SQ2 Flashcards
(175 cards)
1
Q
Which verification category is assigned to characteristics which would be classified as critical if found defective?
A
Type I
2
Q
What Program at Navy ICPs was established to standardize previously existing programs for intensive management of high cost, critical aviation and shipboard repairable items?
A
IRIM
3
Q
Which form of correspondence will only be used when information is of an urgent nature and must be rapidly transmitted
A
Naval message
4
Q
Over how many supply items are in the Department of Defense (DoD) supply system?
A
4,000,000
5
Q
Which program is used to automate screening residual asset inventories?
A
RRAM
Real-time Reutilization Asset Management
6
Q
Within how many hours of discovery must a Category I Technical Publications Deficiency Report (TPDR) be initiated and sent by Priority message via the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS) when a safety related technical publication deficiency is detected which, if not corrected, could result in death or injury or damage to or loss of aircraft, equipment, or facilities?
A
24
7
Q
Standard forklift trucks are available with lifting capacities of 2,000 to how many pounds?
A
15,000
8
Q
Which Management Information System (MIS) is based on the collection, download, analysis, and visualization of available aircraft systems data to provide quantifiable and actionable information that can be used to enhance naval aviation readiness through improved maintenance, operational, safety, and training efficiencies?
A
MFOQA
Military Flight Operations Quality Assurance (MFOQA)
9
Q
How often is an Operations and Maintenance, Navy (O&MN) appropriation enacted by Congress?
A
Annually
10
Q
What is the PMA awarded for a Must Promote?
A
3.8
11
Q
What receives all requests for material requirements, prepares appropriate documentation, maintains appropriate files and registers, and provides status to the customers?
A
RCU
12
Q
What serves as the point of contact for satisfying maintenance material requirements?
A
SRS
13
Q
Which term identifies members of the military force and civilian personnel engaged in hostilities
A
Lawful combatants
As a member of a military force, you are allowed during periods of hostilities to attack and even kill the lawful combatants of your enemy. Generally speaking, the term lawful combatants means members of the military force and civilian personnel engaged in hostilities.
14
Q
What should be completed if an enlisted member refuses to sign a performance report?
A
NAVPERS 1070/613
15
Q
What serves as the transportation focal point within the Navy?
A
NAVSUP WSS
16
Q
For O-level and I-level activities, AMMT examines items, such as the self-assessment report, NAVRIIP/cockpit charts, AMRRs, ASM reports, MDRs, MMPs, and what else?
A
Aviation 3M summaries
17
Q
What states specific T/M/S MC and FMC readiness goals?
A
MESM
18
Q
How many two digit numeric codes is the Federal Catalog System (FCS) made up of?
A
2
federal supply group and the federal supply class
19
Q
Preliminary allowance documents are initially provided to air station Supply departments by Naval Supply Weapon Systems Support (NAVSUP WSS) as well as every how many years thereafter?
A
2
20
Q
Which process is used for determining the accuracy and adequacy of a proposed Technical Directive (TD) and reporting the results to the preparing activity?
A
Verification
21
Q
Refer to what instruction and the Judge Advocate General Manual for further information on environmental protection and HAZWASTE?
A
OPNAVINST 5090.1
22
Q
Which officer rank is identified by two ½ inch stripes on their sleeve?
A
Lieutenant
23
Q
Which publication serves as a handy reference for personnel responsible for originating and processing MILSTRIP and MILSTRAP documents and contains those common definitions, coding structures, and abbreviated code definitions used on a day-to-day basis?
A
NAVSUP P-409
24
Q
Which type of Technical Directive (TD) directs a one-time inspection to determine if a given condition exists and specifies what action shall be taken if the condition is found?
A
Bulletin
25
The cost code consists of how many characters and may be alphabetic, numeric, or both?
12
26
To provide a contractor and the on-site contract administration office with a properly developed contract, dedicated efforts must be started how many months prior to desired award date?
Twelve
27
What maintains a record of RIP and on-hand quantity and other material related data for each item of stock?
SIT
| Stock Item Table
28
Which maintenance level of Fleet Readiness Centers (FRCs) are not required to maintain an Oil Consumption Program?
D-level
29
CLF supply support is normally by what method?
Underway Replenishment
30
Which manual provides standard subject identification numbers for classifying correspondence, numbering instructions and notices, and assigning report symbols?
