SPV Q BANK Flashcards
(248 cards)
1
Q
Max gear extended speed
A
265kt
2
Q
Max flap speeds
A
Flaps 1, 230 Flaps 2, 215 Flaps 3, 200 Flaps 4 & 5, 180 Flaps full, 165kt
3
Q
Engine starter cycle duty
Ground vs flight
A
90 sec ground/10 sec off
120 sec flight/10 sec off
4
Q
ATTCS limitation
A
Must be on for takeoff
5
Q
Engine warm up and cool down period
A
2 mins
6
Q
Min alt for autopilot on a “standard” precision/precision like apch?
A
50ft below DH/DA/DDA
7
Q
Min alt for autopilot use on visual apch with no IAP
A
500ft
8
Q
Min autopilot engagement alt for takeoff?
A
Accel alt and out of TO mode
9
Q
Min autopilot engagement for go around
A
400ft AGL
10
Q
Brake temp limitation
A
Can’t take off with it in amber
11
Q
When must we select anti Ice on ground?
A
OAT 10c or less and icing conditions exist
Also 1,700ft ceiling for takeoff
12
Q
Memory items:
Cockpit/cabin smoke or fumes
A
O2 masks on
EMER
then 100%
Crew communications establish
13
Q
Jammed control column-pitch
A
Elevator disconnect handle pull
Working pitch control identify
Assign PF
14
Q
Trim runaway
A
AP/TRIM disconnect button press and hold
15
Q
Cabin alt HI
A
O2 masks on, 100%
Crew communications establish
16
Q
Jammed control wheel- roll
A
Aileron disconnect handle pull
Working roll control identify
Assign PF
17
Q
Nose wheel steering runaway
A
STEER DISC SW…press
18
Q
When doing the DVDR test, how long must the button be held down for a successful test?
A
> 3sec with no EICAS fail message
19
Q
What conditions have to be met for the CVR data to be erased?
A
On the ground parking brake set
20
Q
What would indicate a failure of the DVDR test?
A
CVR AFT (FWD) FAIL on eicas
21
Q
What happens when you rotate the OVHD PNL knob to off?
A
All the lights are bright
22
Q
What is the function of the MAIN PNL light knob?
A
Sets brightness level of the guidance panel and instrument panel background lighting
23
Q
What lights or systems ARE NOT checked when the ANNUNCIATORS TEST button is pressed?
A
Warning lights Caution lights Parking brake GPU pushbutton Fire test lights
24
Q
What is the purpose of the ANNUNCIATORS TEST button?
A
To verify lamp integrity of all striped bars and caption indications in all main and overhead panels and control pedestal pushbuttons
25
Will the dome light work with the battery switches off?
No
26
With EMER LT switch in OFF can the emergency lights be turned on from the FWD or AFT ATTENDANT panel?
Yes.
27
What would cause the emergency lights to come on automatically?
Loss of DC Bus 1 or loss of electrical power
28
When do the no smoking or FSTN BELTS signs come on automatically?
Whenever the masks are commanded to deploy
29
What is the LG WRN INHIB button used for?
Silenced gear warnings when you have a dual radio altimeter failure
30
What conditions have to be met to drain the potable water?
Aircraft is airborne
Landing gear up
Drain masts heated
31
How can you confirm that the water tank is completely empty?
Complete drainage can be confirmed at the flight attendant panel
32
What units are manipulated with the CCD?
The MFD, PFD, and EICAS
33
Cockpit door panel shows white dash, black, white ON. Locked or no?
No
34
What does it mean when the door panel ON Light is flashing?
Either door is commanded locked but it isn’t or..
| Someone is requesting entry
35
What happens if someone requests access to the cockpit door and you DONT press INHIB?
30 sec then the door unlocks
36
What does the guarded CABIN IFE button control?
Controls power supply to the IFE rack
37
What does the guarded IFE RACK button control?
Controls power to the live TV system, XM satellite radio system and wireless aircraft data link
Also controls PA buffer, rack fan and flow switch
38
What systems are NOT turned off by pressing the IFE RACK button?
Power to the smoke detector and ventilation systems
39
What does the IFE CONNECTIVITY panel control?
The live TV Ka-Band connectivity system which is the inflight broadband and internet capability
40
What is the status of the IFE CONNECTIVITY panel?
