Spinal Q&A Exam 1 Flashcards
(509 cards)
1
Q
What are the four basic tissues of the human body?
A
Epithelial, muscle, neural, and connective tissues
2
Q
What are the three primary cell types of bones?
A
Osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts
3
Q
What is the function of each type of bone cell?
A
Osteoblasts (form), osteocytes (maintain), osteoclasts (remodel)
4
Q
What are the bones cells embedded in?
A
An amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers, and various minerals
5
Q
What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?
A
Glycosaminoglycans
6
Q
What types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in bone?
A
Chondroitin sulfate, keratin sulfate, hyaluronic acid
7
Q
What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?
A
Type I collagen
8
Q
What the primary constituents of the bone mineral?
A
Calcium, phosphate, citrate, carbonate ions
9
Q
What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?
A
Hydroxyapatite
10
Q
Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?
A
Sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium, radium
11
Q
What is Wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?
A
Living tissue will respond to stressors such as anxiety, tension, or pressure; bone is formed or absorbed in response to these same stressors
12
Q
What three responses of “living” bone were stressed in class?
A
(R.A.H.) Remodeling under stressors such as anxiety, stress, or tension; aging; healing
13
Q
Bone is the embryological derivative of which specific connective tissue?
A
Mesenchyme or cartilage
14
Q
What is the name given to the patterns of ossification in mesenchyme?
A
Intramembranous ossification
15
Q
What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?
A
Second to third month in utero
16
Q
What part of the axial skeleton is primarily formed by intramembranous ossification?
A
The skull
17
Q
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?
A
Endochondral ossification
18
Q
What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in the cartilage?
A
Second to fifth months in utero
19
Q
Which skull bones are ossified by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
A
Temporal, occipital, mandible, sphenoid bones
20
Q
Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
A
Clavicle
21
Q
Mature bone is described as being composed of what areas based on bone density?
A
Compact/cortical; spongy/cancellous/trabecular bone
22
Q
What is the name given to the bone below an articulating surface?
A
Subchondral bone
23
Q
What is the name of the outer fiber-cellular covering of bone?
A
Periosteum
24
Q
What is the name given to the fiber-cellular lining of bone?
A
Endosteum
25
What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?
Sexual dimorphism (gender variation); ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation); geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation); idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)
26
Differences in the number of morphology of vertebrae within the population based on male and female variation is identified as which type of variation?
Sexual dimorphism or gender variation
27
Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?
Ontogenetic variation
28
Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity or locational variation is identified as which type of variation?
Geographic variation or population-based variation
29
Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on the uniqueness between individuals is identified as which type of variation?
Idiosyncratic variation
30
What are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?
Long, short, irregular, flat, sesamoid, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones
31
Which classification of bone are characteristic of the appendicular skeleton?
Long, short, sesamoid bones
32
What is the characteristic feature of a long bone?
it is longer than it is across
33
What are the names given to the parts of a long bone?
diaphysis (shaft) and 2 epiphyses
34
What is the primary characteristic of short bones?
cuboidal
35
What are examples of short bones?
most carpus and tarsus
36
What is the characteristic of a sesamoid bone?
bone develops within a tendon
37
What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?
Patella and pisiform
38
Which classifications of bone are characteristic of the axial skeleton?
flat bones, irregular, paranasal sinus/pneumatic bones
39
What are flat bones?
thin layer of spongy bone is sandwiched between two layers of compact bone
40
What are examples of flat bones?
parietal and sternum
41
What is characteristic of irregular bone?
numerous projections or irregular outlines
42
What are examples of irregular bone?
vertebrae and innominate bones
43
What is characteristic of pneumatic bone?
air spaces within the bone
44
What are examples of pneumatic bone?
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid, temporal
45
What bones contain paranasal sinuses?
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid
46
What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in spinal anatomy?
accessory and heterotopic bone
47
What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?
accessory bone
48
What are examples of accessory bone?
para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae
49
What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?
heterotopic bone
50
What are examples of heterotopic bone?
calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart ligaments
51
What are the four basic surface feature categories?
elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways and facets
52
When do the surface features of bone become prominent?
during and after puberty
53
What are the types of osseous elevations?
linear, rounded and sharp
54
What are the types of osseous linear elevation?
the line, ridge and crest
55
What are the types of rounded osseous linear elevations?
tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus
56
What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?
spine and process
57
What are the categories of osseous depressions?
linear and rounded depressions
58
What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?
notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus
59
What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?
the fovea and fossa
60
What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?
ostium or orifice and hiatus
61
What is the definition of an osseous hiatus?
an irregular opening on the surface of bone
62
What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?
foramen or canal
63
What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?
meatus
64
What are the categories of osseous facets?
flat facets and rounded facets
65
What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?
articular heads and articular condyles
66
How many bones form the typical adult skeleton?
