ____ to the side of a flight path of helicopters dipping Bambi Buckets
150ft
46
201.07
Refilling is done on what side of the aircraft?
Right
47
201.07
Designation for MPD helicopters?
Falcon
48
201.07
Designation for Phoenix FD helicopters?
Firebird
49
201.07
Designation for DPS Helicopter?
Ranger 41
50
201.07
Designation for MCSO helicopter>
Fox
51
201.07
What terminology is used for unsafe conditions during landing a helicopter?
“Go around” 3 times
52
201.07
LZ for helicopter should be _____ and flat
100X100
53
201.07
Keep all spectators and traffic ____ ft away from LZ
200ft
54
201.07
Touchdown area is _____, identify it with visual markers
60X60
55
201.07
Communicate with pilot from the _____(as seen by pilot)
Right corner
56
201.07
LZ personnel shall have ________ (5) while assisting with air operations?
Radio
Eye Protection
Ear Protection
Safety Vest
Helmet
57
201.07
LZ should be located ____ yards or ____ft from other activities
100 yards
300 ft
58
201.07
During air operations, if conditions are dry, wet down ____X____ are with a hose
200’ X 200’
59
201.07
A tail guard should be placed ___-___ from tail rotor to keep the area secured
50’-100’
60
201.07
Radio contact and LZ should be maintained for ___-___ after helicopter departure (in case of emergency)
2-3 minutes
61
201.07
Approach and depart the helicopter from the front at ____ degrees, crouching in the view of the pilot
45 degrees
62
201.07
Contract helicopters can drop approx ____ gallons and have an average flying time of ____
120 gallons
1.5 to 2 hours
63
201.07
Bambi buckets can hold between ____ and ____ gallons
67-96 gallons
64
201.07
Buoy wall tanks can hold ____ or ____ gallons
3,000 or 4,000 gallons
65
201.07
Buoy tank filling procedure
Fill tank slowly until 1 foot of water is in tank, then you can increase flow rate
66
202.02
____ is a rapid but deliberate consideration of Critical Fireground Factors based upon information feedback
Size up
67
202.02
The 3 Basic Information Factors are?
1. Visual Factors (looking at situation from outside)
2. Reconnaissance Factors (Initial arriving company)
3. Preplanning and Familiarity Factors (general familiarization or CAD information)
68
202.02
BFOLARO
Building (construction, age, size)
Fire (Extent, size, materials involved)
Occupancy (use, fire load, open/closed)
Life Hazards (location/number of occupants)
Arrangement (access, exposures, barriers)
Resources (staffing, equipment, hydrants)
Other Factors/Conditions ( time of day, riots, terrorism, special events)
69
203.03A
Majority of FF killed at?
Residential Fires
70
202.02A
What are the Tactical Benchmarks?
--Benchmarks:
#1 - Rescue (Primary Search) (All Clear)
#2 - Fire Control (Under Control)
#3 - Loss Stopped (Loss Stopped)
71
202.02B
Strategy will based up what factors (5)?
1) Rescue Profile
2) Building
3) Structural Integrity of the Building
4) Fire Load
5) Fire and/or Smoke Conditions
72
202.02B
What are the 7 sides of a building?
-Top -Bottom -Two sides -Front -Rear -Interior
73
202.02B
What is Marginal Mode?
Offensive fire attack while setting up transitional attack from the exterior
74
202.02B
When should marginal conditions be abandoned?
Abandon Marginal conditions when:
+ Primary "all clear" is obtained
+ Roof is unsafe
+ Heavy heat and cannot locate the fire or make forward progress
+ Ineffective transitional attack
+ Heavy smoke is being forced under pressure from building
75
202.02
Any change from Offensive to Defensive requires?
Emergency Traffic
PAR
76
202.02
If a defensive fire is called from the ONSET command MUST notify ____ that ____ will not be completed?
