SPV Flashcards
(220 cards)
1
Q
You see a flashing amber OPEN light next to the cockpit door switch (and aural alarm). What does this mean?
A
Someone in cabin has started the emergency access procedure
2
Q
With emergency exit light in the ARM position, what causes the emergency lighting system to illuminate?
A
Exit signs/overhead emergency/floor proximity lights illuminate with loss of electric power
Exit signs only with excessive cabin alt
Exit signs illuminate when LG extends if the NO SMOKING switch is in AUTO
3
Q
With the STROBE sw in AUTO, when will the strobe lights operate?
A
They come on automatically with Weight Off Wheels
4
Q
With LAND switches OFF, what is the status of the landing lights?
A
Lights are extended but OFF
5
Q
Which lights illuminate with the EMER EXIT LT selected ON?
A
Overhead emergency
EXIT lights
Floor proximity emergency escape path
Note: internal battery’s (EPSUs) are not charged in this position and may only last 10 min)
6
Q
What happens to the nosewheel response to tiller input as gs increases?
A
Deflection response is reduced as speed increases
7
Q
What does a FAULT light in the TERR PB mean?
A
1) terrain detection function failure
2) basic modes 1-5 still operational
8
Q
What will occur if TERR PB is selected OFF?
A
Inhibits the database terrain detection function and keeps basic GPWS modes 1-5 operable
9
Q
What does GPWS SYS FAULT light indicate?
A
Basic GPWS Mode 1-5 malfunction
10
Q
What is inhibited when the GS MODE PB is selected OFF?
A
Mode 5 Glideslope mode (“glideslope” aural) is inhibited
11
Q
What will occur if you select the FLAP MODE PB OFF?
A
Flap mode 4 “TOO LOW FLAPS” is inhibited to avoid nuisance warnings when landing with reduced flap setting
12
Q
What occurs when LDG 3 FLAP PB is selected ON?
A
Flap mode 4 “TOO LOW FLAPS” is inhibited when FLAPS CONF 3 is selected. In this case, the ECAM LDG MEMO displays “FLAPS…3” instead of “FLAPS FULL”
13
Q
Do we receive an ECAM message when the SMOKE light illuminated and aural alert annunciate?
A
No, system is aftermarket and has no suppression or ECAM alert
14
Q
What does the RACK POWER SMOKE light and associated aural alert indicate?
A
Smoke detected in the aft avionics rack
15
Q
If the SMOKE light in the RACK POWER illuminated and the associated aural alert is present, what would you expect to see on the associated ECAM?
A
Nothing
16
Q
If an emergency access is initiated how much time do you have to select LOCK in order to prevent unauthorized access?
A
Select LOCK within 30 sec to deny entry
That locks the cockpit for 5 mins
17
Q
Which cockpit lighting is available on battery power only?
A
The RH (FO) dome light The CAPT flood lights
18
Q
With the EMER EXIT LT set to ARM when will the overhead emergency lights illuminate?
A
Loss of normal electrical power
19
Q
With the EMER EXIT LT set to ARM, when will the EXIT SIGNS illuminate?
A
1) loss of normal electrical power
2) excessive cabin alt
3) with NO SMOKING sign in AUTO, they come on with LG down
20
Q
With the EVAC switch in the CAPT position and an alert activated from the CABIN, what indications would be present in the cockpit?
A
1) cockpit horn sounds for 3 sec
2) CAPT sw: if activated from the cabin, the signal will only be apparent in the flight deck and will only sound in the fight deck for 3 sec
21
Q
The lights in the EMER switch flash and you hear 3 long buzzers sound in the flight deck. What does this indicate?
A
An emergency call has been made from the cabin to the flight deck.
22
Q
Which button should be used to communicate with the cabin in an emergency?
A
EMER CALL button
23
Q
What happens when you press MECH PB?
A
COCKPIT CALL illuminates down below and a horn sounds as long as button is held
24
Q
When are the CVR and FDR energized with the RCRD GND CTL PB in AUTO (extinguished)
A
AUTO:
On ground: 5 min after electrical power to the aircraft or after engine start
Stops automatically 5 mins after engine shutdown
In flight: continuously
25
When does a flashing amber CALL light indicate?
Incoming call detected from SATCOM system
26
What does a flashing ATC MSG indicate?