206 bones
67
What are the subdivisions of the skeleton?
the axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton
68
How many bones form the typical adult appendicular skeleton?
126 bones
69
How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?
80 bones
70
What bones form the axial skeleton?
skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum, ribs
71
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?
28 bones
72
What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?
cranium
73
What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?
calvaria or calva
74
What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?
neurocranium, facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral cranium) and the auditory ossicles
75
What is the neurocranium?
bones that support or protect brain
76
How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium
8 bones
77
What bones from the neurocranium of the typical adult skull?
frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid
78
How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?
14 bones
79
What is the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral cranium)?
bones that support face or front of head
80
What bones form the facial skeleton?
mandible, vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal concha, palatine, zygomatic
81
By strict definition, what is the splanchnocranium?
bones that support the face minus the mandible
82
What bones form the splanchnocranium?
vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal concha, palatine, zygomatic
83
How many bones comprise the typical adult auditory ossicles?
6 bones
84
How many bones are present in the adult hyoid?
1 bone
85
What is the number of bones comprising each region of the typical adult spinal column or vertebral column?
```
7 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
1 sacrum
1 coccyx
```
86
What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?
spine
87
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?
24 bones
88
What is the definition of "spine" as it pertains to the vertebral column?
the pre-sacral region of the vertebral column or spinal column
89
How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?
1 bone
90
What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?
manubrium sterni, corpus sterni, xiphoid process
91
How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?
12 pair or 24 ribs
92
What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?
33 segments
93
What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?
26 segments
94
What constitutes the spine?
24 presacral segments; cervical, thoracic, lumbar vertebrae
95
How many segments unite to form the typical sacrum?
5 segments
96
How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx?
4 segments
97
What does the term cervical mean?
region of the neck
98
What is the typical number of segments in the cervical region?
7 segments
99
What does the term thoracic refer to?
breast plate or chest; it referred to armor bearing region of the torso
100
What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?
dorsal segments; the dorsals
101
What is the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region?
12 segments
102
What does the term lumbar refer to?
the loin; region between the rib and hip
103
What is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?
5 segments
104
What does the term sacrum refer to?
the holy bone or holy region
105
What does the term coccyx refer to?
a cuckoo birds' bill or cuckoo birds' beak
106
Which region of the spine is more stable in terms of the number of segments/vertebrae?
cervical region
107
What is the length of a typical male spinal column?
70 centimeters (28 inches)
108
What is the length of a typical female spinal column?
60 centimeters (25 inches)
109
What is the difference in length between a typical male and typical female spinal column?
3 inches
110
What is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?
12 centimeters (5 inches)
111
What is the length of the male thoracic region (both measurements)?
28 centimeters (11 inches)
112
What is the length of the male lumbar region (both measurements)?
18 centimeters (7 inches)
113
What is the length of the male sacrum region (both measurements)?
12 centimeters (5 inches)
114
Based on the number for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?
58 centimers (23 inches)
115
How does the vertebral column participate in protection of neural tissues?
the spinal cord and beginning PNS are located within the vertebral segments
116
How does the vertebral column participate in protection of the viscera?
ribs are attached to vertebrae to form the thorax thus protecting the heart and lungs
117
What parts of the body are supported by the vertebral column?
the head, upper extremities, ribs, viscera, and pelvis
118
How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?
ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template
119
What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weigh-bearing transfer?
S1-S3 at the auricular surface
120
Distinguish between motion and locomotion.
motion is movement without travel; locomotion is movement to a new site or location
121
What is specifically responsible for shape and position of the human frame?
comparative anterior vs. posterior height of vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc
122
How does the vertebral column accommodate transmission?
the peripheral nerve communicates with the central nerve system via the intervertebral foramen
123
What organ(s) is (are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?
the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear
124
How is the vertebral column involved in stabilization of visceral function?
integrity of the spinal column enhances appropriate nerve system control of viscera
125
When does gastrulation occur or a 3-layered embryo form?
third week in utero
126
What are the 3 layers of the embryo called?
ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
127
Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?
notochord
128
What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?
paraxial mesoderm
129
What does paraxial mesoderm give rise to that will form the vertebral column?
somites
130
Name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite.
sclerotome, myotome, dermatome
131
What part of the somite will give rise to the vertebral column?
sclerotome
132
List, in order, the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?
membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal, or osseous
133
Migration of sclerotomes to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?
the perichordal blastema
134
The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?
neural processes and costal processes
135
What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichondral blastemae?
intersegmental artery
136
Cell proliferation within the perichordal blastema will result in what features?
a loose cranial sclerotomite and a dense caudal sclerotomite
137
What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?
the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)
138
The intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?
the perichordal disc
139
The perichordal disc in the presumptive location of what adult feature?
intervertebral disc
140
What is the earliest embryonic feature that will identify the position of the adult intervertebral disc?