Alarm
Primary Search
77
202.02C
A primary search MUST be followed up by a secondary search UNLESS ____
There is a resident ALL CLEAR
78
202.02C
Rescue efforts are made in the following order:
) Most severely threatened
2) Largest number (groups)
3) Remainder of fire area
4) Exposed areas
79
202.05
Thermal Imaging (PROBABLY NEEDS TO BE UPDATED )
Look at NEW SOP
80
202.05
ALL interior crews should be notified and EVACUATED when _____
Ladder Pipes go into action
81
202.05
When laddering a roof extend above roofline a minimum of ____
4 to 6 feet
82
202.05
When laddering roof, place ladders near ____ or ____
Corners or Firewalls
83
202.05
When laddering roof, you should establish at least ____ separate escape routes, preferably on opposite sides of the building
2
84
202.05
100' length of unprotected steel will expand ____ when heated to ____ F
9"
1100
85
202.05
Methods of evacuation depend on (3)?
1) Immanence of the hazard
2) Type and extent of hazard
3) Perception of the area affected by the hazard
86
202.05
What size parameter should be established around building for falling debris during high rise operations?
200ft
87
202.05
During high-rise operations, if you are able to utilize elevator you can take it ____ floors below fire floor
2 floors
88
202.03A
A least one additional ______ should be immediately requested upon a report of a missing or trapped firefighter?
Alarm (4 engines, 2 ladders)
89
201.07
Med-Evac Helicopters can carry ____ immediate patient(s)?
1
90
202.03
Female side of coupling leads towards ____ while the Male side of coupling leads towards ____
Fire
Exit
91
202.05
Decision to remove SCBA shall be made by ____
Company Officer
92
202.06
Ventilation holes should be at least ____% of the roof surface of the involved area
10%
93
202.08A
Heat Stress Management is implemented during what months?
Or as needed if temperatures exceed?
May 15th - Sept 15th
105F
94
202.08A
During Heat Stress Management cardiovascular activities are limited to a max during of ____
30 minutes
95
202.08A
During Heat Stress Management a minimum of ___ ounces or ___quarts of fluid should be consumed during the shift
64 ounces
2 quarts
96
202.08A
During Heat Stress Management crews should request relief after consuming ___ bottles to maintain consistent work/rest cycles
2 bottles
97
202.08A
Crew shall remain in rehab for ____ and meet rehab recovery criteria
20 minutes
98
202.08
During summer months ALL ____ assignments will receive ____ and ____
3-1
Relief RIC company
Rehab
99
202.08
During summer months 1st alarm fires will receive ___ additional company and ____
1
Rehab
100
202.08B
What are the two levels of Decon
1. Preliminary Decon
2. Gross Decon
101
202.08B
This type of decon occurs when you leave hot zone and assigned to replenish or rehab
Preliminary Decon
102
202.08B
This type of decon will not occur until released from scene. Will heavily saturate turnouts with water
Gross Decon
103
202.08B
Decon should be done using red line at a minimus of ____ from hot zone
50 feet
104
202.08
Rehab location will be ____ to the Command Post and be identified with ___ tape with only 1 entry point
Adjacent
Blue
105
202.08
What are the 4 sections of Rehab?
Section A: Entry Point & Triage
Section B: Hydration and Replenishment
Section C: Medical Treatment & Transport
Section D: Reassignment
106
202.08
During Rehab what are the vital requirements to receive additional medical treatment?
1.20 minute resting HR above ___
2. Body temp above ____
3.Diastolic BP less than ____
100bpm
101 degrees F
BP less than 100
107
202.09
What are the 3 purposes of ventilation?
1. Gain (and control) Entry
2. Remove heated gases and smoke
3. Make interior spaces more tenable
108
202.09
What is the most effective form of ventilation?
Directly over the fire
109
202.09
What is the best operating position to determine if a building requires ventilation as well as best location and timing?
Interior Sector
110
202.09
During marginal conditions what ladder operations cannot be completed?
Ladder CANNOT got to roof to ventilate due to extreme conditions
111
202.09
How should crews handle fire attack for Bowstring Truss/ Arched Roof if the fire is in the attic/truss space
Quick search & go defensive
112
202.09
How should crews handle fire attack for Bowstring Truss/ Arched Roof if the fire is unable to be located?
Quick search & go defensive
113
202.09
How should crews handle fire attack for Bowstring Truss/ Arched Roof if the fire is contained to room and contents with no signs of extension?