POWER- white stripe
ANTENNA- black
The system is off
41
If the radar was off and you select STBY, what happens?
Radar can warm up
42
What does FSBY OVRD on the radar panel mean?
Radar forced into standby mode regardless of logic
If you both select it then radar will turn on even on the ground
43
What does GMAP mode do? (Radar)
Uses radar to map terrain
44
What is SECT mode? (Radar)
Sweep reduced from 120 to 60 deg
Rate increased from 12 to 24 sweeps per min
45
Radar: What does TGT do?
System alerts pilots of potentially hazardous targets directly in front of them but out of view
46
Radar: what does RCT do?
Highlights radar shadows in cyan
47
Radar: what does ACT do?
System automatically adjusts tilt in relation to current alt and selected range.
48
Radar: what does TURB do?
Shows areas of moderate to extreme turbulence displayed in soft white
Except CAT
49
Pressurization: when would you need to use LFE CTRL?
Both FMSs inop OR
| Landing at airport not in FMS database
50
Will the system pressurize automatically in LFE CTRL mode?
Yes
51
Pressurization: what does the LFE CTRL knob do?
Manual input of field elevation
52
Pressurization: in flight what does DUMP button do?
AUTO: packs & recirc fans off, outflow valve modulates to allow for rise in cabin pressure to 12,400’ at 2,000fpm and natural leak will bring it higher
MAN: packs and recirc fans turn off
53
Pressurization: in level flight at 11,000ft how high will the Cain raise if you press the dump button?
To 11,000ft
54
Pressurization: how high would cabin raise with dump button selected if at FL350
FL 350
55
On ground, SET. What is the bleed prioritization for starting #2 eng?
APU bleed
56
On ground with APU and both engines operating, which pneumatic source supplies bleed air to the packs?
Engines
57
When in flight what is the bleed source priority?
On side, cross side, APU
58
In flight where does air come from for pack 1?
Engine 1 bleed
59
In flight where does air come from for pack 1 if engine 1 isn’t available?
Engine 2 bleed
60
In flight what happens if you turn off bleed 1? Would pack 1 turn off?
Closes bleed valve, crossfeed opens and bleed 2 feeds pack 1
61
If we are in icing conditions with bleed 1 inop, what happens?
Pack 1will turn off to ensure adequate airflow to deice system
62
What does an amber bar across the top of BLEED 1 Pb indicate?
Bleed leak
63
What happens when you press the RECIRC button on the pneumatic panel?
Recirc fans turn off
64
When are packs 1&2 Automatically turned off?
DUMP button
Thrust levers MAX
During TO with REF ECS OFF And APU off
65
If you select REF ECS OFF and turn off the APU, will the pack valves open on takeoff?
No. Unpressurized takeoff will take place
66
REF ECS OFF and APU on for takeoff, will packs valves open for takeoff?
Yes
67
During takeoff you encounter windshear. After selecting MAX POWER what happens to the packs?
They turn off
68
When MAX POWER is selected, what happens to the packs and recirc fans?
Commanded off
69
What would be an indication of an APU bleed leak?
Amber bar illuminated on APU BLEED pb
| Also associated EICAS message
70
How can you give cabin temp control to the FA?
Rotate PAX CABIN knob to the detent: ATTND
71
What conditions command the recirc fans to turn off automatically?
DUMP PB
Smoke detected in recirculation bay
When associated pack is turned off
72
What 2 conditions command the yaw damper on automatically?
1) YD defaults to ON at system startup
| 2) it is automatically turned on when AP is engaged
73
What is the function of the AT button in flight?
Engages and disengages AT
74
How do you cancel the AT warning?
Push the AT disc button again
75
Can the AP disconnect aural warning be silenced by pressing the AP button on the panel?
No
76
How do you select FD off?
Press FD Button
| This forces system into speed T
77
What does the green arrow mean on the AFCS panel?
Indicates source side
78
What are the default vertical and lateral modes?
ROLL and FPA
79
With AT engaged what speed mode would be expected when in VS?
Speed T
80
Is bank limiting function available in all lateral modes?
No only HDG
81
Can WX Radar be displayed on the PFD map when green needles are selected?
No must be magenta needles
82
MINIMUMS knob: RA allows for audio callouts based on RADAR altimeter. What approaches are affected using the RA selection?