the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)
141
The union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastemae gives rise to what feature?
vertebral blastema
142
What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?
segmental artery
143
When will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema?
beginning in the 6th embryonic week
144
What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?
chondrification
145
Chondrification is the first identified in which region of the embryonic vertebral column?
cervical region
146
What are the names given to the centers of chondrification within the vertebral blastema?
centrum center, neural arch center, transverse process center
147
How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?
six... 2 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arch, 2 for each transverse process
148
What is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in the cartilaginous vertebra?
during the 7th embryonic week
149
Ossification begins in which region of the embryonic vertebral column?
the lower cervical-upper thoracic region
150
What is the name given to centers of ossification based on time of appearance?
primary centers appear in utero, secondary centers appear after birth
151
What is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
3 primary centers; 5 secondary centers
152
What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
centrum centers and neural arch centers
153
How many primary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra?
3... 1 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arches
154
What is the classification of the joint forming between primary centers of ossification?
cartilage synchondrosis/amphiarthrosis synchondrosis
155
What are the names of the synchondroses forming between primary centers of ossification in the typical vertebra?
neurocentral synchondrosis and neural arch synchondrosis
156
What are the names of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers
157
How many secondary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra?
5... 1 for the tip of each transverse process, 1 for the tip of the spinous process, 1 for each epiphyseal plate
158
What are the names of the synchondroses forming between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra?
tip of the transverse process synchondrosis, tip of the spinous process synchondrosis, and epiphyseal ring synchondrosis
159
What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?
during puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old
160
What are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra?
the vertebral body, vertebral arch, and the apophyseal regions
161
What is formed by the vertebral body and vertebral arch?
the vertebral foramen
162
What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?
cervical - rectangular
thoracic - triangular
lumbar - reniform
163
What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?
superior epiphyseal rim and inferior epiphyseal rim
164
What is the name given to the cartilage found at the superior and inferior surface of a developing vertebral body?
superior epiphyseal plate, inferior epiphyseal plate
165
What are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body?
nutrient foramina or vascular foramina
166
What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?
basivertebral venous foramen
167
What is the name of the vessel entering the nutrient or vascular foramen?
osseous artery
168
What is the name given to the large vessel exiting the bak of the vertebral body?
the basivertebral vein
169
What is the semicircular region of bone attached to the back of the vertebral body called?
the vertebral arch
170
What is the name given to the anterior part of the vertebral arch?
the pedicle
171
What is the name given to the posterior part of the vertebral arch?
the lamina
172
What is the name of the feature located at the upper and lower surfaces of the pedicle?
the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure; the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure
173
What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?
C- posterolateral
T- posterior, slight lateral
L- posterior
174
All lamina are oriented in what direction?
posterior and median
175
What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on x-ray?
shingling
176
What ligament will attach to the lamina?
the ligaments flavum
177
What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligaments flavum?
para-articular process
178
What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?
accessory bone
179
What is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?
C- articular pillar
| T&L- pars interarticularis
180
What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on lateral x-ray?
the spinolaminar junction
181
What is the name given to the tubular bone growth regions of the vertebral arch?
the apophyseal regions
182
What names may be given to each apophysis of the spine?
the transverse apophysis or transverse process; articular apophysis or articular process; spinous apophysis or spinous process
183
What is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?
C - anterolateral
T - posterolateral
L - lateral
184
All non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?
the costal element
185
What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process?
the transverse tubercle
186
What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?
cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward and downward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position.
187
What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?
the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward
188
What will the articular process/articular apophysis support?
the articular facet
189
What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?
the zygapophysis
190
What is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?
the superior articular facet
191
What is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis?
the inferior articular facet
192
What names are given to the part of the vertebra which supports the front of the zygapophysis?
the superior articular apophysis, the superior articular process, or pre-zygapophysis
193
What names are given to the part of a the vertebra which supports the back of the zygapophysis?
the inferior articular apophysis, the inferior articular process, the post-zygapophysis
194
In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygapophysis is called the _____.
pre-zygapophysis
195
in the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the ______.
post-zygapophysis
196
What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the pre-zygapophysis?
the superior articular process or superior articular apophysis
197
What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the post-zygapophysis?
the inferior articular process or inferior articular apophysis
198
What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?
calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane
199
What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on x-ray?
imbrication
200
What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the tip of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?
the spinous tubercle
201
What is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?
C - slight angle inferiorly
T - noticeable angle inferiorly
L - no inferior angle
202
What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligaments flavum
203
What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure
204
What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure
205
What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament
206
What name is given to the opening located within the vertebral body - vertebral arch enclosure?
vertebral foramen
207
The union of all vertebral foramina forms an apparent vertical cylinder called the _____.
the vertebral canal or spinal canal
208
What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?
spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system, and the meninges
209
What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?