ATC message received by CPDLC
27
If a CPDLC message is too long to display on one screen, which button is selected to view the next page of the message?
PGE +/- button on the RH side of the display
28
What is the primary difference on the engine warning display (EWD) as associated with the engine monitoring on the NEO Pratt n Whitney engines?
N1 replaces EPR (top of display) as primary engine parameter
29
Due to improved stall margins on the PW1000G, logic for the automatic selection of continuous ignition is changed
Unlike CEO engines , the following DO NOT trigger cont ignition
- engine A/I
- TOGA or FLX thrust
- approach idle (flaps >0)
30
T or F
| With the use of DUAL COOLING is it acceptable to start both PW 1100G engines simultaneously?
False
31
Airborne traffic situational awareness (ATSAW) utilizes what technology to provide enhanced traffic awareness?
ADS-B in/ADS B out
32
Turbulence detection has been extended to ___mi and is indicated in ___ on the ND with the enhanced “Hazard V2” weather radar
60 / magenta
33
The soft go around function automatically adapts the thrust to maintain approx what rate of climb?
2000 FPM
34
To initiate soft Go around pilot should move the thrust levers to:
TOGA initially then back to FLX/MCT detent
35
What is the position of the Pack Flow Control valves when the APU BLEED is on?
High flow is provided if the APU is supplying bleed air(and in single pack operation regardless of selector position)
36
What happens to the ENG BLEED valves when the APU BLEED valve opens?
They close
37
Regardless of sw position, what pack flow is provided during single pack operations?
High
38
What is indicated by a FAULT light in the HOT AIR PB
Duct overheat
39
If the APU BLEED VALVE is open and the X BLEED selector is in AUTO, what is the position of the X BLEED valve?
Open
40
With the LDG ELEV selector in auto, how is the LDG elev set?
FMGC database
41
What does the FAULT light in the MODE SEL switch indicate? (CABIN PRESS PANEL)
Both CAB PR systems have failed
42
What happens to the ventilation system when either the BLOWER or EXTRACT PB are selected to OVRD?
Air is added to the ventilation air from the air conditioning system
43
What happens when the DITCHING PB is selected ON?
Closes the inlets and valves below the “water line”
44
With both ENGs running, APU supplying bleed air, and the X BLEED sw in AUTO, what is the position of the X BLEED valve?
X BLEED OPEN
| ENG 1/2 VALVE CLOSED
45
On takeoff what speed does SRS command with both engines operating?
V2+10
46
On takeoff what speed does SRS command of an engine failure is detected?
V2 or current speed, whatever is greater but not more than V2+15
47
When does the airplane exit SRS Mode?
Automatically at acceleration alt or when another vertical mode is selected
48
With V/S active what would happen if you select a higher speed?
Thrust will increase (up to CLB if needed) until the selected speed is attained. Then the thrust will reduce to maintain selected speed
49
Based on the PFD shown, what thrust is being commanded? (Speed selected is below indicated in a descent)
Thrust at idle since speed selected is below indicated in a descent
50
During a normal takeoff when will the A/THR become engaged?
After the thrust lever is moved to the CLB detent
51
In a managed climb, what FMA changes will occur if you pull HDG?
NAV Mode will change to HDG, CLB Mode will change to OP CLB
52
In a managed descent what FMA changes will occur if you pull HDG?
NAV Mode will change to HDG
DES Mode will change to V/S
THR Mode will change to SPEED
53
During an ILS apch, at approx what alt will the LOC/GS indication change to LAND on the FMA and what does that mean?
Below 400’ RA
LAND means LOC and GS are locked, no action on the FCU will disengage the LAND mode FLARE and ROLLOUT modes will successively engage
54
During an automand when do expect the FMA FLARE indication to appear?
40’ RA
55
During an auto land, with the FMA FLARE displayed, what actions are occurring with the autopilot and autothrust?
A/P aligns yaw axis with runway centerline and flares in pitch
AT reduced thrust to idle if engaged
56
During autoland what does ROLL OUT mean?
The AP is guiding the aircraft along the runway centerline
| The yaw bar is displayed on the PFD
57
What are 3 ways you can disconnect auto thrust?
1) press AUTOTHRUST INSTINCTIVE DISCONNECT PB
2) move both thrust levers to IDLE
3) push A/THR PB on FCU (this causes thrust lock)
58
In level flight with thrust levers in the CL detent, what will happen to the thrust of you press the instinctive disconnect PB?