Aggressive transitional & go OFFENSIVE
114
202.09
Crews not permitted to access tile roofs, how should fire attack be attempted (3)
1. Pulling bird stops
2. Cutting small holes 3-5 feet from edge
3. remove side attack vents
115
202.10
Standard Attack Team consists of?
2 Engines & 1 Ladder
116
202.11
High Rise is defined as (2)?
6 Elevator stops or greater
75 feet or greater
117
202.11
During High rise operations apparatus placement should be at least ____ ft away due to falling debris or structural collapse
200ft
118
202.11
During High Rise operations crews must bring of minimum of ____ spare bottle(s)
1
119
202.11
During High Rise operations crews should check air supply every ____ floors
5
120
202.11
During High Rise operations the most difficult places to communicate are (2)?
Fire Control Room
Elevators
121
202.12
RAT stands for what and is kept in place for a minimum of ____?
Remote Activation Terminal
12 hours
122
202.12
Post fire inspection interval are?
2...4...8 hours
123
202.12
During post fire inspection it is appropriate to have _____ for the first 2 hours post incident
PD drive by for inspection
124
202.12C
Customer Service Sector reports to _____ UNLESS a Loss Control Branch/Section is assigned
Command
125
202.12
PPV fans should be positioned ____ feet back from entry point
7 feet
126
202.12
Placing fans in ____ is more effective than placing them side by side
Tandem
127
202.12
PPV should not be used if
Common attic is shared
128
202.12E
First in units should lay in their own water supply, what would be an exception?
Critical rescue
129
202.12E
How much water can 500 foot 4 inch supply line provide from an unpumped hydrant?
800 gpm
130
202.12E
A 1-3/4 attack line is used for most small fired (How many rooms)
1-2 rooms
131
202.12E
What is necessary to have ready before putting water on a basement fire?
Ventilation Control
132
202.12F
Who do we call for stray animal?
Injured?
Stray - Mesa Alarm
Injured - Mesa animal control, humane society or AZ society for the prevention of cruelty to animals
133
202.12F
Who responds for dangerous animals?
Animal Control with PD
134
202.15
A brush truck with the pump and roll capabilities is a type what engine?
Type 6 engine
135
202.12E
A transitional attack should last about ____to____ and be deflected off the ceiling whenever possible
15-20 seconds
136
202.12E
During defensive operations, the ladders turntable should be lined up with the ____ to be protected
wall
137
202.12E
During defensive operations, the ladders turntable should be lined up with the ____ to be protected
wall
137
202.12E
A transitional attack should last about ____to____ and be deflected off the ceiling whenever possible
15-20 seconds
138
202.12
The cost of treatment for an animal is passed on to owner, if the owner cannot be identified who covers the cost?
ASPCA (NO COST TO FD)
139
2012.15
Wildland fire is declared at how many acres?
50 acres
140
2012.15
In regards to wildland fires, winds will change ____ degrees near midday and usually become gusty in the afternoon
180
141
202.15
Morning Winds move what direction
Afternoon Winds move what direction
Morning = East to West
Afternoon = West to East
142
202.15
What does LCES in wildland firefighting stand for?
L-lookout
C-Communications
E-Escape routes
S-Safety Zones
143
202.15A
How often is our wildland fire agreement with the AZ state land department reviewed?
Biennially
144
202.15A
A wildland team must deploy within __ hours.
2 hours
145
202.15
Three factors to woodland fires
1. Weather
2. Fuel
3. Topography (access biggest issue)
146
202.15
During woodland deployments how many firefighters are required to stay in the mop-up area during rehab?
2 firefighters
147
202.15
When water drops will expose ground crews, they must move ____ ft off the line, uphill and perpendicular to the fire line
200ft
148
202.12E
During defensive operations, the ladders turntable should be lined up with the ____ to be protected
wall
148
202.12
The cost of treatment for an animal is passed on to owner, if the owner cannot be identified who covers the cost?
ASPCA (NO COST TO FD)
149
202.12E
A transitional attack should last about ____to____ and be deflected off the ceiling whenever possible
15-20 seconds
149
202.16
Vehicle batteries would be disconnected by disconnecting which cable first?
Ground Cable (Black) Negative Terminal
150
202.16
Bumper assemblies have been known to travel up to ____ft?