C - triangular
T - oval
L - triangular
S - triangular
210
At what vertebral segment will the spinal cord typically terminate?
L1
211
At what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?
L2
212
What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?
vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery
213
What are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?
the deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery
214
What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?
the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery
215
What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?
the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery
216
What are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?
the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery
217
What segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?
C1-C6
218
What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?
C1-C6
219
What segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?
C7-T1
220
What segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?
T1, T2
221
What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?
T3 - T11
222
What segmental levels are supplied by the subcostal artery?
T12
223
What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?
L1-L4
224
What segmental levels are supplied by the median (middle) sacral artery?
L5, S1-S5, and coccyx
225
What segmental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?
L5, S1-S5, and coccyx
226
What segmental levels are supplied by the lateral sacral artery?
L5, S1-S5, and coccyx
227
Which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it?
L5
228
What are the segmental arteries for L5?
iliolumbar artery, median (middle) sacral artery and lateral sacral artery
229
Which branch of the dorsospinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter subarachnoid space?
spinal artery
230
Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?
osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery
231
What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?
anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
232
What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligament flavum?
posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
233
Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?
anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery
234
Which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?
anterior radicular artery
235
Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?
posterior radicular artery
236
Which artery is now said to enlarge and form the medullary feeder artery?
the radicular artery
237
What is the name given to the artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length?
anterior spinal artery
238
The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
vertebral artery
239
Is the anterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord? (Y/N)
no
240
As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?
anterior medullary feeder arteries
241
The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
posterior inferior cerebellar artery
242
What is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?
it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord
243
Is the posterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord? (Y/N)
no
244
As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unit along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?
posterior medullary feeder arteries
245
What forms the arterial vasa corona?
anterior spinal arteries, posterior spinal arteries and communicating arteries
246
What is the generic name given to the arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?
intramedullary arteries
247
What are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?
pial perforating arteries and central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries
248
What artery gives off the vental/central/sulcal perforating arteries?
anterior spinal artery
249
What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?
ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries
250
What intramedullary branches supply about 1/3 of the spinal cord?
pial perforating arteries
251
What is the source for pial perforating arteries?
pial plexus
252
What arteries form the pial plexus?
posterior spinal arteries and the communicating arteries
253
What arteries are responsible for supplementing the arterial casa corona along the cord?
anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders
254
What vessels drain the spinal cord?
pial veins
255
What will pial veins drain into?
venous vasa corona
256
Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?
anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, and communicating veins
257
Which vessels will drain the venous vasa corona?
anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins
258
Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?
anterior radicular veins
259
Which vessels will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve roots?
posterior radicular veins
260
What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?
posterior radicular veins
261
What veins are observed int he epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein
262
What lumens feature of the anterior internal vertebral venous plexus vessels may function like valves of typical veins?
trabeculae
263
What veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligament flavum?
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
264
What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?
intervertebral veins
265
What is the unique features of veins along the spinal canal?
they lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins
266
Identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis).
dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
267
Identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis) and the commonly accepted meaning of each.
dura - tough mother; arachnoid - spider mother; pia - tender or delicate mother
268
What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?
interstitial fluid
269
What are the vascular contents of the epidural space?
anterior and posterior spinal canal artery and plexus, anterior and posterior internal vertebral venous plexus, and basivertebral vein
270
What are the neural contents of the epidural space?
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
271
What ligaments are associated with the epidural space?
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments, ligamentum flavum, posterior longitudinal ligament
272
Which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?
anterior spinal canal artery and plexus, anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein
273
Which of the nerves of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve
274
Which of the ligaments of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?
posterior longitudinal ligament and Hofmann/anterior dura/meningovertebral ligaments
275
Which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?
posterior spinal canal artery and plexus, posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
276
Which of the nerves of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve
277
Which of the ligaments of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?
ligamentum flavum and Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments
278
Which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?
subdural space - between dura and arachnoid mater
279
Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?
anterior spinal canal artery and plexus, anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein, recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve, Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertal ligaments
280
Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?
posterior spinal canal artery and plexus, posterior internal vertebral venous plexus, ligamentum flavum, recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve, Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments
281
What is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space?
serous fluid
282
What is the name given to the fluid with the subarachnoid space?
cerebrospinal fluid
283
What ligaments may be present in the subarachnoid space?
dentate/denticulate ligament
284
What is the name given to the lateral extension of pia mater along the spinal cord?
dentate (denticulate ligament)
285
What is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?
they lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins
286
In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?
transverse
287
What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?
C3-T1, the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement
288
Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?
C6
289
In which plane (or direction) will the diameter of the spinal decrease from C2 down to T1?
midsagittal or anterior-posterior plane
290
What spinal nerves originate from the lumbar (lumbarsacral) enlargement?