Thrust will go to CL to match actual lever position
59
What does THR LK mean?
Thrust is fixed at current setting
| To fix: move thrust levers
60
How do you get out of THR LK?
Move the thrust levers
61
What triggers A.FLOOR protection to engage?
- a predetermined AOA
| - A/THR will command TOGA thrust regardless of TL position
62
When the A.FLOOR mode triggers what does A/THR command?
TOGA
63
What does TOGA LK mean?
TOGA thrust is still being commanded after alpha floor triggering cond no longer met
64
How do you get out of TOGA LK?
Disconnect A/THR
65
During a go around what FMA indications will confirm that the a/c has entered GA phase?
MAN TOGA, SRS
66
The aircraft is in normal law and autothrust is off. Is ALPHA FLOOR available?
Yes
67
When the aircraft leaves A.FLOOR what FMA changes will occur?
A. FLOOR changes to TOGA LK
68
If AC bus 1 fails, will the AC ESS BUS remain powered?
Yes
69
If AC bus 1 fails, what bus supplies AC ESS BUS?
Ac BUS 2
70
What is indicated by a FAULT LT in the GEN PB?
ASSOCIATED GCU trips
| In line contractor opens (except if GEN PB is selected OFF)
71
What does a BATT OFF LT represent?
1) batt charger limiter is not operating
2) OFF LT illuminates if DC BATT bus is powered
3) hot buses remain powered
72
What does the green EXT PWR AVAIL light indicate
Ext power is connected
| Goes out when ON is illuminated or EXT power is pulled
73
What does the blue EXT PWR ON light mean?
Ext power is available and powering the plane
74
What does the battery charger limiter automatically control (when bat 1&2 are selected ON)
Connect or disconnect the corresponding battery to the DC BAT BUS (closes or opens the battery line contractor)
75
What does a batt FAULT light mean?
Charging current for battery outside limits, so the contractor opens. Amber light and EICAM caution
76
What does the Ac ESS FEED FAULT light represent?
AC ESS BUS not powered
77
What does FAULT light in IDG 2 PB mean?
High oil temp or low oil press
78
During a 1 eng taxi,
| Which gen is powering AC BUS 1?
Gen 1
79
During a one eng taxi which GEN is powering AC BUS 2?
APU (bus the bus tie)
80
Gen 1 ON
Gen 2 OFF
EXT PWR ON
What electrical sources are powering AC BUS 1 and 2?
GEN 1 - AC BUS 1
| EXT PWR - AC BUS 2
81
What does the smoke light in the GEN 1 LINE PB mean?
Smoke detected in the avionics vent duct
82
What happens when the GEN 1 LINE PB is selected OFF?
GEN 1 contactor opens
AC BUS 1 channel supplied from GEN 2 through the BTC
Separate circuit is energized from GEN 1 to supply power to one fuel pump on each main tank
83
What does RAT & EMER GEN FAULT mean?
EMERGENCY GEN is not supplying power when AC BUS 1 & 2 are not powered
84
With the RAT MAN ON switch in auto, what will cause the RAT to deploy?
AC BUS 1&2 not supplied and greater than 100kts
85
What will happen if you press the RED guarded MAN ON PB?
Manual RAT extension, even on the ground
86
Which hydraulic system is pressurized by deployment of the RAT?
Blue
87
How long does it take for the EMER GEN to couple after RAT deployment?
Approx 8 sec
88
What automatically occurs if you have an APU Fire on the ground?
Auto shutdown and extinguisher activation
89
What does illumination of the FAULT light in the APU master switch indicate?
APU Auto shutdown has occurred
90
What does the green AVAIL light in the APU START PB mean?
The APU start sequence is complete and the APU generator is available for use
91
What does the cyan ON light indicate after the APU START PB has been pressed?
APU starter is energized
92
Does this represent a good ENG FIRE TEST?
| DISCH in amber and red FIRE
No the white squib lights aren’t illuminated
93
What do the white squib lights indicate?
The fire extinguishing system is armed
94
What denotes a successful engine fire system test?
CRC, MW lights (2), ENG FIRE PB illuminates red, SQUIB lights, DISCH lights, ENG FIRE 1 (2) warning on EICAM, FIRE light on ENG panel red
95
What does DISCH 1 represent?