25ft
151
202.16
Fire condition that can exist in tightly sealed vehicle?
Backdraft
152
202.18
The average passenger care tire has ____ gallons of oil
2.5 gallons
153
202.18
Tire fires should be treated as _____ incidents
Hazmat
154
202.18
What are three options for when fighting tire fires?
1. Burn it
2. Bury it
3. Drown it
155
202.18
What does calcium absorb and create when used to bury a tire fire?
It scrubs sulfur from the emissions, creating calcium sulfate, or gypsum
156
202.18
Internal temperature of tire fires an reach ____ degrees
2,000 degrees F
157
203.01
Multi patient incident have how many patients
<25 patients
158
203.01
Mass casualty incidents have how many patients?
25-100 patients
159
203.01
Disasters have how many patients?
>100
160
203.01
When should triage tags be used on incidents?
When there are 3 or more immediate patients or more than 10 total patients
161
203.01
What the 2 tactical priorities to be completed during any multi-patient incident
1. Completion of "Triage Report"
2. Declaration of "All Immediate Transported"
162
203.01
Medical supply sector should be established at ____ alarm or greater incidents
3rd alarm
163
203.01
No more than ____ ambos in a loading area a time
2 ambos
164
203.01
Triage should usually take less than ___ to ___ to complete
4 to 6 minutes
165
203.01
What sectors are needed for first alarm medical?
Level 2 staging
166
203.01
Triage may be handled by first arriving unit up to ____ patients
10
167
203.03
A reasonable guideline is one company per ____ patients for extrication sector for large incidents
4 patients
168
203.04
During major incidents, one company per ____ patients should be the INITIAL objective for treatment sector
4 patients
169
202.12E
During defensive operations, the ladders turntable should be lined up with the ____ to be protected
wall
169
202.12E
A transitional attack should last about ____to____ and be deflected off the ceiling whenever possible
15-20 seconds
170
171
202.12D
PPV fans should be placed how far from the doorway?
7 Feet
172
202.12E
First in units should lay in their own water supply, what would be an exception?
Critical Rescue
173
202.12E
How much water can 500 foot 4 inch supply line provide from an unpumped hydrant?
800gpm
174
202.12E
A 1-3/4 attack line is used for most small fired (How many rooms)
1-2 rooms
175
202.12E
What is necessary to have ready before putting water on a basement fire?
Ventilation Control
176
202.12F
Who do we call for stray animal?
Injured?
Stray - Mesa Alarm
Injured - Mesa animal control, humane society or AZ society for the prevention of cruelty to animals
177
202.12F
Who responds for dangerous animals?
Animal Control with PD
178
202.15
A red flag warning occurs with what?
Sustained winds over 20 mph and relative humidity less than 20%
179
202.12E
Engine Mounted Master Streams offer large GPM with a flow rate of ____ to ____ gpm?
500-1,000
180
202.15
What direction are morning winds? Afternoon?
Morning - East to west
Afternoon - West to east
181
203.06
What is the THREAT acronym?
T-Threat suppression
H-hemorrhage control
R - rapid Extrication
A-Assessment
T-Transport
182
203.06
For MCI, when calling for pt alarms coincides with what pt number if 1/3 of patients are immediate?
First alarm - 5-10
2nd Alarm - 11-20
forth alarm - 21-100
183
203.06A
PD units responding to an active shooter incident are identified as what?
-Paul - patrol
-David - detective
-Sam - Sergeant
Lincoln - Lieutenant
184
203.06
For decon a germicide or bleach at a ratio of ____:____ is permitted?
1:10 Bleach Ratio
185
203.06
Training records should be maintained for ____ years from date of training
3 years
186
203.06
Physical or mechanical processes implemented to improve efficiency and safety while decreasing exposure risk
Engineering Controls
187
203.06B
Sharp shuttles, waterless hand cleaner and needleless systems are all examples of what?
Engineering controls
188
203.06
The company officer from what shift is responsible for ensuring all necessary personal protective equipment and engineering controls are available?