SECNAV M-5210.2
31
Each year Congress enacts what appropriation that authorizes the Navy to buy needed material and services?
O&MN
32
Maintain audit files for how long? These files shall include completed CSEC discrepancy sheets, corrective actions, QA follow-up annotations, and accompanying routing forms.
One year
33
If NALCOMIS is off-line for a significant period of time (more than how long), the ASD must process all demands (repairable and consumable) in a manual mode?
One hour
34
NAVAIR 00-25-403 along with which other publication contain specific requirements and procedures for Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM) analysis?
DOD Directive 4151.18
35
What must never be used to clean engines or its parts?
Gasoline
DO NOT use gasoline to clean the engine or its parts
36
What codes are three-position alphanumeric address designations for a supply activity within the Department of Defense (DoD) wholesale and retail system?
RI
37
The MP&T Coordinator is only assigned to CV IMAs and the larger (how many or above manning during the year, including TAD personnel) Navy shore IMAs which provide I-level support for a significant number of aviation activities?
500
38
Within how many days must Product Quality Deficiency Reports (PQDRs) be submitted to one of the three Screening Points after discovery of a Category II Product Quality Deficiency?
5
39
What is charged for issues when the requisitioner does not make a turn-in?
Standard price
40
Which publication should be referred to for Material Control Code (MCC) codes and definitions?
NAVSUP P-488
41
How many days prior to deployment should Navy Cash Cards be ordered to ensure prompt receipt?
60
42
How many categories are material discrepancies divided into?
2
43
The ordering activity must complete a Shipping Discrepancy Report (SDR) if material received under contract on a DD Form 1155 was not received within how many days of the specified delivery date?
60
44
Aviation squadrons use how many types of funds?
Two
45
Requisition file maintenance begins when a requisition is prepared and the hardback copy of the procurement document is placed in the what?
MOF
46
Rapid Action Minor Engineering Changes (RAMECs) will have a maximum rescission interval of how many years after the issue date?
5
47
What processing includes all temporary detachments deployed by the O-level?
Same ORG code
48
What price is charged per pound or fraction thereof; any fraction of a pound is considered a whole pound?
Parcel Post
49
What is defined as a tool inventory or container layout diagram that is changed and is determined to have fleet-wide applications?
TCM change
50
What, by virtue of their unique function and responsibility, present inherently hazardous situations when approached improperly?
ALSS
51
How many days at a minimum must defective material be held for?
60
52
Which Act requires payment of an interest penalty to U.S. vendors for those invoices not paid by the due date?
Prompt Payment Act
53
At least how often will the SARC or SAPR VA facilitate SAPR training?
Annually
54
How often at a minimum must ATG conduct mandatory Government Commercial Purchase Card Program (GCPC) audits?
Quarterly
55
Newly established squadrons and squadrons transitioning from one T/M/S aircraft to another within COMNAVAIRFOR shall comply with Safe for Flight Operations Certification per what instruction?
COMNAVAIRFORINST 5400.1
56
Which term means inattention to duty or failure to take action that, under the circumstances, should have been taken to prevent the loss, destruction, or damage of any military property?
Neglect
Willful means intentional. Neglect means inattention to duty or failure to take action that, under the circumstances, should have been taken to prevent the loss, destruction, or damage of any military property.
57
What products are liquids, solutions, or powders contained in pressurized dispensers?
Aerosol
58
Up to what percent can nylon be stretched before it breaks?
50
Astretch of one third of its length is normal for nylon line under safe working loads. Nylon stretches about 50 percent before it will break. Because of its elasticity, nylon line breaks with a decided snapback; therefore, stand well clear when it is under a heavy strain.
59
What are the two categories of authority?
General and Organizational
Authority is granted only to support you in carrying out your assigned duties and responsibilities. Authority falls into two categories: GENERAL and ORGANIZATIONAL. All officer and petty officers have the general authority needed to fulfill their duties and responsibilities by virtue of their positions within the Navy organization. Individuals have the organizational authority needed to fulfill their duties and responsibilities by virtue of assignment to a specific billet within an organizational subunit of the Navy (ship, station, staff, and so forth).
60
Which system provides O-level, I-level, and Aviation Supply Department (ASD) activities with a modern, real time, responsive, computer based Management Information System (MIS)?