Bottle 1 has low pressure
96
When you discharge agent 2, what indication to you expect to immediately see on the cargo smoke panel?
DISCH AGENT 2 light extinguished when squib 2 is ignited
97
When will the DISCH AGENT 2 light illuminate?
DISCH agent 2 takes up to 60 minutes after discharge of AGENT 1
98
What is the effect of selecting RACK POWER OFF?
Power is removed from the aft avionics compartment panel. All controlled systems completely shut off
99
What does the SMOKE light indicate on the RACK POWER PB?
Smoke detected in the compartment. Red and aural alert
100
Illumination of a SQUIB light means...
Fire extinguishing system is armed
101
Pushing and releasing an ENG FIRE PB closes what valves?
1. LP fuel valve
2. Hyd Fire shutoff valve
3. Eng bleed valve
4. Pack flow control valve
102
Pushing and releasing an ENG FIRE PB accomplished what action?
1. Silences the aural warning
2. Arms the squibs
3. Closes fuel LP valve
4. Closes hyd Fire s/o valve
5. Closes bleed valve
6. Closes pack flow control valve
7. Cuts off FADEC power supply
8. Sends IDG offline
103
In alternate law what are you commanding when you move the side stick forward and aft?
Load factor
(Neutral equals 1g)
(Same as normal law but reduced protections)
104
In alt law what are you commanding when you move the stick left and right?
Direct sidestick to roll control surface position relationship
105
In normal law what happens if both pilots move their sidestick simultaneously?
The inputs are algebraically summed (limited to the max deflection of a single sidestick)
106
What is required to lock out a faulty side?
Press and hold for 40 sec locks out the other sidestick
107
With a sidestick locked out, is AP available?
YES
108
The (FLT CTL) ELACs control which functions?
Elevator Aileron computer (functions include listed controls and horizontal stabilizer)
109
The (FLT CTL) SECs control which functions?
Spoiler elevator computer
| Functions include listed controls and horizontal stabilizer
110
The FACs control which functions?
FAC- flight augmentation computer
- electrical Rudder control
- flight envelope functions
- low level energy warning
- windshear detection
111
What does the white OFF light indicate when associated with a (FLT CTL) ELAC, SEC or FAC?
Computer is deactivated
112
During manual flight you notice on the glare shield these two lights flashing. What does that indicate?
(CAPT in green F/O in green)
Dual input
| Both side sticks are being used simultaneously and an aural “DUAL INPUT” warning
113
If both pilots are pulling back slightly in their sticks what is the response of the aircraft?
A more pronounced pitch up since the inputs are algebraically summed
114
Both pilots should not make control inputs at the same time. If a pilot needs to take over the controls what should be done to prevent dual input?
Press and hold the AP/TAKEOVER button
115
During manual flight you see the indications below and hear the aural alert “PRIORITY RIGHT”. What does it mean?
(Red arrow pointing right and GREEN F/O)
The FO is holding the takeover Pb and inputs are being commanded on the CAs side stick.
116
To lock out the Captain side sidestick how long must the FO hold the takeover PB?
40 sec
117
Can the AP be engaged after a sidestick is locked out?
Yes
118
What do the green hash marks mean to either side of the AI?
Bank angle limit in normal law
119
Can you exceed the g load protections in normal law?
No
120
Can the aircraft stall in alternate law?
Yes
121
Is load factor protection available in alt law?
Yes
122
Is auto trimming available in alternate law?
Yes
123
In alternate law after lowering the LG, the PFD displays this message, what has occurred? “USE MAN PITCH TRIM”
Reversion to direct law
124
If the speed brake lever is armed what is required to activate the ground spoilers during an RTO?
Speed >72kts
TLs at/near idle
If NOT ARMED
Speed >72kts
TLs at least one in reverse and the other near idle
125
With the AP on what max speed brake is available?
| 320 vs 321
Half / full
126
List at least two conditions in which the soeedbrakes automatically retract
In flight flaps FULL (320)
(Flaps 3 and FULL for 321)
Alpha prot
TOGA selected
127
Speed brakes are inhibited (and will auto retract if extended) in relation to what flap position? 320 vs 321
320: full
321: 3 or full
128
In normal law what occurs as the aircraft slows to alpha protection?