C shift Company Officer
189
203.06
Sharps containers are to be inspected, maintained or replaced ____ or whenever necessary to prevent over filling
Monthly
190
203.06
Surfaces are to be cleaned and left WET with disinfectant for ____ seconds for HIV-1 and ____ minutes for HBV?
30 Seconds
10 Minutes
191
203.06B
When are foods no longer safe to eat?
When they have been in the danger zone (40 - 140 degrees) for more than 2 hours (1 hour if above 90 degrees)
192
204.01
The first arriving officer to a hazmat incident will evaluate effects of what 3 factors when approaching a scene?
1. Wind
2. Topography
3. Location
193
204.01
What two zones should be established during hazmat scene?
1. Limited access zone (Yellow tape)
2. Evacuation zone
194
204.01A
Hazmat Levels of Evacuation (3)
1. Site Evacuation
2. Intermediate Evacuation
3. Large Scale
195
204.01A
Hazmat (Site Evacuation)
On site
less than 2 hours
196
204.01A
Hazmat (Intermediate Evacuation)
Off Site
Less than 100 people 2-4 hours or more
197
204.01A
Hazmat (Large Scale Evacuation)
Thousands of people
Hours or days long
EOC opened, documentation and tracking are important
198
204.01A
Red Cross needs approximately ___ hours to set up
3 hours
199
204.01A
Evacuations using truck include ___ horn blasts of yelp siren, evacuation instructions and should be initiated at the beginning of each block and every ____ yards
3 horns blasts
50 yards
200
204.01A
Any time more than ____ people are evacuated, the duty chief or deputy chief advises the city manager of the situation.
10 people
201
204.01A
The EOC liaison will report to the EOC every ____ minutes
30 minutes
202
204.01B
Who will advise FD on proper decon procedures?
Poison Control
203
204.01B
Run-off residue during hazmat scenes will be contained to ______
Hot Zone
204
204.01B
What mode of transportation will not be used for patients involved in hazmat scenes?
Helicopter
205
204.01C
Hazmat placards are only required for quantities up to ___ lbs when in transport.
1,000lbs
206
204.01C
When cooling containers with flame impingement direct water streams where?
Apply heavy streams to the vaper space above the tank liquid
207
204.01C
What chemical tank do we not put water on?
Chlorine Tanks
208
204.02
What instrument is used for residential mercury releases?
Jerome Meter
209
204.02
What type of mercury is found in BP cuffs, thermometers and in labs? What are exposure symptoms?
Elemental mercury. (Hg(o)) Fever, chills, dyspnea and headache.
210
204.02
What type of mercury is found in scientific instruments, electrical equipment and manufacturing? What are the symptoms?
Inorganic mercury (HG+). Burning mouth, sore throat, nausea, vomiting, gingivitis.
211
204.02
What type of mercury is found in smelting, mining or refining operations? What are the symptoms?
Organic Mercury (CH3Hg). Hearing defects and loss of concentration
212
204.03
For Nuclear weapon fire, the initial evacuation zone should be ____ ft
2,000ft
213
204.03
Initial attack of flammable liquids fires should be performed with?
AFFF/Class B Foam
214
204.03
A foam seal will break down within ____ to___ minutes
10 to 15 minutes
215
204.04
What is considered a small flammable liquid spill which can be absorbed or emulsified?
Less than 10 gallons of diesel or 30 gallons of unleaded fuel
216
204.04
Natural gas is ___ than air
lighter
217
204.05
What is the flammable range of natural gas?
4% to 15%
218
204.05
CO max is ____ ppm
5ppm
219
202.12E
Engine Mounted Master Streams offer large GPM with a flow rate of ____ to ____ gpm?
500-1,000
219
204.06A
Members should don a SCBA if CO readings are above what?
35 ppm. any reading above 5 ppm is considered abnormal
220
204.07
Without ventilation Clandestine Drug Labs can easily generate toxic levels of what gas?
Phosphine gas
221
204.07
In regards to working with Clansdestine Drug labs, Command should contact who?
ADEQ (Arizona Department of Environmental Quality) Emergency Response Division
222
204.07
Clansdestine Drug Labs will have a flame color of?
Bight or dark orange
223
204.07
Who is responsible for the clean up of a clandestine lab
Law enforcement
224
204.08
What is the minimum number of people need for a confined space rescue?
