Spec Flashcards
1
Q
What is RAPID R? (MASP)
A
R - Manage System Resources
A - Produces Acoustics Data Display
P - Acoustic Signal Processing
I - Manages Operator Machine Interface OMI
D - Manages Diagnostics
R - Recorder (EADR)
2
Q
What is DRAAMS? (MASR)
A
D - Demodulation of signal
R - Radio Frequency Interference Mitigation - RFI
A - Analog to digital conversion
A - Acoustic Test Signal Generation - ATSG
M - Measures Signal Strength
S - Sonobuoy Positioning System - SPS
3
Q
What is Pre-Whitening?
A
A form of normalisation. Progressive attenuation of low frequencies.
4
Q
What is the QEP?
A
Quad External Pre-Amplifier.
Amplifies sonobuoy signal as soon as it enters the A/C.
5
Q
What are the factors affecting detection?
A
Resolution
Normalisation
Integration
6
Q
What is the cell layout for Narrowband Boxcar?
A
64, 3, 64
7
Q
What is the cell layout for Broadband Boxcar?
A
64, 55, 64
8
Q
What is the MAS?
A
Mission Acoustic Subsystem
9
Q
What are the MAS components in order?
A
Blade antenna set
QEP (Amplifier)
MASR (Receiver)
MASP (Processor)
EADR (Recorder)
10
Q
What is QEP?
A
Quad External Pre-Amplifier
11
Q
What is MASR?
A
Mission Acoustics Subsystem Receiver
12
Q
What is MASP?
A
Mission Acoustics Subsystem Processor
13
Q
What is EADR and what is its function?
A
Embedded Acoustics Data Recorder
1) 2 Chanel ICS recording
2) record/replay 64 channels of acoustic data
14
Q
By how much does the QEP amplify by? (dBs)
A
36dB +/- 2dB
15
Q
What are the types of built in test?
A
Initiated
Power On
Continuous
16
Q
What are the display types?
A
Active
Passive
Environmental
Multi-static
17
Q
What is the acronym for the MASP?
A
RAPIDR
18
Q
What is the acronym for the MASR
A
DRAAMS
19
Q
What are the two types of RFI mitigation? (Radio Frequency Interference)
A
Spacial & spectral
20
Q
What is ATSG?
A
Acoustic Test Signal Generation
21
Q
What are the modes of DIFAR
A
CSO - Constant shallow OMNI (45ft)
CO - Calibrated OMNI
XCO - Extended calibrated OMNI
DIFAR
22
Q
What is range gate blanking?
A
DICASS can’t receive echoes during transmit, so if the SM is inside the half pulse length @ 1 sec I.E 833yds this won’t be seen
23
Q
What is the generally accepted figure for acoustic velocity? (Speed of sound in ft or yrd’s not M)
A
5000ft/sec or 1667 yds/sec
24
Q
What distance does a 1 second continuous wave (CW) cover?
A
1667 yards
25
What are the Dicass ping Modes?
CW - Continous wave
FM - Frequency modulated
26
What are the continuous wave lengths in terms of time?
0.1/0.5/1 second
27
What does EFS stand for?
Electronic function select
28
What does CFS stand for?
Command function select
29
What DIFAR channels are not available and why?
57 & 58 are harmonics of the comms/ICS freq 291.4
30
What are the properties of the DIFAR Bouy?
SSQ-53G
Size A
9.5kg
0.5/1/2/4/8 hours
90/200/400/1000ft depth
1W RF power output
Channels 1-99 excluding 57&58
0-370kts
40-30,000ft
AGC (off/slow/fast)
31
What is significant about a longer CW?
The longer the pulse the greater the range but the worse the resolution and reverberation
32
What type of target is FM better for tracking?
Slow moving masked by reverberation
33
What RF channels may cause interference with GPS receiver?
49-52 & 88-90
34
What are the properties of a DICASS buoy?
SSQ-62 F
A Size
15.9kg
1 hour/50 ping seconds
D1: 50/150/300ft
D2: 90/400/1500ft
1W RF Power output
Channels 1-99 except 57/58
0-370kts and 40-30,000 ft
35
What is the definition of integration?