CAT 1, II, III
83
What happens when you rotate the minimums knob to 0?
Turns the minimums display OFF and audio callouts are inhibited
84
What AT mode is shown:
| white TO
TO mode is armed
85
What does TO shown in green mean?
TO is active AT mode
86
What vertical guidance does TO mode provide?
FD guidance V2 - V2+10 after liftoff
87
During takeoff what does HOLD mean?
HOLD is active AT mode and Serbia are de energized till 400’
88
What airspeed do you see TRACK on takeoff?
100kts
89
What is TRACK mode?
Heading is kept at what heading you had at moment of engagement
90
Besides takeoff when do you see TRACK mode?
On a go around after pressing TOGA
91
What does GA mode provide?
8 degrees then
Vref + 20
1 eng: Vac
92
What is the threat of changing the altitude when plane is in ASEL
Could go to FPA and continue climb or descent
93
In green FLCH will FMS altitude constraints be honored?
No
94
In magenta FLCH will FMS altitude constraints be honored?
Yes
95
When in magenta FLCH what displays on the HUD?
VFLCH
96
What is vnav PTH?
Aircraft intercepts and tracks an FMS generated vertical path to meet vertical constraints in FMS flight plan.
97
Can you use PTH in HDG
No
98
When you select HEG what is the default vertical mode
FPA
99
Is PTH a vertical mode or descent mode or both?
Descent
100
On an ILS once cleared and selecting APP button, what do you expect to see in the FMA?
APPR 1/LOC/GS in white
101
On an ILS once cleared and intercepted, what do you expect to see in the FMA?
APPR 1/LOC GS in green
102
When cleared for an RNAV apch you selected APP button and what should you see on FMA:
GP in white
103
When on RNAV apch what do you see in HUD with this GP captured?
VGP
104
What does HUD a3 mean?
HUD is armed for CAT II & III
105
When HUD A3 is active what do you expect to see in standby fields?
RLOUT and FLARE
106
What are the two VNAV descent modes?
FLCH
| PTH
107
What does TO represent in the vertical mode column?
Airspeed will be V2+10 or V2 - V2+10 SE
108
What is green FLCH
Airplane will use pitch to achieve desired airspeed
109
What is speed on elevator mode?
Airplane uses a fixed thrust setting
110
What is speed on thrust mode?
ATs Use thrust to achieve desired speed
111
What is GP based on?
Coded FMS descent angle
112
What does LIM mean?
You requested a speed that can’t be achieved because already at idle
113
What is the symbol in the hud with a line extending down or up above the wing perpendicular to it?
Speed error tape
Tape above wing: speed greater than selected
Tape below wing: speed slower than selected
114
What is the crowbar symbol?
AOA limit aka stick shaker will happen here
115
What does Amber course needle mean?
You selected a cross side navigation source
116
What is a green needle?
VOR or localizer is selected
117
What is the green chevron that goes up and down to the left of the green wing?
It indicates you are accelerating
118
What is the line that looks like it has eyebrows?
That’s the PLI. AOA is approaching stick shaker
119
What happens when PLI reaches aircraft reference symbol?
Stick shaker
120
You taxi in and park. 2 engines running. You select GPU. What is AC BUS 2s source of power?
IDG 2
121
You taxi in and park. 2 engines running. You select GPU. You shut down engine 2. What is AC BUS 2s source of power?
GPU via AC BUS TIE
122
In cruise you receive IDG 1 OFF BUS caution message. Where is AC BUS 1 receiving power now?
AC BUS TIE....IDG 2
123
IDG 1 failed. You start the APU. Where is AC BUS 1 getting its power?
APU
124
You see a IDG 1 OIL message. What indication do you expect to see on the panel?
Amber DISC illumination of IDG 1
125
Following a QRH procedure you disconnect the IDG. Can you reconnect it later?
No
126
What does white AVAIL mean?
When AC GPU is connected but NOT powering the AC BUS TIE
127
If the QRH instructs you to deselect the APU GEN switch, what would this action do?
Opens APU generator contractor isolating it from the AC BUS TIE
128
During OET to the gate with #2 engine off and APU off, what is AC BUS 1s power source?
IDG 1
129
During OET to the gate with #2 engine off and APU off, what is AC BUS 2s power source?