AOA protection becomes active and...”ASAP”
A- autopilot disconnects
S- speed brakes retract
A- sidestick behavior changes from load factor demand to AOA proportional to sidestick deflection
P- pitch trim (nose up) inhibited
129
What flight control law is represented by the indications shown on the air speed tape?
Normal law
130
If the speed brakes are extended what will occur if airspeed decreases below the speed shown by the arrow?
Speed brakes auto retract at alpha prot
131
What protection occurs at a predetermined angle of attack between alpha prot and alpha max?
Alpha floor protection engages.
| AT provides TOGA
132
What does alpha max represent?
The max angle of attack the aircraft can obtain in normal law
133
If the sidestick is held full aft will alpha max be exceeded?
No, not in normal law
134
If the stick is held full aft will the aircraft enter a stall?
No
135
During the apch in normal law you hear the aural warning SPEED SPEED SPEED what does this represent?
Low energy warning. Thrust must be increased. Decreasing pitch alone is not enough to recover a positive flight angle.
136
What flight control law is represented by the indications shown on the air speed tape?
Alternate/direct law
137
In alternate law what will occur as airspeed approaches Vsw?
With low speed stability a gentle nose down command is initiated which attempts to keep the speed from slowing further.
138
In alternate law what would occur if the sidestick is pulled further aft?
(Shows nose high speed decreasing)
The airplane can be stalled in alternate law
139
Given this indication what will occur if the sidestick is pulled or held aft?
With low speed stability a gentle nose down command is initiated which attempts to keep the speed from slowing. This command can be overridden by the sidestick
140
What is indicated by the green equals sign on the speed tape?
The speed at which normal law overspeed protection becomes active Vmo +6kt
141
What occurs when you hit the green equal sign on the speed tape?
A pitch up demand is introduced, AP disconnects. Pilot sidestick authority is reduced and cannot overpower the automatic pitch up
142
With the AP on and ATs engaged and the apch phase activated, reference the airspeed indications as shown...
If you “push speed” what will the ATs maintain?
F speed
143
With the AP on ATs on and apch phase activated reference the airspeed indications shown here...
If you manually select 130kt what will happen?
Target bug can be set but aircraft will only slow to Vls
144
What happens when you press either guarded NAV key on RMP 1 or 2?
Returns control of the NAV radios to FMGC.
| Turns off green light
145
After pressing either guarded NAV key on RMP 1 or 2, what happens if you press NAV a second time?
Returns control of the NAV radios to FMGC
146
Why would you press the guarded NAV PB on an RMP?
Dual MCDU/FMGC failure
147
What does the magenta dot at KARRS indicate?
The point when managed speed will indicate a change to meet a speed limit, constraint or holding speed
148
What does the 120 deg bent magenta arrow just last BOTON indicate?
The level off point for a descent due to a constraint entered in the MCDU
149
What do the blue symbols at HOGGS indicate?
Intercept the vertical profile and continue the managed descent
150
In cruise you are painting an area of wx 35NM ahead. With the radar panel and EFIS panel set as shown below, would you be able to identify turbulence in the area of wx?
Yes
| Turb is depicted in magenta within 40NM (selected range not a factor)
151
Flying at night around TSs, what control is used to adjust the brightness level of the wx depiction on your ND?
Outer ND brightness knob
152
How does positioning the GAIN knob slightly (clockwise) our of the AUTO position affect display of radar returns on the ND?
GAIN would then be manually set to minimum
153
Assume hat the radar system was selected off. Windshear is predicted ahead of your flight path. Will you receive a predictive windshear alert?
Yes
154
When using STBY NAV how would you change a VHF1 radio freq?
Select VHF 1
Enter new freq in STBY
Transfer freq to ACTIVE
Do not turn off the NAV key
155
Which portion of the system (ADR or IR) provides altitude and heading information?
IR
156
When will the ON BAT light illuminate?
Illuminated when one or more IRs are supplied by only one aircraft battery, or comes on for a few sec as a test at the beginning of a full align.
157
What external indications will alert personnel that the IRS are ON BAT?
An external horn sounds, ADIRU-AVNCS BLUE LIGHT illuminated on EXT PWR panel, except during a test
158
What is indicated by a flashing IR FAULT light?
flashes when alt and HDG may be recovered in ATT mode
159
What is indicated by a flashing ALIGN?