NALCOMIS
61
Which form must be used to requisition replenishment of a Local Item Control Number (LICN) item?
DD Form 1348-6
62
On Combat Logistics Force (CLF) ships, ships will not offload Navy Working Capital Fund (NWCF) materials ashore without the approval of whom?
TYCOM
63
Which program provides the policy and procedures whereby maintenance activities can effectively accomplish their assigned engine maintenance responsibilities?
Gas Turbine Engine Maintenance Program
64
What is the primary means of recording aircraft status changes, from acceptance into the inventory until final strike?
XRAY
65
What is the goal for gross effectiveness for COMNAVSURFPAC/COMNAVSURFLANT ships set at?
65%
66
Which series establishes the policy used to conduct the cleaning and corrosion prevention and control of avionics equipment?
NAVAIR 01-1A-509
67
The policy and procedures for PQS are outlined in what instruction?
OPNAVINST 3500.34
68
What services are those services rendered over a period of time and requires frequent invoicing and supplemental certification and payment by DFAS?
Continuing
69
The routing and dispatching of mail for Navy units operating out of their homeports or when they are deployed overseas is carried out by responsible mail-routing activities using information provided to them by each unit in the form of what?
MRIs
70
What uses temporary NICN’s to identify and control items pending assignment of NSN?
DLSC
71
Which Recommended Reorder Type will consider all records that are in reorder condition?
Routine
72
What is the code assigned to support items to indicate to maintenance and supply personnel the reclamation or disposition action required for items removed and replaced during maintenance?
Recoverabilty
73
How often at a minimum must O, I, and D-level Quality Assurance (QA) accompany Collateral Duty Inspectors (CDIs) during scheduled and unscheduled maintenance tasks to recheck their qualifications?
Annually
74
Activities operating and maintaining laser equipment must establish a Laser Hazard Control Program per which naval instruction?
OPNAVINST 5100.27
75
What process allows MFCS to track all shipboard receipts and expenditures, including adjustments, of SUPPO managed inventory assets making appropriate debits and credits to the NWCF stores account?
TIR
76
How many components make up STA-21?
2
77
What must be in control of maintenance to ensure successful operation?
Maintenance Control
78
What percent of Full Mission Capable (MC) has been established by the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) as the overall Naval Aviation Enterprise (NAE) aircraft material readiness goal?
96%
79
Which sets provide step by step procedures and instructions for engine disassembly to a controlled depth?
CERRC
Complete Engine Repair Requirements Card (CERRC)
80
What is a data processing system for recall and scheduling of test, measuring, and diagnostic equipment into calibration facilities?
MEASURE
Metrology Automated System for Uniform Recall and Reporting (MEASURE)
81
Which Information Technology (IT) system will be used to document corrective and preventive actions?
eCAM
Electronic Continual Analysis and Metrics (eCAM)
82
In what block (FITREP/CHIEFEVAL) will the operational commander reporting senior fill in the Member’s Trait Average and the Summary Group Average next to the line identifier?
45
83
Which UCMJ article covers missing ships movement?
87
Art. 87. Missing Movement Any person subject to this chapter who through neglect or design misses themovement of a ship, aircraft, or unit with which he is required in the course of duty to move shall be punished as a court-martial may direct. Provisions of article 87 should be self-explanatory. However, note that the violator, to be found guilty, need not have known the exact hour or even the exact date of the scheduled movement. If a person had knowledge of only the approximate date, the court may convict the absentee on the charge of missing movement. Missing movement is a serious offense in the Navy. It leaves the ship shorthanded and requires someone else to do the absentee’s work and stand the absentee’s watches.
84
Who sponsors the aviation 3M System?
CNO
85
Who is responsible for the assigned shore-based education and training of Navy personnel?
CNET
Chief of Naval Education and Training (CNET) is responsible for assigned shore-based education and training of Navy, certain Marine Corps, and other personnel. Education and training efforts support the fleet, naval shore establishment, Naval Reserve, security assistance program, and interservice training programs. CNET also develops specific education and training afloat programs for the fleet and controls Navy support for youth programs. This command acts as the DoD agent for the Defense Activity for Nontraditional Education Support (DANTES) and executes the Navy’s responsibility for dependents’ education. CNET takes part in research and development activities to develop and carry out the most effective teaching and training systems and devices.