IDG 1 Via the AC BUS TIE
130
In flight what powers AC BUS 1
IDG 1
131
If AC bus 1 isn’t available what powers AC BUS 1?
IDG 2 via the AC BUS TIE
132
What does IN USE mean?
The GPU is powering the AC BUS TIE
133
During cruise you are instructed by QRH to take the AC BUS TIE selector sw to 1 OPEN. What did that do?
Isolated AC BUS 1 from the AC BUS TIE (opens BTC 1)
134
What is the priority of the AC BUS TIE?
APU, GPU, IDG
135
If AC BUS TIE SW is in 1 OPEN and IDG 1 is working normally, will we lose anything?
Nope. Unless IDG 1 is unavailable
136
What happens if the TRU switch is moved to OFF?
Isolated respective TRU from its DC bus
137
If you select TRU 1 OFF would DCBUS 1 still get power?
Yes via the DC tie Contactor
138
What happens when you switch the DC BUS TIE to OFF?
Opens all DC bus tie contactors and limits systems capability to tie DC busses automatically
139
What busses are powered no matter what?
Hot battery busses 1 & 2
140
Why is there an auto for BATT 2
AUTO allows BATT 2 to supply power to either the DC essential 2 bus or APU start bus
141
How does thenAITO portion of IDG 1 OR IDG 2 rotary knob work?
It allows the IDG contactor to close, connecting the IDG to the respecting AC BUS automatically according to system logic
142
What is the OFF function of the IDG?
OFF opens the
| Contactor isolating the IDG from the respective AC bus
143
Describe the operation of the ESSENTIAL TRU when in AUTO
Allows automatic connection of the TRU ESS to the ESS BUS 3
144
What is the difference between OFF and AUTO on the batt 2 selector?
OFF only HBB 2 is connected
AUTO connects BATT 2 to either DC ESS BUS 2 or APU START BUS
145
What happens when you pull the fire EXT handle?
Closes bleed valve
Hydraulic shutoff valve
Fuel SOV
Slowly generator comes offline
146
Will AC power be removed immediately if APU is switched OFF?
Yes, if another source is available
147
If no other power, turning OFF the APU will cause electrical power and pneumatics to...
Power 1 min
| Air shuts off immediately
148
What happens if you switch APU off then back on inside it’s 1 min cool down?
Electrics will come back online
149
Can the AC be left unattended with APU running?
No
150
Why can’t we leave the APU unattended?
The APU fire bottle doesn’t discharge automatically
151
Can you do a preflight walkaround with APU running?
Yes, you’re in the aircraft footprint
152
What happens when you press red guarded APU EMER STOP pb?
APU FUEL SOV closes
APU stops with no cooldown
White stripe in bottom of PB
153
With no fire what happens if you press APU Fire EXT Pb?
SOV closes and agent will discharge
154
Can the APU FADEC command automatic shutdown?
Yes within 10 seconds if daily detected
155
When would FIRE EXTINGUISHER APU light illuminate red?
When EMER STOP PB has been pressed and an APU Fire is detected
OR
60 sec after an APU Fire is detected and no pilot action has occurred
156
Cargo smoke detected in flight. What happens if I press FWD CARGO SMOKE PB?
One press discharges the high rate bottle followed by low rate 60 sec later
157
Cargo smoke NOT detected in flight. What happens if I press the CARGO SMOKE PB?
One push arms the high rate bottle.
| Second push discharges the high rate bottle, 60 sec, then low rate bottle
158
What happens to the rudder system when in DIRECT mode?
Lose high level functions:
Airspeed gain scheduling
Yaw damp...
159
What happens when the Spoilers are in DIRECT MODE?
Lose high level functions
Speed brakes
Ground spoilers
160
When will speed brakes automatically retract?
Less than 180kt
Flaps 2 selected
PLs advanced on GA
161
Can speedbrakes be deployed on the ground?
No
162
What flap position is gated?
4
163
Under normal conditions what flaps are available for landing?
5 and FULL
164
Under normal conditions what flap settings are available for TO?
1, 2, 3, 4
165
What indications do you get if flaps are 5 and gear is up?
“LANDING GEAR LANDING GEAR”
166
How do you cancel the “LANDING GEAR” alert?
Put down the gear
167
What happens when you press the SYS 1 or SYS 2 TRIM CUTOUT PBs?