L1-S3 spinal nerves
291
What is a generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?
L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra
292
What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?
conus medullaris
293
What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?
typically S4, S5, and Co1
294
In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?
L1
295
What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?
cauda equina
296
What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?
filum terminale internum
297
What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?
typically S2, the dural cul de sac
298
Neural tissue has been identified in what part of the film terminate?
proximal part of the filum terminale internum
299
What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the film terminale internum?
it joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4
300
What does the neural tissue associated with the film terminale internum appear to innervate?
lower limbs and the external anal sphincter
301
The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?
cruciate anastomosis
302
What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?
film terminale externum
303
What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?
coccygeal medullary vestige
304
What is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullar is is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?
tethered cord syndome
305
What is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?
it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord caused by a tethered cord
306
At the intervertebral foramen, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the cervical spine?
in the cervial spine, spinal nerves exit above the segment they are numbered after (C8 nerve is the exception to this rule). C3 nerve exits above C3 or between C2/C3
307
At the intervertebral foramen, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the thoracic and lumbar spine and the sacrum?
in the thoracic and lumbar spine and for the sacrum, spinal nerves exit below the segment they are numbered after (Co1 nerve is the exception to this rule). T6 nerve exits below T6 or between T6/T7
308
What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?
the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple
309
What osseous modification is observed to the front of the anterior arch of C1?
anterior tubercle
310
What is observed on the back of the anterior arch of C1?
fovea dentis
311
What attaches behind the anterior arch of C1?
the lateral mass
312
What is the name of the rounded elevation on the medial aspect of the lateral mass of C1?
tubercle for the transverse atlantal ligament
313
What is identified in the midline at the back of the posterior arch of C1?
the posterior tubercle
314
What superior surface modification of the posterior arch of C1 is present near the lateral mass?
groove/sulcus for the vertebral artery
315
What superior surface modification is present near the posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of C1?
the arcuate rim
316
What attaches to the arcuate rim of the posterior arch of atlas and to the superior articular process of the lateral mass of the atlas?
a complete ponticulus posticus
317
Based on the amount of bony union between the superior articular process and the arcuate rim of C1 what structure will form?
an incomplete ponticulus posticus or a complete ponticulus posticus
318
What names are given to the opening formed by the ponticulus posticus?
arcuate foramen or retroarticular canal
319
What is observed on the undersurface of the posterior arch of C1?
the inferior vertebral notch
320
What is the name given to the anterior part of the transverse process of C1?
costal element
321
What is the name given to the posterior part of the transverse process of C1?
the true transverse process
322
What is the distal most part of the transverse process of C1?
posterior tubercle
323
What unique vertebral body modification is characteristic of C2?
dens or odontoid process
324
What surfaces are present on the odontoid process of C2?
facet for fovea dentis, groove for transverse atlantal ligament, attachment sites for the alar ligaments, attachment site for the apical-dental ligament
325
What feature is identified on the anterior surface of the vertebral body of C2?
longus colli muscle attachment
326
What feature is identified on the anterior surface of the interior epiphyseal rim of C2?
anterior lip
327
What feature is identified on the posterior surface of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?
posterior lip
328
What features are present at the lateral margins of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?
right and left lateral grooves
329
What features arise from the posterolateral margins of the vertebral body of C2?
pedicles
330
What lies on the upper surface of the pedicle of C2?
superior articular process
331
What is the location of the superior vertebral notch of C2?
on the lamina-pedicle junction
332
What feature is identified on the lower surface of the pedicle of C2?
inferior vertebral notch or incisure
333
What is the location of the inferior articular process of C2?
on the lamina-pedicle junction behind the inferior vertebral notch
334
What osseous parts of the typical cervical transverse process are present at C2?
costal element, posterior tubercle, and true transverse process
335
What is the characteristic appearance of the C2 spinous process in humans?
it is bifid
336
What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?
anterior and posterior grooves, right and left uncinate processes
337
What are the names of the lateral modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?
uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus or lateral lip
338
What are the modifications fo the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?
anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves
339
What bony feature is attached to the posterior end of the pedicle?
the articular pillar
340
What is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar?
groove/sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve
341
What ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical?
ligamentum flavum
342
Ossification of the ligament flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature?
para-articular process
343
List, in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body.
costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process
344
What is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?
sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve
345
What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?
carotid tubercle
346
What is the usual condition for the Caucasian typical cervical spinous process?
they are bifid
347
What is the usual condition for the African-American typical cervical spinous process?
they are non-bifid
348
What surfaces are present on the superior epiphyseal rim of the vertebral body of C7?
anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes
349
What is the appearance of the inferior surface of the vertebral body of C7?