The addition of signal power in a spectrum of frequency cells over a period of time
36
What are the sonic frequencies?
A - 6.5khz - 199dB
B - 7.5khz - 200dB
C - 8.5khz - 201dB
D - 9.5khz - 201dB
37
What does DICASS give the operator? IN CORRECT ORDER
Bearing
Range
Doppler Velocity
38
What are the 4 types of display?
Environmental
Active
Passive
Multi-static (not used)
39
What are the 5 DIFAR channels?
Pilot
Phase reference
OMNI
North/South
East/West
40
What is Normalisation?
The process of enhancing weak spectral lines above uniform background data.
Or
The kits ability to enhance a frequency line above background noise
41
What are the properties of a bathybuoy
SSQ-36B
A size
7.3kg
5ft sec sink rate
2625ft/800m depth
Chn 1-99
12 min life/9 to depth
0.25W RF output
0-370kts IAS
40-30,000ft
Temp range -2.2 - +35 deg C
42
What is the official name for the MAS?
AQ2
or AN/AQQ-2(V)1
43
What frequency allows comms with a sonobouy?
291.4mhz
44
What do the different colours chicklets mean?
White - Parametric (software transition)
Black - No power
Grey - No response
Cyan - IBIT
Green - Serviceable
Yellow - Degraded
Red - Error/failed
45
What are the Kilo codes
A - Fully mission capable
B - Minor system degradation
C - Major system degradation
D. Not mission capable
46
What does a magenta line around the grams mean?
It has been frozen by the operator
47
What are the 3 factors affecting SOS in water and what are the associated figures
T - Temperature = 6ft/s per °C
S - Salinity = 4.6ft/s per PPT
P - Pressure = 1.6ft/s per 100ft
48
What is the definition of the sonic layer depth?
The depth of the first maximum sound speed nearest the surface.
49
What is the drift rate for a sonobuoy with long cable? (1000ft)
5% of wind speed
50
What is the drift rate for a sonobuoy with a short cable? (90-400ft)
10% of wind speed
51
What is the fixed rate of salinity in AQ2v
35ppt @39° @sea level 4800ft/sec
52
What are the 3 types of prop loss
Cylindrical -3dB
Spherical -6dB
Dipolar -12dB
53
How many data points in Wilson’s algorithm?
640
54
How many data points are in CML Algorithm?
(Chen/mellor/Li)
30
55
What is the depth/frequency spectrum of CSO and what is it used for?
45ft
30-5000hz
To exploit Aco data above SLD. DIFAR/Co are inhibited
56
What is the frequency spectrum of CO/XCO?
CO - 5-20k hz
XCO - 5-40k hz
CSO/DIFAR inhibited during use. Used primarily for ACINT Data collection
57
What is the frequency spectrum of DIFAR?
5-2560hz
5 hydrophones (NS/EW/OMNI) + pilot 7.5khz and phase ref 15khz
58
What is the figure for RD (recognition differential)
Minus 6.5db
(becomes a plus in FOM calc)
59
What are the door operating limitations?
Damage/injury may occur if the door is
A) operated in winds >40kts
B) left open in winds >65kts
60
How many fire extinguishers are there?
6
61
How many portable oxygen masks are there?
5 (9 point check)
62
What is the nominal oxygen system pressure?
1850psi
63
Where is the flight deck oxgen bottle system?
Electrical Equipment compartment (EEC)
64
What is the Max POB?
21 (RAF certified)
65
What is the figure in dB’s for DI? (Directivity index)
5.5dB
66
How do you reset a Lloyds mirror CPA?
Orange dot/circle top left
67
What derives the position of the aircraft
MASP
68
What is the FOM EQUATION
FOM = SL-AN-RD = MDR
69
What is left after the carrier wave is stripped in the the receiver?
Multiplexed data
70
What is a SUS and how many codes are there/DB level/life?
Signal underwater sound
Mk84
160db
70 seconds
5 codes
71
How many safety pins are there?
