SOP's 200 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in SOP's 200 Deck (500):
1

201.01A ______ is defined as: a timely and efficient means of air replacement and re-hydration (replenishment) of companies while maintaining their sector assignment.

Recycling

2

201.01 The Tactical Objectives (listed in order of priority) are:

A. Remove endangered occupants and treat the injured. (All Clear)
B. Stabilize the incident and provide for life safety. (Under Control)
C. Conserve property. (Loss Stopped)
D. Provide for the safety, accountability, and welfare of personnel. This priority is ongoing throughout the incident.

3

201.01 The Eight Basic Functions of Command:

1. Assume, confirm, position command
2. Situation evaluation “size up”
3. Initiate, maintain, and control the
communications process
4. Deployment management
5. Identify strategy / Develop an incident
Action plan
6. Incident organization
7. Review, evaluation, and revision
8. Continuing, transferring, and terminating
Command

4

201.01 Command is transferred to improve the quality of the ...

Command organization

5

201.01 On incidents requiring command, 1st command officer assumes command, 1st shift commander assumes Senior Advisor role, and 2nd arriving shift commander sets up.....

Command van and manages movement to CV

6

201.01 The Senior advisor, IC, and Support officer is known as the ....

Command Team (Incident Advisory Team)

7

201.01 When an incident is so large or of such duration that State or Federal resources are called to assist, an Incident Management Team (IMT) may be assigned to manage these resources. In this case the local _____ _____ _____ will maintain command.

Jurisdiction Having Authority (JHA)

8

201.01 Should a situation occur where a later arriving Company or Command officer cannot locate or communicate with Command (after several radio attempts), they will ....

Assume and announce their assumption of command and initiate any actions necessary

9

201.01 The preferred method to transfer command is by...

Face to face but can be done by radio

10

201.01 When an incident becomes so large that an Incident Management Team (IMT) is requested, Command will not transfer to the IMT (Type I/III) unless a formal written _______ __ ______ has been signed by both the JHA and the IMT

Delegation of Authority

11

201.01 TRUE OR FALSE The arrival of a ranking officer on the incident scene does not mean that command has
been automatically transferred to that officer.

TRUE

12

201.01 Command should consider adding a command officer to any sector with ___ __ ___ operating companies.

three or more

13

201.01 The senior advisor responsibility on scene is the ongoing review of the overall incident, this is referenced as the ....

THE BIG PICTURE

14

201.01 A ______ ______ is the best support mechanism the Incident Commander can utilize to achieve a balance between managing personnel and incident needs on scene

Command organization

15

201.01 The basic configuration of Command includes three levels:

Strategic - Direction of incident
Tactical - Objectives assigned to sectors
Task - Task objectives assigned to
companies

16

201.01 Whenever there are ___ __ ___ companies operating in a sector, the IC should assign a Battalion Chief and FIT to that sector.

three or more

17

201.01 The maximum number of Sectors that an IC can effectively manage is called the ____ __ _____.

span of control

18

201.01 The span of control is usually...

five sectors and should never exceed seven sectors

19

201.01 Sectors may be assigned by their ...

Geographic location (North Sector) or Function (Ventilation Sector)

20

201.01 Divisions are assigned by their....

Geographic location (North Division).

21

201.01 Groups are assigned by their...

Function (Ventilation Group).

22

201.01 When the number of Sectors exceeds the span of control that the Incident Commander can effectively manage, the Incident Organization should be divided to ...

Branches

*Responsible for several sectors and assigned separate channel.

23

201.01 Utilizing Sectors provides the following advantages:

1. Reduces IC's Span of Control
2. Effective communication
3. Effectively sized units
4. Provides major support function
5. Improves FF safety

24

201.01 When establishing a Sector, the IC will assign each Sector Officer:

1. Tactical objectives
2. A Radio Designation (roof sector, etc)
3. Identity of resources assigned to sector

25

201.01 During offensive fires
____ companies represents a reasonable maximum span of control for a
Sector Officer

five (5)

26

201.01 During defensive fires _____ companies represents a
reasonable maximum span of control

seven (7)

27

201.01 Sector Officers assigned to operate within the hazard zone must be accompanied by a...

Partner (Safety Officer, or a F.I.T.)

28

201.01 When a command officer is assigned Sector responsibilities the FIT/ISO becomes the ...

Sector Safety Officer

29

201.01 For buildings with odd geographic positioning, the front of the building always becomes ...

Sector A or Alpha.

30

201.01 The _____ level of the organization is designed to provide COORDINATION between the Sectors and Command

Branch

31

201.01 Branch officers supervise and manage a number of ____ Officers, and report to the Incident Commander

Sector

32

201.01 The Senior Advisor has the responsibility to decide whether or not to expand the organization to include branches

Strategic level - IC
Coordination level - Branch officers
Tactical level - Sector officers
Task - Companies

33

201.01 Branch Officers should be utilized at incidents where the ___ __ _____ with Sectors is maximized or incidents involving ___ or more distinctly different major management components

span of control

two

34

201.01 Branch Officers positions should be assigned to _____ Officers

Chief

35

201.01 The Fire Department's involvement and needs at the incident scene can be divided into four sections....

Logistics
Planning
Operations
Administrative

36

201.01 The ______ section provides services and support systems to all the organizational components involved in the incident

Logistics (support mechanism)

*Rehab, staging, supplies/equipment, fuel, food, communication equipment, etc

37

201.01 The _____ Section is responsible for gathering, assimilating, analyzing, and processing information needed for effective decision-making

Planning (Clearing house for info)

*Planning Section Chief's goal is to plan ahead of current events & identify the need for resources before they are needed

38

201.01 The _____ Section is responsible for the tactical priorities, accountability, safety and welfare of the personnel working in the Operations Section

Operations

* Coordinate activities w/IC, assign units, use branches/sectors, Accountability, Life safety , implement IMP

39

201.01 If the Ops officer is within the command post their designation is "command", where as if they are in a forward position their designation is....

"Operations"

* ALL sector/branch officers must direct communications to Ops officer

40

201.01 TRUE OR FALSE In order to maintain continuity and overall effectiveness, the Incident Commander and Operations Officer should normally be in the Command Post together

True

41

201.01 The ________ Section evaluates and manages the risk and financial requirements for the Fire Department's involvement in the incident

Administration

* documents financial cost, cost recovery, analyze/manage legal risk for incident, IC liaison with city officials, etc., monitors emergency deliver for rest of city, EOC rep. in command post, manage investigation

42

201.02 The ___ should be opened during large catastrophic events that require a coordinating team of department heads working together to solve city problems

EOC

43

201.02 The EOC is opened by the City of Mesa __ ___ ______ ______. This person is contacted via pager through Mesa Police/Fire dispatch.

On duty Emergency Manager (EM)

*EM will page Dept heads, City manager, and EOC support team to respond.

44

201.02 The following individuals are authorized to activate (open) the City’s Emergency Operations Center (EOC):

City Manager
Assistant City Managers
Police Chief
Fire Chief
Emergency Manager
Assistant Police Chiefs
Police Duty Commanders
Assistant Fire Chiefs
Fire/Medical Dept shift commanders

45

201.02 _______ _______ _______ ______ ____ identifies the National Incident Management System (NIMS) as the nationwide approach for Federal, State, local and tribal governments to work effectively and efficiently together

Homeland Security Presidential Directive (HSPD)-5

46

201.02 Incident Command System (ICS) and Unified Command shall be utilized within the ____ in order be effective and efficient in domestic incident management

EOC

*EOC staff will work within one of five functional areas: Command team, Ops, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Admin

47

201.02B _____ Outages Such as wires or poles down, pole fires or transformer problems, which usually affect a local area.

SRP service outage of 10 residents
APS service outage of 35 residents or
as many as 800 homes.

Local outage

48

201.020B ______ Outages such as damage or problems at one of their electrical substations or major distribution lines. This outage will normally cause a larger area to be without power.

SRP service outage of 200 residents
APS service outage of 2000 residents

Feeder outage

49

201.02B The Emergency Power Outage Plan (EPOP) can be implemented when the heat stress factor (temperature and humidity) exceeds ___ or extremely cold temperatures below __ degrees

exceeds 105 degrees F

below 34 degrees F

50

201.02B This activation of the EPOP may be initiated at the discretion of _______, ______, or ________.

Duty Chief
Senior Staff
Command Officer

51

201.03 The ____ zone will be defined as any area that requires an SCBA, a charged hose line and protective clothing or in which a firefighter is at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure.

hot

52

201.03 When entering a hot zone with a partial crew (i.e., engineer remains at the engine to pump lines), the Company Officer must _____ name tags of those members not entering the hot zone

remove

53

201.03 A personnel accountability report will be required for the following situations:

1. Report of missing/trapped FF
2. Change from Offensive to Defensive
3. Sudden hazardous event at incident
4. By crew reporting an "all clear"
5. Every 30 minutes
6. A report of "Fire under control"
7. As necessary

54

201.03 ______ Officers may be Engineers, Sector Officers, or personnel specifically assigned to sectors to serve as Accountability Officers for the Sector Officer

Accountability

55

201.03 The Accountability Sector Officer will be assigned to the _____ Section and will operate on the assigned safety radio channel.

Safety

56

201.03 ______ Officers are responsible for ensuring that the PASSPORTS, and helmet ID's always remain current.

Company

57

201.03 PASSPORT rules of thumb:

1. Passports never enter hot zone
2. Maintained at point of entry to hot zone
3. Reflect only personnel presently in HZ

58

201.03 Implementation of the PASSPORT system will occur at any incident that requires the use of _____

SCBA

59

201.03 A Sector Officer operating within the hot zone will not have ________ accountability responsibilities

PASSPORT

60

201.03 Multi story/high rise...Once a _______ sector is established all crews reporting to the building will deliver their PASSPORTS to this sector

lobby

61

201.03 Multi story/high rise...Once the ______ Sector is established, this Sector Officer will collect the PASSPORTS of all crews assigned to fire combat positions

Resource

62

201.03 An absent member of any crew will automatically be assumed as ____ or ______ in the hot zone until otherwise determined safe. Company Officers must immediately declare a May Day.

lost or trapped

63

201.03 Following a ______, Command must request the next greater assignment or alarm with a medical component

May Day

*This followed by PAR and activation of RIC crews (Rescue)

64

201.04A The term "May-Day" will be reserved ONLY to report....