86
What post inspection is performed at the time a reporting custodian receives an aircraft from on-site standard and special rework?
D-level
87
When requested by the M&S code in a requisition, any supply source that processes the requisition is required to provide supply status to the appropriate addressee(s) within how many work days after receipt of the requisition/follow up for PD 09-15 requisitions?
5
88
What service provides the mailer with information about the date and time an article was delivered and, if delivery was attempted but not successful, the date and time of the delivery attempt?
Signature Confirmation
89
All ships are required to conduct causative research on all missing DLRs or parts greater than which amount prior to expending from inventories?
$2,500
90
What service is a form of return receipt service that provides the sender with a mailing receipt (PS 3804) and a return receipt (PS 3811)?
Return receipt for merchandise
91
The objective of what program is to establish policy, responsibilities, and requirements for monitoring equipment conditions in an effort to sustain a satisfactory level of aircraft survivability equipment/systems readiness?
ASE
92
What shall be responsible for providing necessary planning, programming and budgeting for manpower and training resources to support fleet training requirements?
NPDC
93
The primary accountability for aviation MFs and major related equipment is the what?
LIR
94
Which system provides the DoD and other Federal employees access to the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) for hazardous items in Government inventory?
HMIRS
Hazardous Material Information Resource System (HMIRS)
95
What are developed and maintained by the DLA Logistics Service to provide approved national item description and related data required to identify or select items of supply?
IL
Identification Lists (IL)
96
Flammable items stowed in the flammable liquids storeroom are those items assigned Special Material Content Codes (SMCCs) of D, F, G, and what else?
Z
97
What is the maximum profit allowed for the retail store?
20%
98
How often at a minimum shall the Hazardous Material Control & Management (HMC&M) Program be evaluated for compliance and effectiveness?
Annually
The HMC&M Program shall be evaluated annually for compliance and effectiveness.
99
How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for advancing personnel to E-5 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program?
2
Each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) are authorized the following quotas per quarter (JAN-MAR, APR-JUN, JUL-SEP, and OCT-DEC): Advancement Number of Quotas to E2 Unlimited to E3 6 to E4 4 to E5 2 to E6 1
100
How often are Naval Supply Weapon Systems Support (NAVSUP WSS) controlled material allowances adjusted by Naval Supply Weapon Systems Support (NAVSUP WSS) for Transaction Item Report (TIR) activities?
Quarterly
101
If a field level repairable cannot be repaired locally, it will be turned in at the nearest what?
DOP
102
What is an Early Promote evaluation recommendation worth?
4.0
Early Promote = 4.0 Must Promote = 3.8 Promotable = 3.6 Progressing = 3.4 Significant Problems = 2.0
103
Which type of material are items having a unit of issued greater than the unit of application categorized as?
Indirect
104
Shore-based Navy squadrons who have I-level billets authorized shall assign personnel to the supporting IMA/FRC for a minimum of how long?
12 months
105
What is used to document TD compliance?
WO
106
The personnel assigned QA duties in O-level and I-level activities are known as CDIs, CDQARs, and what?
QARs
107
What indicate which Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs) are to be complied with, the numbers and specialties of personnel required, times during which the separate jobs are scheduled for completion, Power/Air off or on conditions required during the work, and the area where the work is to be performed?
SCCs
Sequence Control Cards
108
How many points is a Category 4: Flight Critical Corrosion Material Condition Inspection (MCI) Material Discrepancy worth?
5
109
How many hours prior to the aircraft’s initial launch should fuel samples be taken?
24
110
What is an authorization by an Act of Congress to incur obligations for a specified time and purpose and to make payments out of the Treasury?
Appropriation
111
The primary focus of TYCOM AMMTs is to evaluate and assist activities in their ability to support what requirements?
Operational
112
What assists you in delivering mail to personnel, and in forwarding or returning mail addressed to personnel no longer at your command?
Directory service
113
What term refers to the inventory manager and technical advisor of each category of material in the supply system?
Material Cognizance
114
What is defined as that maintenance time when no work is being performed by any work center involved in the inspection?