1. IR alignment fault
2. No present position entry after 10 mins
3. Difference between position at shutdown and entered position exceeds 1 deg of lat or long
4. A/C movement
160
What is indicated by a steady IR FAULT light?
Respective IR is lost
161
Which portion of the system (ADE or IR) provides basic baro altitude, airspeed and AOA info?
ADR
162
When performing the abnormal V alpha prot memory items, which controls should be used to select OFF 2 of the 3 ADRs?
ADR PB not a rotary sw
163
Why does SOP require that the ATC selector be operated in pos 1?
Only system 1 is available in emergency electrical configuration
164
With fuel in the center tank, when do the center tank pumps run with the MODE SEL in AUTO?
- center tank pumps run at eng start 2 mins
- before or after engine start, pumps run with slats retracted and fuel in center tank
- center tank pump stopsb5 min after tank empty (low level reached)
165
Does center tank fuel in the A321 directly feed the engines?
No
320 it does
321 fuel goes to wing tanks
166
What is indicated by a FAULT light in a fuel pump sw?
Delivery pressure dropped
167
If a fuel pump FAULT light comes on in flight what will allow engines to run?
Yes...Gravity feed.
168
What is indicated by the white ON XFEED light?
In transit, valve opening
169
What is indicated by the blue OPEN XFEED light?
Valve is fully open
170
In flight with fuel in both wing tanks if all tank pumps failed would the engines continue to run?
Yes
| Gravity feed from wing tanks only
171
With the MODE SEL in AUTO and fuel in center tank, will fuel feed directly to the engine from the center tank?
No. Must transfer to the wing tanks first
172
What is represented by a FAULT light in the center tank MODE SEL PB?
Fuel isn’t being transferred center tank to wing tanks like it should. (Also center tank has 550lb + and wing tanks less than 11k lbs
173
If the RAT is extended by the hydraulic RAN MAN ON PB what hydraulic system is powered by the RAT?
Blue
174
If the RAT is extended by the hydraulic RAT MAN ON PB, will the electric EMER GEN couple to the aircraft electrical system?
No
175
If the Y electrical pump is not turned on during a one engine taxi, what hydraulic systems are powered once the parking brake is selected on?
Just green and blue are powered.
Yellow isn’t powered with 1 eng master ON and parking brake ON.
PTU is inhibited in this configuration
176
If you forget to turn on the Y pump during single eng taxi, the G & B systems will still be powered. Which hyd systems will operate if the parking brake is selected OFF?
All of them.
Yellow is powered through the PTU (1 eng on and parking brake off)
177
After parking at the gate the PTU will operate upon shutdown of the second engine until or unless what occurs?
Cargo door operation or
| No longer a >500psi differential between green and yellow systems upon spool Down of eng 2
178
What would cause the PTU FAULT light?
1) green or yellow reservoir overheats
2) G or Y reservoir has low air pressure
3) G or Y low fluid
The FAULT light stays on as long as overheat is active
179
In flight when will the PTU operate with the PB in AUTO?
>500psi difference between Y and G
180
With the RAT MAN ON PB armed when will the RAT deploy automatically?
Both AC1 and AC2 lost AND airspeed >100kt
181
What will occur when RAT MAN ON PB is pressed?
1) RAT will deploy
| 2) blue system pressure restored
182
What is the difference between pressing the RAT MAN ON button the HYD panel vs the MAN ON button on the EMER ELEC PWR panel?
Electrics will not couple
183
When is the PTU inhibited?
1) first eng start
2) one ENG master ON & PARK BRK set
3) NSW DISC on EICAM
4) cargo door operation
184
When is the PTU automatically tested?
The PTU is automatically tested during the second engine start
185
You experience a G RSVR OVHT ECAM caution. After completing the non-normal procedure the FAULT lights remain illuminated (ENG 1 PUMP FAULT/ PTU FAULT) but then extinguish several minutes later. When the lights extinguish, what does that indicate?
The overhead condition has abated
186
Prior to starting eng 2 during a one engine taxi, why is the Y ELEC PUMP turned OFF?
Permits automatic PTU test during second engine start
187
Why is the hydraulic YELLOW ELEC PUMP required to be turned ON during ONE ENGINE TAXI?
1) prevents PTU operation while taxiing (noisy) due to no pressure differential
2) hydraulic source for yellow system braking
188
When are the probes and windows heated automatically?