Lost or trapped FF's

65

201.04A Abandoning firefighting positions during the rescue effort of a MayDay should be ______

avoided

66

201.04A A _____ officer should be assigned during a MayDay to direct the rescue sector and rescue operations

Chief

67

201.04A Each rescue team (RIC) should enter the building with at least ____ RIC-SCBA Rescue Kit for each reported lost/trapped firefighter

One

68

201.04A ______ _____ _____ and other specialized equipment should be requested at all structural collapses that have trapped firefighters.

Technical Rescue Teams (TRT)

69

201.04A _______ sector/branch will aid in notification of next of kin and allow Command to stay ahead of the media's release of information. A ranking Chief officer should be assigned to direct this sector/branch

Welfare sector/branch

70

201.04 _______ shall be implemented at all "working" interior structural fires beyond the incipient stage and other incidents where fire department members are subject to hazards that would be immediately dangerous to life and/or health in the event of an equipment failure, sudden change of conditions, or mishap

Rescue (RIC)

71

201.04 Temporary two-person RIC team assigned at the outset of an incident to allow teams to enter IDLH, potential IDLH, or unknown atmosphere.

IRIC (Initial RIC)

*One member must be solely dedicated to tracking interior personnel

72

201.04 The plug person assumes the ______ IRIC position and the engineer assumes the secondary IRIC position

primary

73

201.04 What are the two exceptions to the RIC requirements...

1. Known rescue
2. Fire is in an incipient stage

74

201.04 Whenever a ____ is deployed it should be replaced as soon as possible to back up the crews involved in a rescue operation

RIC

75

201.04 Upon assignment of RIC responsibilities, the RIC company officer should obtain a detailed briefing from Command or the IRIC on the _____ and _______ of all assigned companies.

Status and Location

76

201.04 For high-rise fires, RICs will be assigned to standby positions in the ______ Sector location, or other appropriate location(s). A secondary standby location may be in the Lobby Sector location

Resource

77

201.05A Mesa Fire Department will implement a "_____ _____" (Safety 202) at any multiple alarm incident, working fire, special operations rescue, trench rescue, confined space rescue, and first alarm or greater hazardous materials incidents

Safety Sector

78

201.05A THE _____ SECTOR REPORTS DIRECTLY TO COMMAND AND HAS FULL AUTHORITY TO TERMINATE, SUSPEND OR ALTER ANY UNSAFE CONDITION OR ACTION

SAFETY

79

201.05A ________ _______ SHOULD BE USED FOR ANY CRITICAL EMERGENCY NOTIFICATIONS/ ALERTS REQUIRED AT THE INCIDENT SCENE!

EMERGENCY TRAFFIC

80

201.05A Safety Sector intervention at scene operations involves three approaches:

Life Threatening - take care immediately
Non life threatening - one on one with
member.
On going incident planning process -
remain part of the IAP and safety plan

81

201.05B Resource Sector is assigned under the _______ Section Officer as a part of our Incident Command System.

Logistics

82

201.05B If command choose's to establish Logistics/Resource Sector, notification can be made by pager or by phoning ___ ___ at resource management.

Car 614

83

201.05C A _____ Sector is used to control access to a building or area during fires or any other situation where it is necessary to control and maintain accountability for the entry and exit of personnel

Lobby

84

201.05C When beginning operations at high rise, at least ____ firefighter from the initial arriving companies should be left to establish a Lobby Sector

One

85

201.05e The area of initial evacuation boundaries should follow ______ and established roadways

streets

86

201.05e In-place sheltering can be considered during the following circumstances:

1. Hazardous material identified as a low or
moderate level of health risk
2. Material released from its container and
is now dissipating
3. Leaks can be controlled rapidly and
before evacuation can be completed
4. Exposure to the product is expected to
be short-term
5. Public can be adequately protected by
staying indoors

87

201.05e Three levels of evacuation:

Site evacuation
Intermediate level evacuation
Large scale evacuation

88

201.05e Site evacuation is.....

1. Involves small # of citizens
2. Typically workers at the site
3. Evacuation holding times less than 1-2
hour
4. Citizens permitted to return to
business/homes.

89

201.05e Intermediate level evacuation is...

1. Involves larger # of citizens affects fewer
than 100 people
2. Evac. times of two to four hours or more
3. Collecting/document evacuees more
difficult
4. Evacuees will leave area or sent home.

90

201.05e Large Scale evacuation is...

1. Thousands of citizen could be evacuated
2. Evacuees out of homes/business for
many hours if not days
3. Evac shelters are to be located, opened,
and managed
4. EOC is activated to support incident

91

201.05e Once long term sheltering is identified, the ___ _____ will manage shelters.

Red Cross

*Needs up to 3 hrs to get personnel, equipment, and supplies for incident

92

201.05e The ______ section is responsible for all planning associated with the evacuation.

Planning

93

201.05e The actual evacuation process is normally managed in the _______ section as an evacuation branch or sector.

Operations

94

201.05e A police rep. will be assigned to the _______ section and another to the Evacuation branch as a liasion

Planning

95

201.05e On large scale evacuations, the Evacuation branch officer may be either a _______ officer or fire officer.

Police

96

201.05e During evacuations, evacuate those at greatest risk first and then evacuate the greatest ________ area next

Concentrated

97

201.05e When making door to door evacuations, be in uniform and wear appropriate PPE and advise evacuees to take....

• Wallet/purse
• House and car keys
• Money
• Eyeglasses
• Medications
• Proper/warm clothing
• Family pet

98

201.05e In other situations, where immediate and rapid evacuation makes door-to-door notification impossible, use the following notification method:

• Use three (3) five-second blasts of the
siren while on the "YELP" setting.
• Follow with the standard evacuation
instruction over PA system
• Use maximum volume on PA system.
• Proceed slowly to maximize notification.
• Initiate notification at the beginning of
each block and each 50 yards after that

99

201.05e Some citizens may refuse to leave for an evacuation. A few methods of persuasion include:

• Be in uniform.
• Wear your helmet.
• Wear SCBA and facepiece (air hose may
not need to be connected) when
advising the citizen to leave.
• Ask for next of kin and a phone number.
• Write the next of kin information down.
• Refusals should be noted and reported to
the Branch Officer by radio.

100

201.05e Transportation Sector should be established within the Evacuation Branch...ambulances, buses, etc should be obtained and put one FF or Cop on each vehicle with....

A department radio

101

201.05e The decision to return evacuees to their homes will be the sole responsibility of the fire department ______ ______. If the EOC is operating, the decision to return evacuees will be made by the EOC staff.

Incident Commander

102

201.05f Public Information Officer should station himself/herself in a readily visible and accessible location adjacent to the Command Post with the location marked by a .....

Green Light

103

201.05f The PIO will have access to the ____ ____ ____, which contacts all news agencies on a closed-loop telephone system.

Media Alert Line

104

201.05f In the event of injuries, fire or civilian, the PIO may give media members..

Age
Gender
Extent of injury
Where transported

*Fatality-omit extent of injury

105

201.05f (PIO) As soon as information is available as to the cause of the fire, release the information to the media, unless it is ...

Arson

*Get permission from investigators first

106

201.05h A ______ Sector officer will be established for any incident involving the serious injury or fatality of a member (or members) of the Mesa Fire Department.

Welfare

*Applies to both on duty and off duty incidents. On duty - IC responsible ... Off duty - Deputy chief responsible

107

201.05h The _____ _____ is responsible for the notification of the next-of-kin

Fire Chief

108

201.05h The Welfare Sector officer must insure that a _____ ______ officer (chief officer preferred) is assigned to each family.

Family Liaison

109

201.05h The _____ _____ Officer should be prepared to assist the next-of-kin with the immediate emotional trauma associated with the notification

Family Liaison

110

201.05h The Assistant Chief of _____ __ _____ _____ will act as the Incident Commander for the survivor action team.

Human and Medical Services

*Team handles specific aspects of the funeral arrangements and to assist the surviving family

111

201.05h Pallbearers for a line-of-duty death may consist of ____ members of the Fire Department with the family’s approval.

eight

112

201.05h PERIOD OF MOURNING- Flags will remain at half-mast until the day following the funeral, and badge shrouds will be worn for __ days after the funeral

30

113

201.05I It is the responsibility of the _____ Department to keep unauthorized persons outside this Fire Line

Police

114

201.07 TRUE OR FALSE News helicopters are not approved for use in technical rescue (SPECIAL USE) operations except as aerial observers

True

115

201.07 Helicopters are restricted from flying over ______ ______ with any external load. Roadways may be closed and used as flight Paths

occupied structures

116

201.07 Phx police air unit has the ability to put ___ Bambi buckets in service.

MPD air unit has the ability to put __ Bambi bucket in service.

Phx - 2

MPD - 1

117

201.07 The Phoenix Fire Department currently has __ buoy wall tanks. Mesa Fire Department has __ buoy wall. The buoy wall tanks will hold either 3,000 or 4,000 gallons of water

Phx - 4

MFD - 1

118

201.07 The Bambi Buckets can hold between __ to __ gallons of water, depending on air temperature and humidity

67 to 96 gallons

119

201.07 Buoy wall set up info:

Set up in a large flat area clear of overhead obstruction.

Place one or two salvage covers on the ground.

Buoy wall tanks fill from the bottom only. Start filling the tank slowly after approximately one foot of water is in the tank, flow rate can be increased.

Foam concentrate added to the tank when it is about one foot from the top.

NOTE: Apparatus must be kept at least 150' to the side of the flight path of helicopters dipping the tank.

120

201.07 CONTRACT HELICOPTER SERVICES - A supply line shall be laid from a hydrant and two 1-1/2 inch lines shall be extended. Lines are to refill belly tanks, wet down area, and to provide fire protection. All refilling is done from the ____ side of the aircraft.