8 +1 inside doors
3 x landing gear
2 x reverse thrust
1 x nose wheel
1 x weapons bay
1 x counter measure
72
How many external safety lights are there?
6
73
What are the standoff distances for RADAR?
HERP - 169ft
HERF - 95ft
HERO - 302/348ft
(Hazard of electromagnetic radiation to Pers/fuel/ordnance)
74
What 3 racks have equipment still active after the rack cut off switch has been appplied?
E810 - V/UHF1
E860 - ESM chiller
E870 - radar fan
75
How do you secure power (turn off) to V/UHF1 if SPDS is in fail safe mode
Pull COMMUNICATIONS V/UHF RT1 BAT CB (P18-2:D12)
76
What is the ECS and what is is for
Environmental conditioning system - provides cooling to mission equipment
77
If SPDS is in fail safe mode what will not work?
Rack cut off switches
78
What is AFACS
Avionics forced air cooling system
79
What are the HERP/HERF/HERO ranges for RADAR?
HERP 169ft
HERF 95ft
HERO 302ft
80
What are the HERP/HERF/HERO ranges for HF?
HERP 17ft
HERF 98ft
HERO 285ft
81
What are the HERP/HERF/HERO ranges for IFFI?
HERP 4.5ft
HERF 1.2ft
HERO 20ft
82
What temperature must the cabin not exceed with mission power applied?
100 degrees F
83
If the cabin temp exceeds 100 degrees F what must be done?
Turn off power to mission systems to allow temperature to drop below 97 degree F
84
The AFACS alarm sounds, what is the probable cause?
1) Low airflow in ECS draw-thru
2) ESM chiller failure
85
With regard to the AFACS alarm, what temperature should the aft cabin not exceed before beginning decreasing mission systems load to avoid damage?
80 degrees F
86
What does an E2E test do?
Sends signal from MASP to MASRS to simulate a passive contact transmitting 10 freqs. Compares 5/10 against list of expected signals
87
What are the EO/IR operating limits?
29,000ft
300kts
-53degrees C — +55 degrees C
Prohibited in icing conditions
88
What are the three frequencies broadcast in the EPLB?
121.5mhz
243mhz
406mhz
89
What 3 ways can you secure power to the QEP?
1) SSPC’s via SPDS
2) cut off switch for E840 - this method also secured power to MASRS in E860
3) cut off switch for E860 - this method secures power to the whole MAS (QEP/MASRS/MASP)
90
What are the SFMT colour states? (Line quality indicator under vernier)
Red - tracking
Purple - pending
Yellow - non contributing
Orange - dead reckon
91
On fr85 what colour are system verniers and user verniers respectively?
Green = system verniers
Gold = user verniers
92
On fr85 what colour are system verniers and user verniers respectively?
Green = system verniers
Gold = user verniers
93
What does LTI processing provide data for?
ALI and BFI
94
What is the timeframe in which pers are not to consume alcohol before flying?
10 hours & minimised in the 24 hours beforehand
95
What is the max crew duty time for 1 day?
16 hours (0500-1459)
14 hours (1500-0459)
Can be extended by 1hr by aircraft commander via DDH
96
What is the CRP? (Crew rest period)
Time between two periods of CDT in which 8 hours is allowed for uninterrupted sleep
97
Crew duty periods can be extended by how much?
Sqn Cdr - up to 2 hours
DDH - up to 3 hours
AOC - over 3 hours
98
When are PME’s valid until?
No later than the last day of the month in which the next PME is due
99
How long before you can fly after a general/local anaesthetic?
7 days general
12 hours local
100
How long before you can fly after donating blood?
36 hours
(or as directed by a MAME (Mil aeromed examiner)
101
How long before you can fly after exposure to CS?
12 hours
102
When are dental and CR cx valid until?
Until the day of expiration
103
What are the three LEDS/switches on the front of the processor
LEDS -
Over temp - sensors at back are high temp
Fan fail -
BIST - indicates processor has passed self check
Power switch (serves as CB)
Guarded ‘FLASH ERASE’
104
What does ALI provide?