8
225
204.08
When atmospheric testing for confined space rescue, the alarms should be set at what? and readings should be given every 5 mins
Oxygen: 19.5% - 23.5% (below 12% effect flammability readings)
CO: 35 ppm
Hydrogen Sulfide: 10 ppm
LEL: 10%
226
204.08
During confined space rescue, crews should be rotated every ____ to____ minutes or 30min in winter
15-20 minutes
227
204.08
For confined space rescue what class harness is required fro entry
Class II or III
228
204.08
If explosion proof lighting is not available for confined space entry, what is the alternative?
Cyalume type lights (glow sticks)
229
204.09
What depth/height defines a trench?
4 feet or greater
230
202.12E
Engine Mounted Master Streams offer large GPM with a flow rate of ____ to ____ gpm?
500-1,000
231
204.09
For trench rescue, the first arriving unit should stage ____ ft way at
50 ft
232
204.09
For trench rescue, level 1 staging should be located ___ ft away
150 ft
233
204.09
For trench rescue, divert all non-essential traffic at least _____ ft around the scene
300 ft
234
204.09
For trench rescue, close all major streets within ____ ft of scene
500 ft
235
204.09
For trench rescue, shut off non-essential equipment operating within ____ ft of scene
300 ft
236
204.09
For trench rescue, ingress and egress ladders shall be no more than ____ ft apart or less
25 ft
237
204.10
At what angle is a rope rescue technical?
40 to 90 degrees. greater than 60 degrees is high-angle operations .
238
204.10
What is the safety factor for a rope rescue?
15:1
239
204.10
Non-Technical Rescue is ____ degrees or less
40 degrees
240
204.10
How many people should carry a stokes basket?
4 people ALL facing forward
241
204. 10
How many littler attendants used when the angle is greater than 40 degrees during High Angle Rope Rescue?
3
242
204.10
What needs to be filled out prior to using a helicopter for rescue?
Load Calculation Form
243
204.10
Kern Mantle Rope
Is rope constructed with its interior core protected by a woven exterior sheath designed to optimize strength, durability, and flexibility
244
204.10
Rope for High Angle Rope Rescue is nylon kern mantle construction and contains ____ to ___ % of strength in its core?
75-85%
245
204.10
Nylon rope used for High Angle Rope Rescue has a diameter of ____ and a strength of ___lbs
1.2" (12.7mm)
9,000 lbs
246
204.10
Nylon rope used for HARR loses ____% of strength when wet?
15%
247
204.10
Webbing is constructed of nylon that is ___ inches in diameter and has a strength of ____ lbs
1"
4,000lbs
248
204.10
Rope and webbing should be washed using _____
Nonchlorine-based detergent and water
249
204.10
Steel Carabiners strength
Aluminum Carabiners strength
Steel: 9,000 lbs
Aluminum: 5,500 lbs
250
204.10
Pulleys sizes are either ___ or ___ and have a breaking strength of ___-___
2" and 4"
6,000-8,000
251
204.10
Maintain at least a ___:___ safety margin when not belayed
15:1
252
204.10
Belay loads when safety margin is less than ___:___
15:1
253
204.10
Rescuers shall not operate with less than a ___:___ safety margin
10:1
254
204.10
What 3 teams should be established at building collapse?
1. Building Triage Team
2. Search Team
3. Rescue Team
255
204.12
What direction should wall breaches be done in structural collapse rescue?
Vertically
256
204.13
During tree rescue crews shall maintain a ____ radius around tree?
50 ft
257
204.13
Where should first and second ladder be placed on a tree rescue?
1st: Under victim
2nd: Alongside of victim
(Ladders MUST be tied to tree)
258
205.01
The minimum lever of stations to be staffed by move-ups?
201, 204, 206, 208, 209, 215, 219 and 220
259
205.01
When will move up be provided?
When 2 or more adjacent fire stations will be uncovered fro more than 30 minutes
260
205.01
If alarm does not receive acknowledgment within ____, the dispatcher will request acknowledgment over the radio
1 minute
261
205.01
What channel is level 2 staging usually assigned?
C-deck Channels 5 or 6
262
205.01
How often does alarm give time notifications?