typically flat, lacking anterior and posterior lips characteristic of the typical cervicals
350
What are the osseous parts of the transverse process of C7?
costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process
351
What are the features of the spinous process of C7?
long, horizontal, nonbifid
352
What is the outline of the vertebral body of T1 from superior view?
somewhat rectangular with curved anterior margins
353
What is the appearance of the superior surface of the vertebral body of T1?
is it somewhat cup-shaped with elevations at the posterior and lateral margin
354
What is the appearance of the inferior surface of the vertebral body of T1?
typically flat, lacking anterior and posterior lips characteristic of the cervicals
355
What surfaces are present on the upper and lower margins of the T1 vertebral body?
the right and left superior costal facet and right and left inferior costal demi-facet
356
What is present on the transverse tubercle of T1?
the transverse costal facet
357
What is the angulation of the spinous process of T1?
the undersurface of the T1 spinous processes will be nearly horizontal
358
What features will allow discrimination between T2-T4 and T5-T8 segmental groups?
the vertebral body, transverse process, articular process, and spinous process
359
On cranial view, what is the outline of the vertebral body for the T2-T4 group?
the vertebral body will have bilaterally convex sides
360
On cranial view, what is the outline of the vertebral body for the T5-T8 group?
the left side fo the vertebral body will be flattened, the right side convex
361
What is the name given to the left side appearance of the vertebral body of T5-T8?
aortic impression
362
What part of the vertebral body is most influenced by the aorta at T5-T8?
the left side superior and inferior epiphyseal rims
363
What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical thoracic?
the right and left superior and the right and left inferior costal demi-facets
364
What is the distance between the transverse tubercles in the typical thoracic region?
from T2 each transverse diameter becomes shorter as the transverse processes angle more posterior
365
What is present on the transverse tubercle of a typical thoracic?
the transverse costal facet
366
How do the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the T2-T4 region?
the superior articular process transverse diameter is greater than the inferior articular process transverse diameter for a given segment
367
How do the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the T5-T8 region?
the superior articular process transverse diameter is the same as or equal to the inferior articular process transverse diameter for a given segment
368
What name is given to the region between the superior and inferior articular processes in the typical thoracics?
the pars interarticularis
369
What part of a vertebra arises laterally from the pars interarticularis?
the transverse process
370
What part of a vertebra arises medially from the pars interarticularis?
the lamina
371
What is the orientation of the spinous process of a typical thoracic?
they slant backward and downward
372
Which vertebrae will have a spinous process angulation of up to forty degrees?
T2-T4
373
Which vertebrae will have a spinous process angulation of up to 60 degrees?
T5-T8
374
What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T9?
right and left superior costal demi-facets; right and left inferior costal demi-facets
375
Which synovial joint surfaces may be absent from the vertebral body of T9?
inferior costal demi-facets
376
What is present on the transverse tubercle of T9?
the transverse costal facet
377
What is the orientation of the spinous process of T9?
posterior and slightly inferior, it will shorten and become more horizontal
378
What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T10?
the right and left superior costal facet
379
Which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T10?
inferior costal demi-facets
380
What is the position and direction of the pedicle from the vertebral body at T10?
the pedicle arises from the upper third of the vertebral body and projects posterior and slightly laterally
381
What feature is very commonly observed on the lamina of T10?
para-articular processes
382
What part of the transverse process may be absent on T10?
the transverse costal facet
383
What is the orientation of the spinous process of T10?
posterior and slightly inferior, it will shorten and becomes more horizontal
384
What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T11?
the right and left superior costal facet
385
Which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T11?
inferior costal demi-facets
386
What part of the transverse process is absent on T11?
the transverse costal facet
387
What is the orientation of the spinous process of T11?
posterior and horizontal along the undersurface
388
What is the outline of the vertebral body of T12 on superior view?
kidney-shaped or reniform
389
What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T12?
the right and left superior costal facet
390
Which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T12?
inferior and costa demi-facets
391
Which tubercle on T12 represents the transverse process?
the lateral tubercle
392
Which tubercle on T12 represents the mammillary process of the lumbars?
the superior tubercle
393
Which tubercle on T12 represents the accessory process of the lumbars?
the inferior tubercle
394
What joint surfaces of the typical thoracic transverse process is absent of T12?
the transverse costal facet
395
What is the curvature of the inferior articular facets of T12?
they are significantly convex
396
What is the orientation of the spinous process of T12?
posterior and horizontal
397
What is the generic shape o the typical lumbar vertebral body from the cranial view?
reniform or kidney-shaped
398
The pedicle attaches at what location on vertebral body fo a typical lumbar?
to the upper third or half of the vertebral body
399
What is the name of the elevation near the origin of the lumbar transverse process?
accessory process
400
What is the name of the lamina-pedicle junction of typical lumbar vertebrae?
pars interarticularis
401
What is the name given to the projection on the lumbar superior articular process?
mammillary process
402
What characteristic of the L1-L4 pedicle may be used to differentiate it from the L5 segment? Be specific and complete as the differences on a segment from each group.