Right

121

201.07 Prior to initiating any rescue operation that required the “Special Use” of a helicopter, a ___ ______ _____ will be completed by Technical Sector Officer (T.S.O), Police pilot, and Command

Risk benefit analysis

122

201.07 “_____ ___” landing zones are defined as any landing zone where the pilot cannot land and shut down power to the aircraft

Special Use

123

201.07 The load calculation form will be required for both internal and external loads for helicopters. The load calculation form will be retained by ______ ______ _____ officer and submitted with the T.R.T. rescue report.

Technical Rescue Sector

124

201.07 TRUE OR FALSE National Guard helicopters have no direct communications capability with fire department ground units

True

125

201.07 Helicopters will not land in the incident area without first making contact with ground units. If unable to make contact on an assigned channel, the arriving helicopter shall ____ or ____ in the vicinity until contact is established

circle or hover

126

201.07 Helicopter designations by agency:

Mesa PD - Falcon
Phx FD - Firebird
DPS - Ranger 41 (1 DPS officer/pilot, 1 DPS
officer/medic, 1 PFD medic)
Transport capabilites
MCSO - Fox

127

201.07 Should anything become unsafe during the approach of any helicopter during landing operations, instruct the pilot to .....

GO AROUND three times

128

201.07 A landing zone must be relatively flat and free of obstructions for an area of at least ___ X ___ for each helicopter

100’ X 100’

129

201.07 All spectators, vehicle traffic (including emergency vehicles) and animals must be kept a minimum of ___ ft away from the landing zone.

200’

130

201.07 In the center of the landing zone, a ___ X ___ ft “touch down” area shall be identified with appropriate visual markers

60’ X 60’

131

201.07 The individual communicating with the pilot shall stand at _____ ____ _____ (as seen by the pilot) of the touch down area

the front right corner

132

207.01 The ______ and _______ paths (into the wind) must be free of obstructions.

approach and departure

133

207.01 For heavily loaded helicopters (i.e., water drop), the clear path should extend at least ___ yards in each direction.

100

134

207.01 The landing zone should be located at least ___ yards from other activity areas.

100

135

207.01 . If the landing area is dusty, or could become dusty due to dry ground conditions, wet down a ___ X ___ft area with a hose line before landing

200’ X 200’

136

207.01 Radio contact and the landing zone shall be maintained for _________ after departure of the helicopter in case an in-flight emergency is experienced

2-3 minutes

137

207.01 Provide wind indicators for take-off and landings; ____ to the wind, arms extended in front of body

Back

138

207.01 LZ Only use spotlights to illuminate the _____ of poles. Do not shine upward

bottom

139

207.01 . Stage patients waiting to be loaded at least ___ feet away. Secure sheets and blankets and cover eyes during landing.

150

140

207.01 LZ surface....the following are types of surface compositions in order of preference:

1. Concrete
2. Asphalt
3. Grass
4. Compacted dirt (lightly moistened to
control dust)
5. Dry, loose dirt/sand (heavily moistened
to control dust)

141

201.08 ____ ______ Review is the operational arm of a quality improvement program

Post-Incident

142

201.08 When a post incident review is performed immediately after the incident, the critique should be coordinated by either the Support Officer or Incident Commander and is known as a ....

“tailboard critique”

143

201.08 A formal request for a Post Incident Review should be made to the Deputy Chief of Special Operations & Training as soon as the need is determined and no later than ___ ____ after the incident

one week

144

201.08 a Post Incident Review should be made by the Incident Commander on the following incidents:

1. 1st alarm or greater
2. Emergency tones activated
3. FD member injured on scene
4. Rescue sector was deployed
5. Special Ops incidents
6. Incidents with serious civilian injury or
high dollar loss

145

202.02 ______ is a conscious process involving the very rapid but deliberate consideration of the critical factors and the development of a strategy and rational plan of attack based on those conditions

Size-up

146

202.02 ________ factors represent an array of items that are dynamic during the entire fireground process

Fireground

147

202.02 Critical Fireground factores -

Building
Fire
Occupancy
Life Hazard
Arrangement
Resources
Other factors/consideration (time, day, etc)

148

202.02 Incident Action Plan - Offensive strategy:

Firefighter Safety
Rescue (Primary Search)
Transitional Fire Attack
Interior Fire Attack
Control and Coordinate Ventilation
Support work (ladders)

149

202.02 Incident Action Plan - Defensive strategy:

Firefighter Safety
Establish Hazard Zone
ALL CLEARS in exposures
Prevent extension to exposures
Firefighter’s safety is THE #1 Tactical Priority for a Defensive Strategy

150

202.02a The objectives of each priority are reflected in the following benchmarks of completion

#1 - Rescue – (Primary search) (all clear)
#2 - Fire Control - under control
#3 - Loss Control (Property Conservation) -
loss stopped

151

202.02a The umbrella of service is made up of three on-going considerations....

Firefighter Safety
Customer Service
Loss Control

152

202.02a The concept of ____ _____ not only addresses salvage and overhaul techniques but also emphasizes the importance of craftsmanship, pride in profession, and compassion for those we service in time of need

Loss Control

153

202.02a The _______ __ ______ is as important as the tactical priorities and is critical to the success and positive outcome of an incident.

umbrella of service

154

202.02a The fireground strategy mode/factors are based on :

Firefighter danger
Rescue profile
Savable property
Fire stage

155

202.02b An Offensive Fire Attack is centered around ...

RESCUE

156

202.02b The 7 sides (or sectors) of the fire that must be considered are:

1. Front
2. Rear
3. (R) Side
4. (L) Side
5. Top
6. Bottom
7. Interior

*Fires cannot be considered under control until all 7 sides are addressed

157

202.02b WRITE-OFF PROPERTY THAT IS ALREADY LOST and go on to protect ______ property

Exposed

158

202.02b THE ONLY REASON TO OPERATE INTERIOR IN MARGINAL SITUATIONS IS

RESCUE

159

202.02b Command should abandon offensive attacks with marginal conditions when:

1. Primary "all clear" is obtained
2. Roof is unsafe and untenable.
3. Interior encounters heavy heat and can't
locate fire
4. Ineffective transitional attack
5. Heavy smoke forced from building
under pressure and increasing

160

202.02b The announcement of a change to a defensive strategy will be made as “_______ ______”

Emergency Traffic

161

202.02b A _______shall be obtained after any switch from offensive to defensive strategy

PAR (Personnel Accountability Report)

162

202.02b The first priority in defensive operations is ________ _______, then exposure protection

personnel safety

163

202.02b _______ _____ are generally the most effective tactic to be employed in defensive operations

Master streams

164

202.02b Fire “______ _____” means the forward progress of the fire has been stopped and the remaining fire can be extinguished with the on-scene resources; it does not mean the fire is completely out.

"Under control"

165

202.02c _______ ______ means companies have quickly gone through all affected areas and verified the removal and/or safety of all occupants

Primary search

166

202.02c _______ ______ means that companies thoroughly search the interior of the fire area, after “initial” fire control and ventilation activities have been completed

Secondary search

* To be completed by a different company than involved in primary

167

202.02c Command and operating companies can depend upon reports from family members but cannot depend on reports from spectators to determine status of victims...this is known as a

Resident "all clear"

168

202.02c TRUE OR FALSE In “working fire situations”, primary search must be followed by a secondary search, unless Command has a resident “All Clear”.

TRUE

169

202.02C Rescue efforts should be extended in the following order:

1. Most severely threatened
2. The largest number (groups)
3. The remainder of the fire area
4. The exposed areas

170

202.03A National Fire Protection Association studies reveal that a majority of firefighters are killed while operating on the fireground at ________ fires.

residential

171

202.03 Notifications of May Day should occur as soon as the firefighter ______ he or she is in trouble.

THINKS

172

202.03 The term "May-Day" will be reserved ONLY to report lost or trapped firefighters. The term “_______ ______" will be used to report other emergencies

emergency traffic

173

202.03 If a lost firefighter can not contact Command, dispatch/alarm, or any other units on the assigned radio channel, the firefighter should go to another channel, preferably ....

Channel 1 (dispatch) is preferred

174

202.04 ______ Strategy- Exterior transitional attack, followed by an interior attack and related support directed toward quickly bringing the fire under control

Offensive

175

202.04 _______ Strategy--Exterior attack directed to first reduce fire extension and then bring the fire under control.

Defensive

176

202.05a The _____ _____ _____ is an effective tool that aid in a more efficient search and rescue, supporting fire control efforts, assisting in locating lost or trapped firefighters, providing more effective training, supporting fire investigations and overall fire ground safety

Thermal Imaging Camera (TIC)

177

202.05a The MFMD use the __________ which is equipped with temperature measurement capability. The right side of the display will show a bar graph or Relative Heat Indicator (RHI).

Bullard T3 Series Thermal Imager

*Objects such as metals and shinny objects will reduce accuracy of temp indicator

178

202.05a T3 Series T.I.C. is equipped with ______ _____ ______. The ETT is ideal for pinpointing hot spots during overhaul, searching for overheated electrical equipment, or clarifying objects in ambient temperature situations

Electronic Thermal Throttle (ETT)

179

202.05a To activate the ETT option, locate the ___ _______ ______ on top of the unit. Press the down button (the button closer to the front of the imager) to activate. Continuing to press the down button (or holding it down) will further engage ETT and will color more of the scene blue, eventually coloring even the coolest objects blue

Two black buttons

180

202.05a (TIC) The MobileLink handheld receiver will be utilized to receive transmitted thermal imaging video from the SceneCatcher. Each Battalion Chief vehicle will have a MobileLink Receiver....

• Engine Companies will use channel
A to transmit.
• Ladder Companies will use channel B
to transmit

181

202.05b all personnel expected to respond and function in areas of atmospheric contamination shall be equipped with _______ ______ ______ _____ and trained in its proper use and maintenance

self-contained breathing apparatus (S.C.B.A.)