Disables channels 1 or 2
168
What happens if you hold half the trim switch for over 5 sec
It locks out that switch
169
What is the pitch trim priority?
Backup trim
Captains
FOs
Autopilot
170
Why is trim actuation limited to 3 sec?
To prevent runaway trim situations all trim actuation is limited to 3 sec
171
What happens when you pull the ELEVATOR DISCONNECT handle?
Disconnects the elevator system
Each pilot has their inside elevator
PITCH DISCONNECT EICAS message
172
What happens to the artificial feel when you disconnect the ailerons?
Capt has artificial feel, FO doesn’t
173
Can you reset the aileron or elevator disconnect handles in flight?
No
174
How many positions are there for the control wheel communications switch?
3
PTT
HOT
OFF
175
What does the HOT position of the control wheel communications switch do?
Hot intercom communication
176
What is the function of the PTT on the control communications switch?
Push to transmit switch
177
What is the primary purpose of the AP/TRIM disconnect button?
1. To disengage the autopilot
2. To silence the “autopilot autopilot” sound
3. Disables all trim channels as long as button is held depressed
178
How can you disable the trim channels?
Press and hold the red AP/TRIM DISC switch
179
Will the autopilot disconnect if you press the pitch trim switch?
Yes
180
Where is The chronograph displayed?
Upper right hand corner of the compass rose on the PFD
181
Under normal condition is ADS 3 an AUTO function or a MANUAL function?
ADS 3 is a AUTO function
182
When you see a white stripe on the REVERSIONARY PANEL on the IRS button, what does that mean?
The IRS has reverted?
183
In the event of a failure would the IRS revert automatically if the IRS button has a white line in it?
No it would be performed manually
184
How many ADSs do we have?
3
185
How many IRSs do we have?
2
186
On the reversionary panel, What would happen if you were to turn the display knob to PFD?
It would force the MFD to be a PFD
187
On the reversionary panel what would happen if you turn the display knob to EICAS?
It would force the associated MFD to be an EICAS
188
On the reversionary panel, What is the function of AUTO?
AUTO will let automatic reversion of the MFD in case of a display malfunction
189
On the standby attitude indicator (the little one) is the CAGE function available during initialization mode?
No
| Wings level stabilized flight only
190
What approaches are on the standby attitude indicator (IESS)?
Cat 1 ILS
191
What would be an indication on the standby attitude indicator IESS of a GS failure during an ILS?
Red X where GS should be
192
What does the ADS probe button do when pushed in?
ADS probe heat
| Heats the probes prior to engine start
193
Prior to seating the FLT ATT for take off how can I check to make sure I’m not stepping on their PA briefing?
Press PA button and listen
194
The MIC/MASK Switch is normally left in the auto position, what does auto allow?
Turns on mask mic automatically when the oxygen mask is removed from its cabinet or tested
195
Can you make a PA with MIC selected OFF?
Yes, the PA button
196
When would the BKUP VOL switch (PUSH OUT) be used?
In the event of dual audio busses fail or ACP failure
197
What is the function of the ID button?
Activated a filter that eliminates voice VOR and ADF audio so the identification can be heard
198
What is the significance of the green chevron near and slightly above the wing of the aircraft reference symbol?
It indicates that you are accelerating
199
What is the significance of the PLI?
Indicates that the AOA is approaching stick shaker
200
What will happen when the PLI meets the aircraft reference symbol?
Stick shaker
201
Unpowered aircraft with no GPU. Which electric fuel pumps are available for APU start?
DC PUMP
202
In flight with #1 ejector pump failure, will fuel pressure be lost on the left side?
Nope. AC pump 1 will come on
203
What situations command AC pump one to turn on automatically?
Ejector pump failure
Engine start
X feed
(AC pump 2 comes on for APU starts)
204
With GPU powering the plane which pump will be used for APU start?
AC pump 2
205
What happens to the AC pumps when cross-feed LOW 2 is selected?
AC pump 1 ON
| X FEED valve OPEN
206
With no GPU booked up, what pump provides fuel for APU start?
DC pump
207
In AUTO what will cause the PTU to operate?
Low pressure in system 2:
| Eng 2 failure or EDP failure
208
What is the PTUs primary purpose?
Provides normal gear retraction/ ext if there’s failures
209
In flight when does hydraulic ELEC PUMP 2 automatically run?