On cranial view, the lateral surfaces o the pedicle is apparent on a L1-L4 segment. At L5 the transverse process originates from the vertebral body, pedicle and lamina-pedicle region.
403
What is the generic direction and length of the fifth lumbar transverse process?
it is directed straight lateral and is the shortest of all lumbar transverse processes
404
What is the typical number of segments that unite to form the adult sacrum?
5 segments
405
What forms the median sacral crest?
fused spinous processes and their spinous tubercles
406
What forms the intermediate sacral crest?
fused articular processes and their facets
407
What features may be identified along the intermediate sacral crest?
the mammillary process of S1 and the sacral cornu of S5
408
What does the sacral cornu represent?
the inferior articular process and facet of S5
409
What is the name of the inferior opening of the sacral spinal canal?
the sacral hiatus
410
An imaginary line drawn from the trances process of S1 to the inferior lateral sacral angle will form what feature?
the lateral sacral crest
411
What is the sacral tuberosity?
the enlarged transverse tubercle of S2
412
What feature is associated with the transverse tubercle of S5?
the inferior and lateral (inferolateral) sacral angle
413
From the anterior view, the intervertebral discs of sacrum will be replaced by what feature?
transverse ridges
414
What feature is identified on the lateral surface of S1-S3?
auricular surface
415
What feature does the anterior surface of the superior epiphyseal rim of S1 form?
the sacral promontory
416
What is the name given to the region of bone extending laterally from the S1 vertebral body looking from the base view?
sacral ala
417
What forms the sacral ala?
the costal element and true transverse process
418
What is the typical number of segments that unite to form the adult coccyx?
4 segments
419
What bony features are present on the coccyx?
all segments are represented by a "vertebral body" in addition, Co1 has a coccygeal cornu and transverse process
420
What is the homolog of the superior articular process and facet on C1?
coccygeal cornu
421
What feature is present at the top of the manubrium sterni?
jugular notch (suprasternal notch)
422
What is the name given to the articular site at the superolateral margin of the manubrium sterni?
clavicular notch
423
What names are given to the articular sites for the joint with the first and second rib?
costal notch I for the first rib costal cartilage; costal notch II for the second rib costal cartilage
424
How many sterna brae for the corpus sterni?
4 sternabrae
425
What surface feature on the corpus sterni identifies the location of the old synchondroses?
transverse lines
426
What articular sites for the costal cartilage of ribs will be identified on the corpus sterni?
costal notches II-VII
427
What are the primary parts of the vertebral end of a typical rib?
the head, neck, and tubercle
428
What names are given to the articular surfaces on the head of a typical rib based on location?
superior articular surface/facet and inferior articular surface/facet
429
What feature of the head of a rib separates the superior from inferior articular surface/facet?
the interarticular crest
430
What features may be identified not he neck of a typical rib?
the crest of the rib
431
Which feature of the tubercle of a typical rib is closer to the head of the rib?
the articular surface of the tubercle
432
Which feature of the tubercle of a typical rib is closer to the shaft of the rib?
the non-articular surface of the tubercle
433
What features may be identified on the body (corpus or shaft) of a typical rib?
the costal angle and costal groove
434
What is present on the head of the first rib?
a single articular surface
435
Is there a crest on the neck of the first rib?
not a well-developed one like on the typical rib
436
What is unique about the body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib?
the body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib is flattened and has a scalene tubercle flanked by the groove for the subclavian artery and the groove for the subclavian vein
437
Which groove on the body (corpus of shaft) of the first rib is close to the vertebral end?
the groove for the subclavian artery and the first thoracic nerve
438
Which groove on the body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib is close to the sternal end?
the groove for the subclavian vein
439
Is either the costal angle or costal groove apparent on the first rib?
Neither the costal angle nor the costal groove are apparent on the first rib
440
What features may be identified on the head of rib 2?
two articular surfaces and the interarticular crest
441
What names are given to the articular surfaces on the head of rib 2 based on location?
superior articular surface/facet and inferior articular surface/facet
442
What feature may be identified on the neck of rib 2?
the crest of the rib
443
What features may be identified on the tubercle of rib 2?
the articular surface of the tubercle and the non-articular surface of the tubercle
444
What is the costal angle of a rib?
the location on the body (corpus or shaft) of the rib where there is a directional change toward the sternum
445
What unique feature is present on the body (corpus or shaft) of the second rib?
the tuberosity for the serratus anterior
446
What distinguishes the vertebral end of rib 11 from typical ribs?
the single articular surface, absence of a well-developed crest on the neck and the tubercle may be absent or if present, consists only of a non-articular surface
447
What features may be present on the body (corpus or shaft) of the eleventh rib?