182

202.05b In routine fire situations, the decision to remove S.C.B.A. shall be made by ________ Officers, with the approval of Sector Officers, based on an evaluation of atmospheric conditions

Company

183

202.05 In situations where crews must operate from opposing or conflicting positions, such as front vs. rear attack streams, roof crews vs. interior crews, etc., utilize _____ or _____ __ ____ communications to coordinate your actions with those of the opposing crew in an effort to prevent needless injuries

Radio or face-to-face

184

202.05 When laddering a roof, the ladder selected shall be one, which will extend a minimum of __ to __ft above the roofline. This shall be done in an effort to provide personnel operating on the roof with a visible means of egress

4’-6’

185

202.05 When operating either above or below ground level, establish at least two (2) separate escape routes/means where possible, (such as stairways, ladders, exits, etc.), preferably ....

Opposite ends or diagonal corners of the building or separated by considerable distance

186

202.05 The ____ Zone will be defined as any area that requires an SCBA, charged hoseline, special protective clothing, or in which Firefighting Personnel are at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure

Hot

187

202.05 The ______ Zone will be defined as just outside of the Hot Zone where the firefighters start their operations on the fireground. This zone is where the fire fighter is not at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure

Warm

188

202.05 If at any time firefighters in the Warm Zone become threatened, then this would become a ______ Zone

Hot

189

202.05 The ______ Zone will be defined as outside of the Warm Zone where no one is at risk because of the incident

Cold

190

202.05 FYI - A 100' length of unprotected steel will expand 9" when heated to 1100° F

Just a good fact to know for testing!

191

202.05 The _____ is the most likely candidate for failure in a typical fire involving a building

Roof

192

202.05 In multi-story buildings or buildings with basements, the _____ section above the fire may collapse if supporting members are directly exposed to heat and flames

Floor

193

202.05 Signs of building collapse may include:

1. Sagging
2. Time of fire involvement
3. Cracks in exterior walls
4. Bulges in exterior walls
5. Sounds of creaking, snapping, popping
6. Smoke/water leaking through walls
7. Movement of floor/roof
8. Int/Ext bearing walls/columns leaning,
twisting, flexing

194

202.05 Before using an elevator at a high rise fire, the nearest enclosed _______ should be identified

stairway

195

202.05 When using an elevator at a high rise fire, take elevator to the floor ___ _____ below the suspected fire floor

two floors

*Remove finger from door control button is fire or smoke is visible (FF Service feature)

196

202.05 Elevators without the Emergency Operations shall ___ be used if a working fire is indicated

Not

197

202.05 When operating around a high-rise building where the potential hazards of falling glass and debris exist, a fireground perimeter shall be established approximately ____ft from the building and shall be observed by all Fire personnel as a high hazard area

200 feet from building

198

202.06 No firefighter shall operate on a ____ ____ roof if there is any evidence that the fire has penetrated the attic or involves the truss area.

bow string

199

202.06 _____ Sector will be responsible for obtaining its own protective hose line as needed

Roof

200

202.06 The initial Roof Sector Officer must report to Command the following conditions:

Roof design and
construction
Structural condition
Fire condition
Location of fire walls
Location of heavy
objects
Ventilation plan

201

202.06 . Ventilation hole(s) of at least ___ of roof surface of the involved area is a rule of thumb to consider

10%

202

202.07 The ______ Sector should be established as a supply pool to provide a standby supply of personnel, equipment, and commodities for operating sectors.

Resource

203

202.07 . A minimum of ___ company for every company on the fire floor should be maintained in Resource

one

204

202.07 . In high-rise fires, the radio designation "Resource" should include the floor number that Resource is located on (i.e., "Resource 25").

FYI

205

202.08A HEAT STRESS MGMT - be implemented from May 15th to September 15th or as needed whenever temperatures are expected to exceed ___ degrees or whenever the combination of air temperature and humidity equal a humiture index of 105 degrees.

105 degrees

206

202.08A HEAT STRESS MGMT - COMPANY OFFICER'S RESPONSIBILITIES ...

1. Limit outside
cardio to 30 min
2. Min of 64oz
fluids in 24 hr
shift
3. Request rehab
after 2 bottles
air
4. as needded

207

202.08B A _______ is defined as any member that is exposed to smoke, fire, interior operations, or any other condition that is deemed hazardous by the incident commander, captain, or crew.

exposure

208

202.08B At a minimum the hot zone will be a distance of no less than ___ feet from the hazardous emergency scene.

50

209

202.08B Two levels of Decon are _______ Decontamination and _________ Decontamination

Preliminary

Gross

210

202.08B • Preliminary Decontamination occurs when your crew leaves the hot zone and is assigned to replenish or go to rehab sector...use a ________ or damp towel to remove debris

Soft bristle brush

*Shall be done minimum 50 ft from hot zone

211

202.08B _______ Decontamination should not occur prior to being cleared of the incident

Gross

*use a brush in winter to prevent hypothermia

212

202.08B After preliminary decontamination, crews would doff their gear and hang their gear away from rehab in a designated area ___ft away and downwind from rehab is the standard

50 ft

213

202.08 The rehab team consists of the following units:

• Rehab Truck
• Utility Truck
• Ambulance
• ALS Company
• Designated Sector
Officer with Crew
• CISM Team Member,
as Needed

214

202.08 The Rehab Sector area boundaries will be defined with ____ tape and will have only one entry point.

Blue

215

202.08 Rehab sector is divided into the following four sections....

1. Entry point & Triage
2. Hydration &
replenishment
3. Medical treat &
transport
4. Reassignment

216

202.08 The medical treatment section of rehab will monitor the following vitals...

Pulse
B/P
Temperature

217

202.08 Any member who has a pulse greater than ___ and/or has a medical complaint will be directed for additional treatment/transport

120 bpm

218

202.08 Medical personnel will consider the following criteria when making the recommendation for final disposition with a member in rehabe

• 20 minute resting heart rate above 100 beats per minute?

• Body temperature greater than 101 F?

• Diastolic blood pressure less than 100?

219

202.09 We ventilate a building for 3 principle reasons...

• To gain (and control) entry

• To remove heated gases and smoke

• To make interior spaces more tenable and reduce property loss

220

202.09 If the fire burns through the roof, this is called ...

Defensive ventilation

221

202.09 Forcible entry involves a trade-off in ____ vs. _______; the faster you force--the more damage you do

time versus damage

222

202.10 An ______ Team is an effective size operational group for many fireground tasks and provides a sound basis for the creation of sectors

Attack

223

202.11 A high-rise building is defined as 6 elevator stops or greater or ____ feet in height or greater.

75ft

224

202.11 After a declaration of a “working fire” at a high rise, once on scene, all 1st and 2nd Alarm companies should proceed directly to the building and report to _____ Sector

Lobby

*Lobby with be using the same radio channel as staging would be using.

225

202.11 Battalion Chief assignment priorities on a high rise fire...

Fire Floor
Building Systems
Ventilation
Lobby

226

202.11 All operations in high-rise buildings must be tied to areas of ___ _____

safe refuge

227

202.11 All crews entering a high rise building must bring a minimum of ___spare SCBA bottle

One

228

202.11 When using stairs to ascend, crews must collectively check their air supply every __ ____, managed by the captain

5 floors

229

202.11 In a high rise, the most difficult areas to communicate to and from will be _____ _____ ____ and ______.

Fire control room and elevators

230

202.12 The use of _____ __ ____ in firefighting is another method of reducing water damage

class A foam

231

202.12 . When checking for extension by pulling ceiling, cut small inspection holes, preferably _____ to check attics

6" x 6"

232

202.12 "Securing" the fire scene is a function of ____ _____.

loss control

233

202.12 Performing ___ ____ is a mark of excellence in service delivery. It is a "signature" of professionalism in our craft

loss control

234

202.12a _____ includes activities required to stop direct and indirect fire damage in addition to those required to minimize the effects of firefighting operations

Salvage

235

202.12b At “structural fires”, The Incident Commander shall schedule post fire inspections at __, __, and __ hour intervals post incident termination

2, 4 and 8-hour

*Performed by different crew than original salvage

236

202.12b In addition to a post fire inspection, the Incident Commander should have a RAT placed within the structure for a minimum of ____ hours

twelve

237

202.12b Plenum spaces, soffits and pipe chases should receive careful inspection as they provide possible routes for fire to spread throughout a structure. Failing to overhaul these areas invites fire extension to uninvolved building areas

FYI

238

202.12b Customer Service Sector Officer shall establish contact with the responsible party to assess their needs and serve as a _____ between the responsible party and Command

liaison

239

202.12b . In all cases the responsible party should be provided the Fire Department publication ____ __ ____' to assist them in the recovery process

"After the Fire"

240

202.12d Fans should be positioned __ feet back from the entry point. The objective is to create a pressure "cone" effect around the door

7

241

202.12d TRUE OR FALSE Where additional fans are required, placing two or more fans in "tandem"--one behind the other is more effective than side by side

TRUE

242

202.12d Do not use ___ if a common attic is shared and the exposure has ceiling openings into the attic space.

PPV

243

202.12e Attack hose line gpm:

1 3/4 175 gpm
2 350 gpm
2 1/2 250 gpm
MS 500-1000gpm

244

202.12e . Basement fires should also be attacked from the _______ when possible

exterior (Transitional)

245

202.12e . The transitional attack should last about ______ _____ and be deflected off the ceiling whenever possible

15-20 seconds

246

202.12f Animal injuries can be treated in a similar manner as ___ injuries to a human

BLS

*Never attempt IV

247

202.12f The three primary agencies that can be contacted to respond to injured/non injured/stray animal calls

Mesa Animal Control
Humane Society
AZ Society for the
Prevention of
Cruelty to Animals

*Contact through Alarm

248

202.12f If it is necessary to move an injured animal out of a roadway, the recommended procedure is to ___ ___ ____ __ _ ____and immobilize it before moving it. Muzzling the animal with material such as kling or a backboard strap would be suggested

wrap the animal in a blanket

249

202.12f When there is a danger to human safety, Animal Control will respond. (Also request that ______ respond.).

MPD

250

202.12f If a MFD transports animal to vet, contact alarm for clinic...Cost of treatment is passed on to owner or if no owner ASPCA will pay for treatment

FYI

251

202.15 Any fire exceeding ___ acres will be declared as a "Wildland Fire."

50

252

202.15 The following 3 factors have a critical effect on the burning characteristics of a wildland fire:

Weather
Fuel
Topography

253

202.15 . Fire spread will usually slow down in the evening AS HUMIDITY ______ (25%) and fire will increase during the midmorning hours AS THE HUMIDITY DECREASES (15%).