Frequency vs signal amplitude
(Skyscrapers)
105
What does BFI provide?
Frequency vs bearing
106
What does BTH provide?
Bearing vs time
107
What are the memeroy items for APU fire?
Inside - pull, rotate to the left or right until BOTTLE DISCHARGE illuminates, APU switch to off
Outside - starboard wheels well. Pull handle down, flick switch to left and leave
Automatically goes off after 11 seconds
108
What are the memory items for Smoke, fire or fumes?
1) Alert crew, execute firefighting duties
2) Don oxygen, regulators 100% as required
109
What will selection of the buoy proximity sort (BUOY PROX SORT) achieve?
Sorts ADD sonobuoy objects according to their proximity to a designated geographic point on the TSD
110
How many Acoustic Operators can the MAS accommodate?
3
111
If a venting sonobuoy is located in an SRL or SSL, what should the crew do?
Launch all buoys in the affected SRL or SSL. (Follow yellow cards)
112
Forward fire-fighting duties for ACO1 include moving to the vicinity or the forward cabin control panel, turn on the emergency exit lights (as required) and set the entry and ceiling forward cabin lighting to what?
Bright
113
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A FUNCTION OF THE MAS?
A. VHF signal reception
B. Signal splitting
C. RF signal conditioning
ANS B Signal splitting
114
What is the role of the QEP?
Provides incoming RF conditioning and amplification (+36db +\-2)
115
Where is the ATSG embedded?
MASRS
116
Can Recording and Replay of the EADR be performed concurrently?
No
117
How many blade antenna are in the MASRS antenna array?
4 - underside of aircraft
118
List 2 functions of the EADR
Two channel ICS Recording
Recording and Replay of up to 64 channels 8hrs
Zeroise capability from rack E810 or via the guarded switch on the MASP
AOFP for Acoustics
119
How many SSQ-62 buoys can the MAS process?
64
120
How many minutes of passive data does one EADR Hard drive store for recall on the ADDs?
60 mins
121
List 3 ways of securing power to the QEP.
MASRS SSPC LSK (SPDS CDU)
Cut off switch at E840 or E860
122
Which antenna is the preferred path for downlink commands?
VUHF1 (Lower)
123
If you notice a venting sonobuoy, what actions would you take?
Alert crew, avoid area
124
Data from how many sonobuoys may be used to feed the SFMT algorithm?
And what is the minimum
8 max
Min 2 with 3 bits of info
125
What inputs does the AOB require for calculation?
F0 and speed
126
How many beams of DIFAR PROCESSING are performed concurrently?
5
127
How many BT SVP display can be displayed at once?
3
128
Where are DOWNLINK command created before being sent to the CFS TD?
MASP
129
What is the indication that DIFAR has lost lock or lock not achieved?
RED line on the RHS of the gram
130
Which button on the Common Area PEP resets the data the most current time?
SCROLL RESET
131
How many concurrent processed resolutions are available on the mainband?
3
132
What does ANR perform for DIFAR and DICASS?
Allows suppression of unwanted noise and focuses on target related sounds.
133
What is the frequency response of the CSO Hydrophone?
30hz - 5khz
134
What does the colour status of RED on the SMT indicate?
Tracking (in use)
135
What does the colour status of ORANGE on the SMT indicate?
DR
136
What does a BLUE line tracker marker indicate?
Contact Criteria Frequency
137
What does tuning a sonobuoy mean?
Selecting data from that sonobuoy for processing
138
What is the Buoy colour code for a local, tuned buoy?
White
139
What is the Buoy colour code for a local, non-tuned buoy?
Green
140
What is the Buoy colour code for a local, degraded or life expired buoy?
Yellow
141
What is the buoy letter identifier for DIFAR, DICASS and Bathy?
D, S and BT respectively
142
How many data points are required to generate an SFMT target tracker?
3
143
What is the minimum number of passive buoys required to generate an SMT target tracker if nearing information is available from at least one buoy?
2
144
How many buoys can be to sent to the MAS for processing?
64
145
What integration time does the colour bearing LTI use?