In flight
| On ground with one engine running (except TAT probes)
189
With loss of electrical power, which position do the engine anti ice valves fail?
Open
190
With loss of electrical power, in which position do the wing anti ice valves fail?
Engines: open
Wings: closed
191
What affect does each turn of the GEAR EXTN handle have?
Pull crank out
Turn clockwise 3 turns
This releases hydraulic pressure to the gear, opens gear doors, unlocks gear
192
Assuming loss of green and yellow system, what source is available for braking?
Yellow BRK ACCU PR only
193
By selecting the A/SKID and NW STRG switch OFF, what does this have on the breaking system?
Green hyd pressure is shut off to the normal brake system.
Yellow supplies pressure to the brakes without anti skid protection
194
What do the red UNLK lights mean on the landing gear panel?
Landing gear is not in the locked position
195
If the DECEL light fails to illuminate after landing, what does that indicate?
The predetermined deceleration rate has NOT been achieved
196
What does the A/THR annunciation LVR ASYM mean?
Appears amber if, with A/THR active, both engines running, one thrust lever is out of the CLB detent
197
With the ENG MODE SEL switch in norm (one engine running) when is cont ignition automatically selected?
1) T/O power is set (TOGA or FLX)
2) engine anti ice is on
3) engine surge or stall in flight
4) flap handle out of zero in flight
198
What does the flashing LVR CLB indication mean?
Thrust levers are not in CLB detent, both engines running, above the thrust reduction altitude
199
What does the flashing LVR MCT mean?
Power is not set to MCT, after eng failure, above green dot, clean config (NOTE that the TLs May be in the FLX/MCT detent)
200
How can you extinguish LVR MCT?
Move thrust levers out of MCT detent and back into MCT detent
201
A valid cockpit voice recorder test will occur if what conditions are met when the CVR TEST PB is pressed?
Pressed and held
Parking brake on
A low frequency sound plays on speakers
202
What does the dashes green arc mean on the ND (just inside the heading arc)
Required distance to land from present position
203
When does the dashed green arc appear (just inside heading arc)
Only displayed in descent or approach phase when a lateral mode is engaged (HDG or TRK)
204
What is the difference between the yellow side slip indicator and the blue beta target?
Turns blue in case of engine failure during takeoff or go around
Yellow=sideslip
Blue=optimal sideslip with eng failed
205
When will the blue BETA target index replace the turn and slip indicator?
Eng failure on takeoff or go around
206
Why is it important to center the blue BETA target index?
The amount of sideslip is optimized for best single eng performance (May result in a slight bank)
207
When TO INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT are displayed on the lower right side of the E/WD what does this mean?
Only failures/fires that require immediate recognition are displayed. All others are suppressed.
208
When is LDG INHIBIT active?
During landing (800 ft or 80kt)
209
On takeoff when is TO INHIBIT active?
Takeoff power up to 1500’ or 2 mins after takeoff
210
What will happen if you press and hold the ALL push button on the ECAM control panel?
Cycles through all the system pages as long as it’s being pressed
211
What occurs when you press TO CONFIG?
Simulated application of TO POWER
212
What happens when you press the EMER CANC Pb for a warning?
Cancels any aural warnings present as long as failure continues
Extinguishes MW lights
Doesn’t affect EICAM display
213
What happens if you press EMER CANC for a caution?
Cancels any caution for the remainder of the flight
Calls up status page which will display the cancelled caution
214
Which buttons remain operative in an ECAM control panel failure?
CLR
RCL
STS
EMER CNCL
215
What does RCL do?
Calls up warning or caution msgs that have been inhibited or cleared
216
What is represented by the white SYS ON light?
Auto or manual signal to open o2 mask doors has been triggered (auto 14,000ft cabin alt)
217
What occurs when the MASK MAN ON PB has been pressed
Mask doors manually signaled to open
218
What triggers the signal to be sent for deployment of pax o2 masks when MASK MAN ON PB is guarded in auto
Masks will deploy when cabin press 14,000ft
219
When the crew supply PB OFF light is on, hat secondary indication will be displayed and where?
Valve is closed accompanied by an amber OXY indication on ECAM door page
220
After replacing the o2 mak why do you have to press the TEST/RESET BUTTON
Cut off o2 to the mask and turns off o2 mask mic