INCREASES

254

202.15 Once an area has been burned, usually only the heavier fuel (tree stumps, etc.) need to be _____ ___

MOPPED UP

255

202.15 The most serious problem with topography is...

Access

256

202.15 . _____ __ _____ is the primary goal when immediate control is not possible with brush fires.

Protection of exposures

257

202.15 WILDLAND
During rehab of mop up crews, ensure at least ___ firefighters remain in the area to monitor for re-ignition or spread of fire

two

258

202.15 the proper brush uniform consists of...

Leather ankle boots
Flamex pant
fatigue shirt
brush jacket
hat
gloves
eye protection
particle mask

259

202.15 The first arriving company officer that assumes Command at a wild land fire must address the...

life safety
fire control
loss control benchmark

260

202.15 When water drops will expose ground crews they must move ___ft off the line, uphill and perpendicular to the fire line

200'

261

202.15a The _____ _____ chief will review personnel qualifications annually

Special Operations

262

202.15a All out of state deployment requests from State Land must be approved by the Duty Chief as well as the ____ ____

Fire Chief

263

202.15a Upon notification of an assignment designated crews will deploy within ___ hrs

2 hours

264

202.16 Apparatus should be placed ____ and ____ of car accidents

upwind and uphill

265

202.16 Pressure release devices can create a lengthy "blow torch" effect, or should the pressure relief device fail, a _____ may occur

BLEVE

266

202.16 Fires involving the trunk/cargo area should be approached with ____ _____

extreme caution

267

202.16 Never remove a ___ ___, or direct a hose line into a fuel tank because it may over pressurize and rupture

Gas cap

268

202.18 The average passenger car tire holds ___ gallons of oil

2.5

269

202.18 It is recommended that major tire fires be handled as _____ ______ incidents. A hazardous 2-1 will be dispatched if it is determined that a tire pile is on fire

hazardous materials

270

202.18 Options for fighting a tire fire ...

Burn it
Bury it
Drown it

271

202.18 Burying a tire fire that is on top of ____ soils may delay the oil from filtering to underground water supplies

clay

272

202.18 The use of foam would best be employed on small tire fires or when the fire is in the _____ stage

incipient

273

203.01 a Multi patient incident is any incident with fewer than __ patients

25

274

203.01 A mass casualty incident is any incident involving ___-____ patients

25-100

275

203.01 A disaster is any incident involving more than ___ patients

100

276

203.01 EMS Tactical objectives to be completed during any multi-patient/mass casualty, disaster incident include:

1. Completion of a "Triage Report"

2. Declaration of "All IMMEDIATES Transported"

277

203.01 Patients should be treated and transported in the following priority order:

1. IMMEDIATE
2. IMMEDIATE - DELAYED patients upgraded to IMMEDIATE
3. DELAYED
4. MINOR

278

203.01 Triage tags should be used any time there are ____ or more IMMEDIATE patients or more than ten (10) patients

3

279

203.01 _____ in close coordination with Extrication (visa versa), the location, number and condition of patients and whether triage should be performed before or after patients are extricated from the site

Triage

280

203.01 _______ Sector is to first determine whether patient treatment will occur "in place" or in a designated treatment area

Treatment

281

203.01 _________ sector should determine, in conjunction with Command, the location of the staging area, rescue/ambulance loading area, and helicopter landing-zone.

Transportation

282

203.01 This sector should be established on 3rd Alarm Medical or greater incidents. Consider using Phoenix’s Medical Support 19 apparatus located at Phoenix Sky Harbor Airport if the need is severe

Medical Supply Sector

283

203.02 Having Extrication and Treatment sectors separate follows the ...

Model Procedures Guide for Emergency Medical Incidents

284

203.02 TRIAGE At larger incidents, more than 10 patients, the first arriving company officer should assume Command and assign Triage to the next arriving fire company.

FYI

Less than 10 patients first arriving company provides triage

285

203.02 Triage should be completed using the "_____ ______ _____

Arizona Triage System."

286

203.04 TREATMENT During major incidents, one company per ____ patients should be the initial objective

four (4)

287

203.04 ________Sector Officer shall notify Command when patient care has been transferred to air ambulance staff

Treatment

288

203.04 TRUE OR FALSE The only time extended treatment should be considered is when immediate transportation is not available

TRUE

289

203.04 The Transportation Sector Officer will notify Command when “All _______ patients have been transported”. He/She will also notify Command when “all other patients have been treated and transported”.

Immediate

290

203.05 TRANSPORTATION Ground ambulances should be staged off site and brought in to the loading area, as needed, no more than ___ at a time

two

*Always have 2 ambos in loading area

291

203.05 In general, it is preferred to "leap-frog" MINOR patients to distant hospitals to minimize transport times for ______ patients to closer facilities

DELAYED

292

203.05 When ambulances or helicopters have left the scene, Transportation should advise Command and Alarm of the estimated ___________ and _____________________

arrival time and patient status

293

203.06 Prioritize victims utilizing color-coded ribbons or placards:

Red Immediate care
Yellow Delayed care
Green Ambulatory (minor)
Black Deceased (non-salvageable)

294

203.06 Integrated active shooter response should include the critical actions contained in the acronym THREAT ...

Threat suppression
Hemorrhage control
Rapid Extrication to safety
Assessment by medical providers
Transport to definitive care

295

203.06 Incidents of larger size will require State and Federal resources. Disaster between ________ patients plus are considered disaster response events

100-1000

296

203.06 If unknown victims in an active shooter/tactical environment initiate a MCI Alarm level ___ until a count can be determined.

1 (first alarm)

297

203.06 If the incident is due to a known or suspected weapon of mass destruction (WMD event), upgrade to first alarm or greater ______

HazMat

298

203.06 The Medical Support unit will be dispatched on all ______ Alarms and greater incidents.

second

299

203.06a While moving forward from a staging position, proceed with caution while conducting a .......

Windshild survey

300

203.06a A Rescue taskforce will be made up of PD security members, ____ extrication members, and 2 triage members.

4

301

203.06b The Infection Control Plan is on file at the ___ office and on MFMD EMS and Personnel and wellness page

EMS

302

203.06b Training records shall be maintained for ___ years from the date on which the training occurred

3

303

203.06b ________ company officers assigned to a station will ensure that all necessary personal protective equipment, engineering controls (e.g., sharps containers), labels, bio-hazard bags, etc. are maintained in adequate supplies with appropriate sizes at their stations by way of monthly medical supply requests through Fire Resource

C-Shift

304

203.06b TRUE OR FALSE The Department also encourages members to have ready access to the IC pack when off-duty

TRUE

305

203.06b The surface to be cleaned should be left wet with the disinfectant for 30 seconds for HIV-1 and for 10 minutes for HBV....the proper solution to use is...

First use soap and hot water then us a 1:10 bleach/water solution or EPA germicide

306

203.06b After the bio-hazardous material has been washed from clothing, employees are to run a cycle of wash at 160 degrees F without any laundry and add _____ _____ to the water to disinfect machine.

chlorine bleach

307

203.06b Cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration and fever may occur ___ to___ hours after consumption of contaminated food.

2 to 4 hours

308

203.06b Hold cold foods at 40° F or below. Keep hot foods at 140° F or above. Foods are no longer safe to eat when they have been in the danger zone of 40° F - 140° F for more than 2 hours.

FYI

309

203.06b Mesa Fire and Medical Infection Control Program is the responsibility of the ___ _____. EMS Coordinators are the designated Infection Control Officers (ICO).

EMS Office

*If ICO are absesent duties transferred to BSO or other trained personnel

310

204.01 Command should consider establishing _____ __ staging whenever possible for the responding units to HazMat incident

Level 2

311

204.01 THE DOT GUIDEBOOK, NFPA REFERENCE MATERIALS, the NIOSH POCKET GUIDE, OR ANY OTHER MATERIAL SUCH AS MSDS OR SHIPPING PAPERS AVAILABLE FYISHOULD BE USED TO ESTABLISH A SAFE DISTANCE FOR STAGING.

FYI

312

204.01 While on hazmat scene, look for the following ...

labels
markers
DOT ID #s
NFPA Diamond
Shipping papers

313

204.01 A hazardous material incident has two initial zones associated with the scene, similar to a fire. They are the

Limited access zone
Evacuation Zone

314

204.01 The LAZ should be geographically described to all responding units, if possible, and identified by ....

yellow hazard tape

315

204.01 A _____ ______Sector will be established to control access to the LAZ and maintain an awareness of which members are working in the area

Lobby Control

316

204.01 The ________ _____ is the larger area surrounding the LAZ in which a lesser degree of risk to members
exists. All civilians will also be removed from this area

Evacuation zone

317

204.01 When toxic or irritant vapors are being carried downwind, it may be most effective to....

Shelter in place

318

204.01 Once the_______ ______ Sector has been established, Haz Mat members will define and establish a hot, warm and cold zone. These zones will remain in effect for the remainder of the incident

Hazardous Materials

319

204.01a There are three levels of evacuation...

Site
Intermediate
Large scale

320

204.01a Site evacuation involves a small number of citizens, usually workers at a site...holding times are generally less than...

2 hrs

321

204.01a Intermediate evacuation usually affects off site homes and businesses affecting fewer than ....

100 people

322

204.01a Large scale evacuation usually involves ____ residents...evacuees may be out of home for days....

1000s

EOC should be opened

323

204.01a Any time more than ____ persons are evacuated from homes, etc, the Duty Chief or Deputy Chief advises the City Manager, or his/her designee, of the situation

ten (10)

324

203.06 Greater alarm medical ....

5-10 pts 4E, 2L, 4A, B
11-20pt 8E, 4L, 6A,3B
21+ pt 8E, 4L, 6A, 3B

325

204.01b Decontamination Sector Officer must assume that all members and equipment preparing to leave the Hot Zone are ______

contaminated

*confirm not contaminated

decon

retain and package items

326

204.01b The Decontamination Area should be established within the ___ ____ perimeter

Hot Zone

*equip and members not permitted to leave HZ w/o approval of decon dector officer

327

204.01b CONTAMINATED PTS Patients in need of medical treatment should be removed from the source of contamination as quickly as possible, but remain within the ____ Zone perimeter.