Initial 10 mins, then every 5 mins
263
205.01
Alarm will prompt command for a PAR after how long if it has not been done?
25 minutes
264
205.01
What code is used when PD is needed urgently
906
265
205.01
What happens when alarm alerts condition 2?
Radio traffic is restricted...essential communications only
266
205.02
How are the staff vehicles identified?
Car 201 - Fire Chief
Car 202 -204 - Assistant Chief
Car 207 - operations chief
Car 213 - Chaplain
267
205.06
Level I staging is automatically in effect for all incidents involving ____ or more companies
3 or more
268
205.07
While parking at night traffic apparatus headlights should be turned off
True
269
205.07
How far away should an apparatus be parked from a building?
30ft
270
205.07A
How far away should the furthest traffic cone be placed when on the freeway?
150ft
271
205.07A
Traffic ones should be ____ or taller
28 inches
272
205.07A
Cones should have a ____:____ placement using 5 cones
10:1
273
205.07A
The final cone placement shall be approximately ____ ft from rear of apparatus
30ft
274
205.07A
If a retro-reflective, pink deployable sign is used, place it ____ paces upstream on the initial cones already deployed
10 paces (30ft)
275
205.08A
DOC certification within ___ years from their initial hire date
2 Years
276
205.08A
A DOC practical skills evaluation will be scheduled at least ____ days after successful completion of the probationary period
30 days
277
205.08A
Current DOC will be notified ____ days prior to expiration of current DOC
90 days
278
205.08A
DOC re-certification will be every ___ years
3 years
279
205.08A
Each code 2 response is equal to ____ minutes of training
15 minutes
280
205.08A
Complete and log a minimum of ____ hours of driver training
24 hours
281
205.08A
At no time shall a fire department vehicle shall exceed ____ MPH over posted speed limit or a maximum of ____ MPH
10 MPH
65 MPH
282
205.08A
One person will be positioned at least ____ feet from the rear of the apparatus prior to backing
10 feet
283
205.08A
Oncoming traffic lanes, the maximum permissible speed of the apparatus shall be ____ MPH under the posted speed limit and a maximum of ____ within 100 feet of a four-way intersection
10 MPH
20 MPH
284
205.08A
At least one red or red and blue light must be visible up to how many feet for code three driving?
500 ft
285
205.08A
Manually controlled engine brakes should be turned off when?
When streets are wet
286
205.08A
What are the buzzer signals for backing?
One buzz - stop
Two buzz - go
287
205.09
An ARU will cover units out of service for an extended period of time...which means...
One hour or more for training, maintenance or emergency situations (excludes quarterly training)
288
205.12
Units may stage in quarters if the call is within?
2 Blocks
289
205.12
What is the proper response to notify alarm a unit is code 4 after hitting the emergency button?
"Unit designation, is code 4, apparatus vehicle number ___"
290
205.12
When requesting code 4 checks from alarm, what information is needed?
Unit number, location and member ID number
291
205.12
If PD is bringing us a pt. they are considered _____
Extrication Sector
292
205.13
Crosswinds exceeding __ knots or a head wind exceeding __ knots can create an Alert 1 for Airports
20 knots
30 knots
293
205.13
How far away should units stage from a runway for aircraft responses?
400 ft for large aircraft,
300 ft for smaller aircraft.
294
205.13
What is the landing distance for aircraft?
1,200 ft to 6000 ft. (10,000 for large aircraft brake failures)
295
205.13
When responding to a down aircraft, stay at least __ ft from the front of the engine.
30ft
296
205.13
A jet engine can create an exhaust of up to ____ mph
300MPH
297
205.13
Always approach a hot brake from _____
Front or back
298
205.13
What taxiway should units stage at Mesa Gateway?
Kilo, short of runway (RWY 12R/30L)
299
205.13
Unusual condition, Advisory only (headwind of 30 knots, crosswind of 20 knots, diversion of passenger plane)
Alert I
300
205.13
Aircraft approaching with major difficulty. ARFF unit, one addle unit, bc dispatched
Alert II
301
205.13
Crash on or off the airport, meet with WGA RP and be escorted to the scene . PD takes over once command is terminate
Alert III
302
205.15
For freeway responses, what lights are recommended to be used when approaching the scene?