The same as selected in the LTI menu
146
What are the advantages of using NULL STEER beam in the direction of a non target course?
To increase the target processing SNR
147
Where is the BTH display created from?
BFI
148
What %of lost comms will result in SPDS fail safe
40%
149
What are symptoms/precursors of SDPS fail safe?
Loss of radar heartbeat
Slow TOMS
AUX FUEL transfer caption on FD
150
When will emergency lights come on?
DC 1 BUS failure
151
How many people are required for destruction duties?
6
152
How noisy does it get on board generally?
85db
153
What does active anti collision lights indicate?
Engines are running
154
What is the accuracy of COSPASARAAT without GPS?
1.1nm
155
What are the cx carried out at cond3?
ICS (done while reporting equipment stat)
EQUIPMENT STAT
ALERTS
CLEAR ALERTS
156
How long does it take MCDS to boot?
18 mins
157
What are the types of SSPC failures/trips?
Unacknowledged (at top)
Acknowledge
158
What overrides all ICS channels?
All call
159
How many SSPCS’s can be shown on SPDS?
24
4 x 6 pages
160
What is the capacity of the portable O2 bottles?
22 cubic ft
161
Where is the best place for PAX to be seated and why?
6 pack - as far forward as possible with harness and facing backwards
162
Who is responsible for sending a mayday message
COTAC/Pilot monitoring but anyone can
163
In what positions can UNIPAC be loaded
6&8
164
What is the oxygen setting for crew suffering from hypoxia
100%
165
What indications are there on the flight deck of a rack alarm?
Non
166
How many passes are carried out during fire fighting before a decision is made?
Up to 3 passes when carrying out firefighting duties.
167
When do don oxygen lights illuminate and what audible que do you get?
When the cabin alt is 10k+
Or as initiated by flight deck
signs activate with 3 hi/lo chimes + bitchin betty
168
How do you change the MAP layout?
In the comms pep
169
How many fixed oxygen systems are there on board?
2
170
Define a SPDS fail safe
Reset prompt on SPDS CDU.
171
How many times can SSPC’s be reset before lock out?
2
172
How many life vests are on board for PAX?
12
173
What are definitions of warning, caution and notes?
Warning - Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition etc, that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed.
Caution - Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition etc, that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.
Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition etc, that must be emphasised.
174
How many fixed oxygen systems have comms
13
175
When do you don a life preserver?
Under 1000ft, Condition 1, when directed
176
Who’s responsible for aft first aid kit?
Jez 2 (workspace 7)
177
Where are P103 and P104 located ?
Inside E101 (Port) and E102 (Starboard) respectively
178
On what 6 occasions sill the APU shut down
Overspeed, high oil temp, low oil pressure, fire, no fuel, EGT exceeded
179
How many hydrophones are there on DIFAR
5
180
Average TPK for medium merchant vessels
12
181
Frequency predominance of
B&S
2s/c
4s/c
0-70hz
70-150hz
150hz +
182
What is the channel bandwidth of SSQ53G
135-173.5mhz with 375hz spacing
183
How long should you wait before securing power to ECS draw thru after mission power down?
10 mins
184
What is the formula used to calculate range?
Range = speed x time (cpa time in mins) x 17i.e
10knots x 6min cpa (in and out) x 17 = 1020yds
185
Define SCA
Sound channel Access - Occurs at the depth of the minimum sound velocity
186
What does a red line indicate at the bottom/right side of the gram (active/passive)
And what does the height indicate
Lost lock/no lock on the pilot frequency
And indicates to what portion of the gram lock is lost
187
How do you calculate SALT?
Using the chart, +1,000’ to total if lowest safe alt in the area is less than 3000’, +2,000ft if greater than 3000’
188
What is APP-07?
Brevity code words
189
What is the DMCU
Digital master control unit
Brains of EO/IR. Acts as C2 between turret and MCDS
190
What does the balun box do?
Convert video into a usable signal for processing
191
What is the basic signal flow of EOIR
Turret
DMCU
Balun Boxes
MCDS
MCW