Hot

328

204.01b Transporting of _______ patients should not be delayed for complete decontamination

Immediate

329

204.01b CONTAMINATED PTS Bring ambo to warm zone...the vehicle should be prepared by draping exposed surfaces with sheets or _______ covers. Patients should be wrapped or covered to lessen off-gassing of the products within the vehicle

polyurethane

330

204.01b TRUE OR FALSE Helicopters will not be used for transporting any contaminated patients due to off-gassing effects on the pilot and flight crew

TRUE

331

204.01c DOT hazmat marking systems are inadequate because some materials in quantities up to ____lbs do not require a placard

1000lbs

332

204.02 Mercury spills residential response is specific to the Mesa Fire H.I.R.T. due to the use of the

Jerome Meter

333

204.02 Three types of mercury....

Elemental - BP cuff, thermometers

Inorganic - Electrical equipment, soda and disc battery

Organic - mining, refining operations

334

204.02 At mercury spills, command is responsible to ...

Evacuate
Isolate
Deny Entry

335

204.02 TRUE OR FALSE AT NO TIME SHALL THE FIRE DEPARTMENT ATTEMPT TO CLEAN UP A MERCURY RELEASE!!!

True

336

204.02 The only time the FD will take possession of mercury is if...

A resident brings mercury to the fire station

337

204.02 The Arizona Department of Environmental Quality has determined that a mercury release that occurs in a residence, including the interior of apartments, is _____ ______ _____. As a result, the release is exempt from cleanup requirements

household hazardous waste

338

204.02 A mercury release in common public areas such as pool-side or exit corridors at apartment complexes, condominiums, etc. would require compliance with the _________ facility section

commercial

339

204.02 Mercury spills shall have fire prevention and _____ _____ personnel dispatch to the scene

Special Ops

340

204.02 If contaminated clothing is collected on scene, place in clear trash bags with pt name, etc....do not put items in ....

red biohazard bags

341

204.03 If a nuclear weapon involves fire, evacuate the area of _____ feet, in all directions, immediately

2,000ft

342

204.03 RADIOLOGICAL HAZARDS Any commitment of members to the Limited Access Zone shall include at least ____ survey instrument per team to monitor radiation hazard levels. Dosimeters shall be issued to all members operating at the scene

one

343

204.03 TRUE OR FALSE Radiological contamination, itself, is not a medical emergency

true

344

204.03 Carefully peeling/cutting of outer clothing from the patient's body as well as __________will remove most of the contamination

wiping with moist cloth

345

204.04 The main operational problems with flammable liquids are:

fire extinguishment
ignition prevention
disposal of spills

346

204.04 The principle agent for flammable liquid fire fighting is ....

AFFF/Class B Foam (Aqueous Film Forming Foam)

*Covers liquid surface with film, apply gently to avoid breaking seal of liquid below. Reapply ever 10-15 min

347

204.04 _____ _____ spills include spills without fire and any remaining fuel after a fire has been extinguished

Flamamable liquid

348

204.04 Smaller spills (less than 10 gallons of Diesel or Leaded fuel,and less than 30 gallons of Unleaded fuel), which cannot be picked up with a tanker, must be ...

absorbed or emulsified.

*emulsified may be diluted with water and flushed in drain or open area

349

204.05 Natural gas is much ____ than air and will usually dissipate rapidly when outdoors

lighter

350

204.05 The flammable range of natural gas is approximately ___% to___% in air

4% to 15%

351

204.05 Units arriving at the scene of a structural explosion must consider _____ __ as a possible cause

natural gas

352

204.05 Ventilate buildings where gas is found with _____ ____ equipment only

explosion proof

353

204.05 A ____ ____ ____ shall be established and maintained around any suspected gas leak and "fire line" tape should be used to identify the LA Zone

Limited Access Zone

354

204.06a Carbon monoxide incidents are divided into two categories...

CO dectector alarm with victim- MED

CO dectrector alarm no victim - Special duty code 2

355

204.06a CO alarm...determine if there are any amounts above 5 ppm (above normal) of carbon monoxide present and members should make complete use of SCBA in any atmosphere that is in excess of ___ ppm of CO

35

*readings of 5 ppm or less may be reoccupied

356

204.06 Spanning/calibration is done on each instrument before entering contaminated atmospheres and after...

each use

357

204.06 The Control Log will be used to document regular calibration and spanning being done prior to the use of the instruments. All completed logs will be forwarded to the Special Teams Captain for record keeping. Calibration of instruments shall be on a ____ basis

monthly

358

204.07 Members that encounter a suspected laboratory should withdraw to a safe location as soon as it is possible, using discretion on actions and radio conversation. The Battalion Chief, law enforcement, and the Special Ops Captain, should be notified of the situation. Command/Special Ops should also request ...

Department of Environmental Quality Emergency Response Division ...DEQ

359

204.07 All potentially exposed members of clandestine labs should complete a _______ _____ _______ ____ form along with an Industrial Accident Report

Chemical or Biochemical Exposure

360

204.07 Proper disposal of the hazardous material(s) in a clandestine laboratory is the responsibility of the ___ ______ _____ that is making the seizure

law enforcement agency

361

204.08 The adequate number of trained personnel on scene of a confined space rescue/recovery should be at least...

8 members

362

204.08 Instruments used to monitor confined spaces shall have instrument settings at the following..

- 19.5% and 23.5% for oxygen levels (O2
readings below 12% will affect the
flammability readings)
- 10% of the LEL
- 35 ppm for carbon monoxide
- 10 ppm for hydrogen sulfide

363

204.08 This type of ventilation at confined space rescues may be considered if there is only one entry point...

Negative pressure ventilation

364

204.08 Command shall assign a Rescue Sector to confined space rescue. Rescue Sector shall provide a minimum ____ ratio of personnel outside the confined space to support members inside. This shall include a standby rescue team with a 1:1 ratio to provide immediate assistance to members in the confined space.

2:1

*All rescue member should be trained for confined space rescue

365

204.08 . If entry members at confined space rescue use SCBA, they shall enter no farther than one half the amount of supplied air minus ____lbs

500 lbs

*SABA is recommended breathing apparatus

366

204.08 If explosion proof lighting is not available at confined space rescue, then _____ type lights (glow sticks) must be used by the entry team

cyalume

367

204.09 a trench or excavation shall be defined as any depression, hole, trench or earthen wall, man-made or natural, of a depth or height ____ft or greater.

four ft

*Cave-ins and collapses generally occur because of unstable soil conditions combined with improper or inadequate shoring

368

204.09 the first apparatus on scene of trench rescue should park at least ___ feet from the location of the trench

50

369

204.09 At a trench rescue, command shall establish Level 1 staging at least ___feet from the scene

150

370

204.09 Site control at a trench rescue consists of the following:

• Hot zone extends from 0-50 feet
• Warm zone extends from 50-150 feet
• Cold zone extends from 150-300 feet

371

204.09 Trench rescue traffic control....Block or divert all non-essential traffic at least ___ feet around the scene. Close all major streets within 500 feet of the scene

300ft

372

204.09 Trench rescue crowd control...Remove all non-essential civilian personnel to at least ___ feet from the scene.

300ft

*Remove all non-essential rescue personnel to at least 50 feet from the scene

373

204.09 Shut off non-essential equipment operating within ___ feet of a trench rescue

300ft

374

204.09 When making entry in a trench, approach from ____ ___ if possible and look for fissures or other hazards around trench

Ends only

*if cave in, extend safe boxes towards pt

375

204.09 Ingress and Egress ladders should be no more than ___ft apart or less in a trench

25ft

376

204.10 Mountain/rope rescues are divided into two categories...

Non-technical evacuations are those of less than 40° inclination.

Technical evacuations are considered those from 40º to 90º

377

204.10 TRT response to High angle rescues...

Technical Rescue Team (TRT),
2E, L/LT, Battalion Chief, HazMat, Safety Officer, Special Operations Capt., Command Van, Utility Truck.

378

204.10 Recon Sector should advise Command whether the operation is to be conducted in the rescue or recovery mode. In the rescue mode personnel assigned to Recon Sector will be reassigned to ______ Sector and Recon Sector will be terminated

Treatment

379

204.10 For terrain less than 40º inclination, (non-technical) most first responders have the equipment and training to assist the victim down...A stokes extrication should be conducted with a minimum of __ litter bearers

4

380

204.10 For terrain of greater than ___, the TRT shall be used to conduct the extrication

40º

381

204.10 Evacuations greater than ___, are considered high-angle operations. In any case, a 15:1 safety factor shall be maintained and a double rope technique shall be used

60º

382

204.10 Nylon, low stretch kern mantle gets __% to __% of its strength comes from the core

75% to 85%

*Strength 9000lbs (loses 15% when wet)
**All trt members should use a Class 3 harness

383

204.10 Inspect, rope visually after each use, for damage to sheath, dirt or mildew, and feel for soft spots in rope core, by "running" or pulling the rope between ____ and ____ finger

Thumb and index finger

*Never walk on rope, drop from height, drag on ground

384

204.10 The proper method to clean a rope is to ....

Wash with mild nonchlorine-based detergent and water. Hang loosely and allow to air dry out of direct sunlight

385

204.10 Webbing used for rescue operations has a strength rating of ...

4000lbs

*clean same as rope

386

204.10 Carabiners have the follow strength limits...

Steel 9000lbs

Aluminum 5500lbs

387

204.11 The order of water rescue from low risk to high risk will be:

Talk
Reach
Throw
Row
Go
Helo

388

204.12 If at all possible, rescue teams should attempt to gain access vertically at structural collapse. The ________ breaching of walls should be done only if there is no other means to reach the void space that victims may be trapped in

horizontal

*Horizontal breaching of load bearing walls may precipitate a secondary collapse of the structure

389

204.12 After a victim has been locatedin a collapse, the rescue team should treat that space the victim is located in as a ....

confined space

390

204.12 If heavy equipment operators spot a sign of a deceased victim(s) in a collapse, the _____ and/or other investigative personnel should be notified to handle the removal of the body