During landing:
Flaps >0
If low pressure is detected
210
On the ground when does hydraulic ELEC pump 2 automatically run?
#1 eng started and parking brake released
On takeoff flaps >0 and thrust levers advanced OR
GS >50
211
During taxi, will the failure of hyd ELEC PUMP 3A command ELEC PUMP 3B to come on automatically?
No. In flight only when low pressure is detected
212
How could you manually isolate an EDP from the hydraulic system?
Push SYS 1/2 PUMP SHUTOFF button
Pulling associated T Handle
213
When would SYS 1/2 ELEC PUMP operate automatically in flight?
EDP failure or flaps not at 0
214
Will the windshield wipers operate on a dry windshield?
No
215
Windshield wipers: What is the function of the TIMER position?
Intermittent operation
216
If both windshield wipers are selected to LOW or HI, which side do they sync to?
Captain side
217
During initial power up would you expect the windshield heat system to be active?
Yes, for approximately 2 mind during PBIT test
218
After PBIT test do windshield heaters stay active?
No. They need 2 sources of AC power not counting the GPU
219
In flight with only 1 source AC power what happens to the FO side windshield heat?
It will shed.
Unless captains is broken then it won’t.
220
After landing in icing conditions will anti ice be provided to the engines for your taxi to the gate?
No
221
On ground what happens when you select A/I?
Engine A/I only
222
When you set MCDU REF A/I ALL when will A/I be provided to the engines? To the wings?
Engines: as soon as they’re started
Wings: >40kt
223
With MCDU REF AI OFF, when is AI available on takeoff?
1700ft or 2 mins after takeoff
224
In flight what happens when you select ice protection mode to ON?
Activated wing AI and Engine AI regardless of conditions
225
What happens if the ice protection WING button is pushed out/ has a white line across it?
Deactivated wing AI
226
In flight when do wing and engine AI systems turn off automatically
After 5 mins of no ice
227
When will windshield heat come on?
During the 2 min PBIT test
| As soon as 2 sources of AC exist (not GPU)
228
What is required to operate ENG and WING AI protection in auto mode?
All buttons are pushed in
On the ground, REF AI LSK??
otherwise it’s automatic in flight
229
Decision to reject at 50 kts. Will auto brakes activate?
No must be 60kts
230
With thrust levers above idle are you able to arm RTO?
No must be idle or below
231
Decision to reject made above 60kts. Thrust levers moved to idle. What kind of braking will be commanded in RTO?
Max brake application up to anti skid protection
232
During a reject, what pilot action commands activation of RTO braking?
Thrust levers idle or below
233
What does the EMERGENCY/PRKG BRAKE light mean?
Parking brake is actuated
Sufficient pressure exists to maintain pressure
234
What is the red button next to the gear handle that says “DN LOCK REL”?
Mechanically releases landing gear lock
235
How is the parking brake released?
Press the little button on the end of the handle
236
With gear lever in up position would the gear go down if you place the override switch in the down position?
Yes
237
Using the alternate gear extension switch, how is the gear extended?
Using the switch just bypasses the Landing gear lever
238
While taxiing to the gate, the FO selects “stop 2” but the engine doesn’t stop. What might be wrong?
Thrust lever not at idle
239
In flight what happens if ignition is turned off?
Nothing
240
What will cause automatic deployment of pax O2 masks?
14,000ft cabin alt
241
What happens if you rotate the MASK DEPLOY knob to OVRD?
It will deploy the masks
| No smoking and fasten belts will also come on
242
What does the GND PROX GS INHIB button do?
Manually cancels glideslope alerts
243
What resets the GND PROX GS INHIB?
Climbing above 2000ft RA
OR Descending below 30’ RA
244
What does the LG WATN INHIB button do?
Cancels gear warnings when you have a dual radio altimeter failure
245
TO CONFIG tests...
Trim in the green
Flaps set and match MCDU
PRK BRK off
Spoilers retracted
246
What is a white bar in the EICAS FULL button?
Auto declutter inhibited
247
When does AUTO DECLUTTER occur for the EICAS?
30 sec after gear/flap/ slay retraction if everything is normal
Or when button is pushed
248
When would you use the GND PROX OVRD switch?
When landing something other than flaps 5 or FULL