The hazard lights, instead of the code three lights
303
205.15
When taking command of a scene on a freeway, your initial report should include what?
Traffic conditions
Fire/No fire
lanes occupied
304
205.15
Attempt to clear incidents on freeway within ____ minutes
30 minutes
305
205.20
Electrical equipment is classified as (3)?
1. Energized
2. De-Energized
3. Dead
306
205.20
Completing a circuit where you are the source to ground
Step Potential (More severe when ground is wet)
307
205.20
Power lines tend to have ____ and may curl back on itself when down
Reel memory
308
205.20
If power line is on vehicle instruct them to ___ NOT step out and ensure they do not touch vehicle and ground at same time, and walk away with small steps
Jump free
309
206.01
When placing apparatus, spot vehicle approximately ____ ft past residence or before if needed
100ft
310
206.02B
The infectious disease mitigation plan falls in line with what strategic initiative number?
7: reevaluate ff health and wellness programs
311
206.01
How can you tell if a PD case has been assigned to your call?
A three digit PD number will appear in front of the med type
312
206.01
When dealing with customers with ALOC as a result from alcohol/drugs or mental illness how should be approach?
Introduce ourselves as firefighters and that we are here for them and ask what we can do to help
313
206.01
What side of the door should we stand near for safety?
The doorknob side
314
206.01
How should you position yourself when talking with a potentially dangerous person?
At a partial right angle and out of arms reach
315
206.02
What is the area where decontaminated equipment is pleaced?
The Drop Zone
316
206.06
Who do you contact for recommendation for gross decon?
BSO 202
317
206.06
When are Captains responsible for conducting monthly protective FF clothing/equipment safety review
First Saturday of Saturday Set
318
206.06
Battalion Aids will keep PPE inspection reports for how long?
3 years
319
206.06
As promotions occur, helmets can be purchased for $25 if older than ____ years from manufactured date
5 years
320
206.06
BSO ____ manages PPE cleaning pickup/delivery
202
321
206.06
Each station will have 1 turn-in date per ____ month period to allow for each set of turnouts to be cleaned
6 month
322
206.06
How much is the leather structure boot voucher?
$300
323
206.14
For aggressive bees stage approximately ____ mile(s) away and remain at least ____ ft away from swarm
1/4 mile
150 ft
324
206.14
What can be used to suppress bees while using wide fog?
A foam mix at 3%...dry chem can also be used
325
206.21
The large metal arm that connect the light rail train to the overhead wires
A pantograph
326
206.21
How are light rail trains powered?
The traction powered substations (TPSS) proved DC current through the overhead lines. The tracks are the negative return (no electrical threat)
327
206.21
How fast do the light rail trains travel and what is their stopping distance?
35 to 55 mph
190 foot stopping distance at 35 mph
328
206.21
How much forces will the light rail track switches operate at?
1200 lbs
329
206.21
How high are the overhead light rail wires, what are they tensioned at and what is their current?
18 feet high
750-950 DC, 2000-6000 amps (amps kill)
330
206.21
What is the tension of the overhead light rail wires (top and bottom)
Top 5,000 lbs
Bottom 3,000 lbs
331
206.21
What is the current of the overheard ligh rail wires ?
750-950 DC
2,000-6,0000 amps
332
206.21
What disables the light rail train (engages brakes and disables the throttle)
Removing the key (done by the operator)
333
206.21
When does the light rail train pose an electrocution risk?
When it has derailed and is unable to lower the pantograph (disconnect from the overhead lines)
334
206.21
OSHA requires a __ foot buffer from ungrounded electrical sources (light rail)
10 ft
335
206.21
What is the empty weight of light rail and what is the max capacity?
103,000 lbs empty
200 person max
336
206.21
The light rail has a bumper and bar ____ inches off the track to reduce the chance of people or cars getting trapped underneath
3 inches
337
206.21
What is the response time for the Metro vehicle designed to lift light rail during emergency
30-60 minutes
338
209.01
What is the highest level of care for SMI patients
ACT - assertive community treatment
339
209.01
When is the CM unit available?
10 am to 8:30 pm 7 days a week.