Coroner

391

204.13 During a tree rescue, the immediate rescue area should be a radius of ___ft around the tree

50 ft

392

204.13 Tree rescue in order from low risk to high risk should be:

Talk victim into self rescue
Ladder tree w/ground ladders
Climb the tree

393

204.13 When laddering a tree with ground ladders, The first ladder should go under the victim; the second ladder should go _______ and slightly above the victim

along side

394

205.01 Calls for assistance from the public or public agencies outside the City limits, or Automatic Aid response areas will be dispatched as _____ ___ incidents, with BC approval.

mutual aid

395

205.01 A _______ __ __ _____ is a request for the dispatch of additional units necessary to upgrade the response type

balance of an assignment

396

205.01 Companies adding on to an assignment must advise the Dispatcher on what channel?

the assigned Dispatch Channel

397

205.01 MOVE UP...The minimum level of stations to be staffed by move-ups, recalls or Automatic Aid is:

Stations 201, 204, 206, 208, 209, 215, 219, and 220

398

205.01 If Alarm does not receive an acknowledgment within ____ minute, the Dispatcher will request acknowledgment over the radio. Alarm will send a cover company if no reply is received after three attempts...unit will be place OS and Bat notified

one minute

399

205.01 Units arriving at the level 2 staging area will report ______ to the staging officer.

In person

400

205.01 Working Fire incidents will be prompted, by Alarm, for ELAPSED TIME NOTIFICATIONS. The system will generate an initial 10-minute elapsed time notification, and 5 minute notifications thereafter, until the incident is placed _____ _____ by the Incident Commander

Under Control

401

205.01 Alarm will prompt Command at the ___ min. timer if a PAR has not been received

25 min

402

205.01 Sector officers should use ___ __ ___ communications with assigned companies as much as possible

face-to-face

403

205.01 Units can initiate Emergency traffic by one of the two following ways...

Depressing the "E" (emergency) button (F11) on their MCT

Verbally contacting Alarm

404

205.01 If Alarm does not acknowledge (special tone not activated), unit will then establish contact with Command and transmit the emergency message. Command will then re-initiate emergency traffic sequence with Alarm

FYI

405

205.01 At times of extremely heavy radio traffic, All non-incident related radio traffic will be restricted and units will transmit only essential communications. MCT’s will be used for status changes...

Condition 2

*Units are not to switch calls during Condition Two

**Alert tone Condition 2 activation
No tone when off Condition 2

406

205.01 The response code 906 means...

Police are needed urgently

*Alarm will not ask the unit for info for safety of the crew

407

205.02 Administration unit designations for staff vehicles and personnel:

Car 201 FIRE CHIEF
Car 202 Assistant Chief
Car 203 Assistant Chief
Car 204 Assistant Chief
Car 207 Operations Deputy Chief
Car 213 Chaplain

408

205.02 Deputy Chiefs unit designations for staff vehicles and personnel:

PIO 201 Public Information
Battalion 205 Alarm Room
Battalion 206 Personnel
Battalion 207 Training
Battalion 208 EMS
Battalion 209 Tech Services
Battalion 210 Fire Marshall
Battalion 212 Planning

409

205.06a During major incidents where a "Logistics" section is implemented, the ______ Sector will be working under the direction of the Logistics officer

Staging

410

205.06 All Utility trucks will assume Level I staging. If Level II staging has been implemented, Utility trucks will go to the _____ staging location

Level II

411

205.06 With level 1 staging, outside from the 1stE/L/BC responding directly to the scene, all units shall stage in the direction of travel ____ block from incident

One

412

205.06 FREEWAY OPS Traffic cones should be placed farther apart, with the last cone approximately ____ feet "upstream," to allow adequate warning to drivers

150

413

205.07 Apparatus should generally be positioned at least ___ ft. away from involved buildings, even with nothing showing

30

414

205.07b Traffic cones used for cone deployment on mva's shall be ___ inches or taller

28 inches or taller

*carry a hand light in periods of low ligh

415

205.07b When deploying cones, face on-coming traffic, and moves along a linear, safe pathway on the shoulder or median area of street, road, and highway to the _____ _____ location where first device is to be deployed

furthest upstream

* initial deployment point should be approximately 150 feet upstream of the
incident for deployment of the first of five (5) devices

416

205.07b The final device (cone) shall be approximately ___ feet from the rear of the apparatus

30

417

205.07b If a retro-reflective, pink deployable sign is used by the fire department to comply with NFPA ____ Standard, this sign shall be carried in the folded condition upstream an additoin 10 paces from furtherest upstream cone

1500

418

205.08a Approximately __ months prior to the completion of the firefighter’s probationary year, they will be assigned the Initial Engine Driver Operator Certification Credential in Target Solutions

6

419

205.08a . A practical skills evaluation will be scheduled at least ___ days after the successful completion of the probationary period. Current DOC members will receive this assignment at least 90 days prior to expiration of the current Driver/Operator Certification

30

420

205.08a temporary promotion to Captain or Engineer, paramedic training or other specialties, and/or medical conditions will be cause for suspending a candidate’s practical skills evaluation for a period until approximately ___ months after the completion of their temporary promotion

6

421

205.08a DOC certification requirements are based on NFPA ____, Standard for Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications, 2014 Edition

1002

422

205.08a Retest (Engine Driver/Operator certification/re-certification applicants may retake any portion of the exam a maximum of _____

two (2) times).

*Retesting will occur no sooner than sixty (60) days after the original test date

423

205.08a When responding Code three*, fire department vehicles must meet the A.R.S., ____ __ definition of an Authorized Emergency Vehicle

Article 28

*• At least one lighted red or red and blue light or lens visible under normal atmospheric conditions from a distance of 500 feet to the front of the vehicle

• An operating audible signal; bell, siren, or exhaust whistle

• Additionally, the Mesa Fire Department requires the Opticom emitter to be operating and the headlights to be turned on

424

205.08a driver/operators may be exempt from traffic regulations as long as:

A. Due regard for the safety of others is shown
B. Emergency warning lights are functioning

425

205.08 Emergency response (Code 3) does not absolve the driver of any responsibility to drive with ....

due caution

426

205.08 Fire Department vehicles are authorized to exceed the posted speed limit only when responding Code 3 under favorable conditions. This applies only with ....

Light traffic
good roads
good visibility
dry pavement

427

205.08 When apparatus must ravel in center or oncoming lanes, the maximum permissible speed of the apparatus shall be 10 mph under the posted speed limit and a maximum of 20 mph within ___ feet of a four-way intersection.

100

428

205.08 When emergency vehicles must use center or oncoming traffic lanes to approach controlled intersections, (traffic light or stop sign) they must come to a _____ ____ before proceeding through the intersection, including occasions when the emergency vehicle has green traffic lights

complete stop

429

205.08 The backer should account for “_____ ___” when advising the driver to stop. Allow at least a foot of stopping distance

brake lag

430

205.12 _____ ____ is defined as any type of situation, which places a Fire Department member in fear for his/her life/limb as a result of an act of another. (Firefighter down, hostage, assault with a deadly weapon, etc.)

Imminent peril

431

205.12 The first arriving unit should either stage in quarters until the scene is secured (if within ___ blocks of your fire station), and reported as such by the Alarm Room, or proceed with caution as they respond

two (2)

432

205.12 Should the ______ button on the MCT be used, Alarm will query the unit verbally for a “code 4 check?”. The Company Officer/member must respond as follows: “Unit designation, is code 4, apparatus vehicle number (25_ _)”.

Emergency

433

205.12 In situations where the unit/member wants Alarm to monitor their status, (VI, hazardous situations, etc), the unit/member may request, “code 4 checks” every __ minutes. The member requesting must give their location and his/her ___ _____ ___ _____ to Alarm. Alarm will then start the timer. Alarm will ask verbally for a “code 4 check”, and the member must respond; “unit designation, is code 4, member ID number _ _ _ _ _”). Any other statement, or lack of communication, will cause Alarm to assume the unit/member is in a violent situation, or imminent peril, and PD will be sent code 3

city employee ID number

434

205.13 Airport response...it shall be the responsibility of the responding personnel to insure that emergency vehicles remain clear of the runway and taxiway, until clearance has been obtained from the control tower by radio or ....

green light gun signal

435

205.13 The Control Tower uses signals that supplements radios and provides on-site airport communications. The signals are:

1. Flashing red light gun signals: Remain
off or proceed off the runway
immediately

2. Run lights flashing on and off: same of
above

3. Flashing green light gun signal: Cleared
to move onto, or cross, the runway area

436

205.13 TRUE OR FALSE It shall NOT be the responsibility of the Fire Department to move, in any way, any damaged or disabled aircraft except for purpose of saving life or property

True

437

205.13 The runway shall be closed or restricted, except to emergency operations, while a disabled aircraft is within ___ feet of the runway along its entire length

100

438

205.13 Standby positions for inflight aircraft emergency...Provide for the safety of fire personnel or apparatus. Positions are to be approximately ___ feet from the edge of the runway for large aircraft and approximately 300 feet for smaller aircraft.