the costal angle and costal groove are under-developed
448
What is the appearance of the sternal end of the eleventh rib?
somewhat pointed
449
What helps to distinguish the vertebral end of the twelfth rib from other ribs?
the head has a single articular surface, the crest of the neck is poorly developed, the tubercle is absent
450
What is the condition of the body (corpus or shaft) of rib 12?
the costal angle and costal groove are absent and it is the shortest of all ribs
451
What is the appearance of the sternal end of the twelfth rib?
the sternal end is pointed
452
What term is used to identify the study of joints?
arthrology
453
What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?
syndesmology
454
What are the three histological classifications of joints?
fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial fluid
455
What were the three Latin classifications of joints based on movement potential?
synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, and diarthrosis
456
What is the classification of a joint held together with cartilage?
synchondrosis
457
What is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?
symphysis
458
What is the classification of a plane or gliding synovial joint?
arthrodia
459
What is the classification of a hinge type synovial joint?
ginglymus
460
What is the classification of a pivot type synovial joint?
trochoid
461
What is the classification of a knuckle type synovial joint?
condylar or bicondylar
462
What is the classification of an oval-like synovial joint?
ellipsoidal
463
What is the classification of a saddle type synovial joint?
sellar
464
What is the classification of a ball and socket synovial joint?
cotyloid, spheroidal or enarthrosis
465
What term is now used to identify the synarthrosis joint type?
fibrous joints
466
What is the name given to a condition in which bones are fused together by bone?
synostosis
467
What fibrous connective tissue classically fills the joint space of a syndesmosis?
a ligament
468
What is the synonym for amphiarthrosis joints?
cartilage joint
469
What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?
They are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template
470
Which classification of cartilage joint is secondary, permanent, composed of fibrous cartilage (fibrocartilage) and occurs between bones formed by endochondral ossification?
(amphiarthrosis) symphysis
471
What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?
articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid
472
What examples of synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodial) joints occur along the vertebral column?
most zygapophyses of the vertebral column
473
What is an example of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints along the vertebral column?
median atlantal-axial joint
474
What is the shared morphological characteristic of diarthrosis trochoid joints?
an osseous pivot point and an osteopath-ligamentous ring
475
What example of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joint is identified along the spine?
the joint of Luschka of typical cervicals is a modified seller joint
476
What example of the diarthrosis condylar joint is identified along the spine?
the atlanto-occipital joint may be classified as a diarthrosis condylar joint
477
Which joint classification exhibits a knuckle-shaped surface on one side of the joint and an elliptical, concave surface of the other side?
diarthrosis ellipsoidal
478
What example of the diarthrosis ellipsoidal joint is identified along the spine?
the atlanto-occiptial joint may be classified as a diarthrosis ellipsoidal joint
479
Which synovial joint classifications are now often interchanged in textbooks?
ellipsoidal and condylar synovial joints
480
Which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae?
the two toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, and three toed sloth
481
Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebraeZ?
ant bear, three-toed sloth
482
Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?
two-toed sloth, manatee
483
What is the number of vertebrae in the typical cervical spine?
7 segments
484
Which vertebrae are typical cervicals?
C3-C6
485
Which vertebrae are atypical cervicals?
C1, C2, C7
486
What is the shape of the typical cervical vertebral body from the cranial view?
rectangular
487
What is the effect of aging on the cervical vertebral body?
it diminishes the overall height of the vertebral body
488
What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?
posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters
489
What would be the direction of the cervical curve based on osseous features?
posterior or kyphotic
490
What accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?
the intervertebral disc height
491
What is the direction of the typical cervical cure?
anterior or lordotic
492
Which vertebral couples will demonstrate a decrease in intervertebral disc height?
C2/C3 down to C4/C5
493
At which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?
C5/C6
494
What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?
anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes
495
At what developmental age will the uncinate process first be observed?
3rd-4th fetal month
496
What is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior longitudinal ligament-anterior groove articulation?
fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndemosis
497
What is the joint classification for the posterior lip-posterior longitudinal ligament-posterior groove articulation?
fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndemosis
498
What is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?
modified synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar)
499
What is the joint classification for the spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?
cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis
500
How many joints are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?
5
501
How many joints are present on the lower surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?
5
502
How many total joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?
10
503
What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?
right and left uncinate process, right and left lateral groove
504
What is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?
joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint
505
The joint of Luschka is formed from what surfaces?
the uncinate process and lateral groove
506
How many total synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?
4
507
What is the functional significance of the joint of Luschka?
it appears to stabilize the intervertebral disc while accommodating flexion - extension and requiring coupled motion (axial rotation with lateral bending) in the cervical spine
508
How many cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis joints are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?
2
509
What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?
longus colli muscle