400 ft for large aircraft

439

205.13 Normal landing distances for aircraft using airports vary from 1,200 feet to 6,000 feet. Emergency landing for larger aircraft or jets may exceed 10,000 (hydraulic failure or hot brakes). When possible the last one-third (1/3) of the landing roll-out should be covered by dividing the equipment into two teams. One team is to be positioned at approximately the __________ point of the landing roll-out and the second team at the end

two-thirds (2/3)

440

205.13 Personnel will be safe if they stay at least ___ft away from the front of a jet engine

30

441

205.13 When responding to a hot brake incident or wheel fire, approach the wheel with extreme caution from the front or back direction, _____ from the side in line with the axle

NEVER

442

205.13 The brake linings of some aircraft contain _____, which produces toxic fumes, smoke, and exposure may cause cancer

beryllium

443

205.15 Freeway response...Units responding to calls on the freeway will respond with____ ___ __ (rear blinking signal light - front yellow signal lights). Code 3 lights are not recommended, but may be used, if deemed necessary by the Captain

hazard lights on

444

205.15 Units should proceed in the opposite direction to normal traffic flow ONLY at the specific request of ______, when it is assured that all traffic has been stopped

DPS or Police

445

205.15 As with all emergency calls, command will be established when ___ or more units are spending

3

446

205.20 when electrical lines are down, a danger could be indicated by a tingling sensation in the feet as a warning to back away...this in known as

Step potential

447

205.20 Use caution when spraying water on or around energized electrical equipment. Hose streams conduct current! Never spray directly into the power lines. Use a _______ at the base of the pole with short bursts of water.

fog spray

448

205.20 If occupants must leave the vehicle (fire or other threat to life) instruct them to open the door, not step-out! They should jump free of the vehicle without touching vehicle and ground at the same time; they should walk away from the vehicle with very small steps

FYI

449

205.20 Do not make any fire attack on a power pole until the utility representative has verified that the electrical equipment has been ______

de-energized

450

205.21 Bike Teams D.I.R.T stands for

Desert Intervention Rescue Team

451

206.01 Scene securtiy...Spot the vehicle approximately ___ feet past the residence or ___ feet before. This will allow us to approach the scene from a safe position

100
100

452

206.01 Scene security...approaching a building

• Do not slam door of apparatus or vehicle.
• Keep volume low on radio.
• Gain information before entering house.
• Look and listen before entering house.
• Listen for arguments or fights

453

206.01 Scene security...appartment building

• Keep the elevator door on manual so it will remain open.
• Check stairwell doors to make sure they are unlocked to provide an escape route.
• Contact and control:
• The contact stands on the doorknob side of the door with or without screen door. This will require the person opening the door to open it wide to see you.
• NEVER STAND DIRECTLY IN FRONT OF THE DOOR

454

206.01 Scene security...Spotting the apparatus and approaching a vehicle:

• Park unit to the rear of the vehicle (a full length from vehicle).
• Slight angle to driver’s side protection barrier from traffic.
• Use safety cones where necessary.
• Use safety vests.

455

206.03 A "less experienced" firefighter is defined as:

A. Probationary firefighter.

B. Any member with less than two years total experience assigned to firefighting duties

456

206.03 It will be the responsibility of the Company Officer to determine the experience level of all
fire fighters assigned to his/her company through the following methods

Interview
Evaluate
Train
Follow up

457

206.04 Heavy objects should ideally be stored at approximately _____ level to prevent unnecessary lifting

waist

458

206.04 Fire station apparatus bay doors will be closed no later than ....

dusk

459

206.06 The Captain will conduct
PPE review for each firefighter assigned to the crew on the first _______ of their Saturday set (six week cycle) which is identified on the MFMD calendar

Saturday

460

206.06 As promotions occur, one previous rank helmet may be purchased if greater than ___ years of age from the manufactured date at a cost of $25.00

5

461

206.06 Newer helmets will be _____ for purchase on a straight-line depreciation formula (Purchase price – Salvage value at time of resale / years of useful life

pro-rated

462

206.06 Helmets should be cleaned with hot tap water and mild (household) detergent. Additional cleaning materials, which can be used to remove stubborn dirt and smoke stains, are:

Isopropyl alcohol (rubbing alcohol)
Windex (regular - NOT ammoniated) dishwashing detergent

463

206.06 Turnout Inspection/Cleaning/Repair
This procedure meets the NFPA ____ national standard for turnout inspection, cleaning and repair.

1851

464

206.06 Contaminated turnouts will be bagged in large clear ____ bags and placed n clear bag with PPE repair form facing out. Contact BSO202 for pickup

blue

465

206.06 Structural fire fighting boot vouchers are limited to...

$300

466

206.06 Lost or stolen PPE needing replacement require a forwarded email from the member’s supervisor to the Fire Resource Program Assistant in charge of vouchers

FYI

467

206.07 Each Accountability Day, MFMD Company Officers will be responsible for the verification of the Knox Keys on their assigned apparatus..Complete the Knox Key Verification form after utilizing the Master Knox Key Inventory list to verify correct key numbers and submit. This forwards to the Battalion ___BC aide

203

468

206.07 Annually, __________ will be responsible for checking accountability with regional partner agencies and individuals assigned Mesa Knox keys

Investigator 201

469

206.14 Fire Department notification from the public concerning aggressive bees will be made either through the 9-1-1 system or through the public information number at ____ ______.

Fire Prevention

*Fire Prevention will maintain a log of all aggressive bee calls made to the Fire Prevention Division

470

206.14 Aggressive bee calls to fire stations will be referred to ____ ______ unless the reporting party states that someone has been attacked or is being attacked by bees

Fire Prevention

*Sting(s) – patient in distress – Med.
Sting(s) – patient not in distress – Med 2

471

206.14 Units responding to bee incidents will stage a safe distance (approximately 1/4 mile) away from the swarm to allow rescue personnel to properly prepare their protective equipment. The unit will then proceed to the immediate scene, position upwind if possible, approximately ___ feet away from the swarm, hive, or attack victim

150

472

206.14 If the victim is down or under attack by a bee swarm, rescue personnel will use the 1-1/2" hose line, pumped with a ________________. A wide fog pattern will be used to kill the swarm and rinse off the victim and protect rescuers while the victim is being removed to a safe refuge area

3% solution of A.F.F.F

*A.F.F.F. or any other soap solution will rapidly kill the bees

473

206.14 Scrape remaining stingers and venom sacks off of the victim using a ____ _____ _____, such as a credit card. Do not use tweezers to remove stingers and/or venom sacks

straight edged object

474

206.14 Medical bee responses will be Final Type 32; non-medical bee responses will be Final Type ...

50

475

206.14 Bee Calls on city property...During regular business hours contact _____ ______ and they will make the necessary arrangements for removal. In the case of calls after business hours, on weekends, holidays, or for any other reason, then the Company Officer needs to make arrangements through Alarm

Resource Management

*non threatening bees on private property will be told to contact a bee removal company

476

206.14 Bees in enclosed spaces can only be destroyed by the use of ...

pesticides

477

206.14 Bees are responsible for pollinating ___ of the food consumed in the United States.

1/3

478

206.21 Light rail vehicle info...

• 90 feet long 12 feet high 8.5 feet wide with a Cab at each end
• 103,000 lbs. empty with 200 person max capacity
• Normal max operating speed 35 mph, and up to 55 mph during high speed testing...
• Approximately 190 foot stopping distance at 35 mph

479

206.21 Track Switch Locations...

• Tracks that move without warning
• Exert 1200 lbs. of force (Will crush your foot if standing in switch location)

480

206.21 Traction Power Substations (TPSS)

• Approximately every mile (see map in appendix)
• Emergency Trip Switch (ETS) (located outside the door in Knox box)
• What’s inside: electrical gear and Ni-cad batteries
• Electricity AC 12000-21000 volts in, and 650-950 volts DC out

481

206.21 Overhead Contact System OCS (the overhead wires)

• 750-950 DC
• 2000-6000 AMPs (Taser is .00021 amps 50k volts) AMPS KILL
• Wires are tensioned at 5,000 lbs. top wire, and 3000 lbs. bottom wire

*Pantograph is mechanical arm that connects LRV to overhead wires

482

206.21 When LRV’s derail, the operator can usually lower the ________ and therefore eliminate the electrocution risk from the OCS

pantograph

483

206.21 If the LRV is derailed and the pantograph is still in contact with the OCS, or if the OCS has been compromised and is damaged and lines are down then crews should not approach the LRV or track. The OCS needs to be...

de-energized and the company officer should assign another company (or do it themselves if in close proximity) to push the emergency trip switch (ETS) at the closet TPSS (requires Knox key

*this shuts down incoming AC power and outgoing DC power

484

206.21 Crews should wait to approach the LRV, and also advise passengers to wait inside the LRV, until power has been confirmed to be dead by a ____ _____

Metro supervisor

485

206.21 LRV’s are extremely heavy and unstable when lifting and this should be ....

a last resort

486

206.21 The easiest access on a LRV is the _____, windows are extremely hard to break

doors

487

206.21 OSHA requires any apparatus, ladders, or other equipment to maintain a ____ foot buffer from ungrounded electrical sources such as the OCS.

ten (10)

488

209.00 NP's and PA's that work on the CM medical units are referred to as ...

Advanced Practice Providers (APP)

489

209.00 When the CM unit responds code 3 along with an ALS unit, the _____ will drive the CM

Captain

490

209.01 CM behavioral...ACT: Assertive Community Treatment is

Highest level of outpatient support for SMI patients to maintain the most independent level of living environment possible

491

209.01 behavioral...General Mental Health is

A classification of diagnoses that is not seriously mentally ill; these diagnoses are not so severe that people cannot function without intense services and medication(s)

492

209.01 CM behavioral...SMI: Seriously Ill

term that describes a level of care determination for a diagnosis that can be disabling and requires intense behavioral health services and medications

493

209.01 CM Behavioral....UPC: Urgent Psychiatric Care-

Urgent Psychiatric Care is a facility that provides behavioral health care support to those in crisis for no more than 23 hours, after which they are admitted, referred to another inpatient facility, or referred to an outpatient service provider

494

209.01 Involuntary patients requiring a petition to be done with either be transport by ambo to ER or by....

MPD to UPC or RRC for involuntary petition

495

209.01 _____ _____ _____ is part of the application for emergency admission for evaluation

Arizona Revised Statute 36-524

496

209.01 The application for emergency admission shall be made by a person with knowledge of the facts requiring emergency admission. The applicant may be a

Relative or friend of the person
a peace officer
the admitting officer
another responsible person.

497

209.01 CM behavioral...A telephonic application may be made no more than ______ hours prior to a written application. A telephonic application shall be made by or in the presence of a peace officer unless the application is made by a health care provider

twenty-four

498

209.02 CM leave policy...Members that work a holiday will have ___work day added to their PTO leave bank. Members will receive one Personal Day of leave each year.

one

499

209.02 CM leave policy...Time Trades between day staff and shift personnel will require approval of the

Operations Deputy Chief or designee

500

209.02 CM leave policy...Cancellation of an MTO/PTO request must be submitted by email to the ODC or designee ___ days in advance of requested date

7