AWM
Awaiting Maintenance (AWM)
115
Which category of Product Quality Deficiency Reports (PQDRs) will be used for quality deficiencies assessed to have significant and widespread material or human resource impact but do not affect safety of personnel or impair combat efficiency?
Category II
116
Which publication will be the governing and primary screening tool for Technical Directive (TD) compliance of all aircraft and aircraft engines?
NAVAIR 00-500C
117
How many months at a minimum after the completion date must completed Maintenance Action Forms (MAFs) be retained by Production Control as a historical file?
6
118
How much per person per quarter are Commanding Officers authorized to distribute to participating units within the command when the primary needs of the ship’s MWR program have been met?
$2.50
119
Within how many calendar days should all activities with overseas shipments submit a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR) from the shipment date?
90
120
Which Act requires federal agencies to pay interest penalties for the late payment of a proper dealer’s invoice?
Prompt Payment Act
121
Which instruction contains specific instructions for local handling, marking, and storage of Engineering Investigations (E/I) Exhibits?
OPNAVINST 4790.2
122
The reporting senior authority for officers may be delegated to heads of those components without prior NAVPERSCOM (PERS-311) approval in shore commands having components that are permanently located more than how many miles from the headquarters?
50
123
What provides current data for requisitioning purposes (unit/issue/price, etc...)?
Management List-Navy
124
What report provides key detailed data from MAFs/WOs completed by a unit during the selected reporting period?
MAINT-6
125
Which form will be used by the Navy Cash Accountable Officer to appoint Navy Cash deputies?
DD Form 577
126
When shortages are discovered upon receipt of an aircraft and are not properly recorded in the AIR, the receiving organization will itemize shortages and submit a list of such shortages, within how many working days after receipt of the aircraft, to the organization from which the aircraft was received?
10
127
Which part of the ABCD risk management model is specifically tied to making risk decisions?
Balance Resources
128
You should upload RIP data from scanners to the IBS Normal Site Computer at least how often?
Daily
129
What is used to establish a formal, continuous chain of accountability for specific equipment installed on or designated for use on any aircraft?
Aircraft Inventory Record (AIR)
130
Who coordinates change proposals with the TYCOMs for submission to the NTCSS Requirements Integrated Product Team?
Program Manager
131
Which class of personal effects consists of uniform clothing prescribed by U.S. Navy Uniform Regulations?
Class 2
132
The Retail Operations Officer is required to conduct weekly unannounced spot inventories of what percentage of stock in bulk storerooms and retail outlets?
10%
133
Who is responsible for preparing and publishing the Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP)?
MMCO
Maintenance Material Control Officer
134
Which instruction contains structural life limited items and components for fixed wing aircraft?
NAVAIRINST 13120.1
135
Personnel in what paygrades that are ordered to a Class "A" school incorporating a lengthy course of instruction shall be converted in rating at an equal paygrade after successful completion of the basic or A-1 phase of that course of instruction?
E1 through E5
Personnel in paygrades E1 through E5 who are ordered to a Class "A" school that incorporates a lengthy course of instruction shall be converted in rating at an equal paygrade after successful completion of the basic or A-1 phase of that course of instruction. MILPERSMAN 1160-090 and 1440-010 outline the authorized exceptions to this policy and specify those points during training at which rating conversion may be effected. Upon actual conversion to the new rating, members may compete for advancement in the new rating provided they are otherwise eligible
136
What form is for buying aviation gasoline and lubricants from DoD activities?
DD Form 1897
137
Which Quality Assurance (QA) term is defined as a periodic or special evaluation of details, plans, policies, procedures, products, directives, and records?
Audit
138
Which term refers to a procedure or practice that, if not correctly followed, could result in injury, long term health hazards, or death?
Warning
139
Required rework of SE beyond the capability of the IMA/FRC shall be performed under the provisions of what instruction at the next level of maintenance, normally an FRC or commercial contractor?
NAVAIRINST 13680.1
140
The major responsibility of what is to provide material in support of the operation and maintenance of aeronautical equipment?
Navy Supply System
141
What provides on-line data and management reports that are used to improve the aircraft readiness and inventory validity?
Optimized NALCOMIS AIS (correct answer)
142
The goal for AWP accuracy is what percent?
98%
143
What is the process of traveling through enemy-held territory without being captured?
Evasion
Evasion means traveling through enemy-held territory without being captured. Falling into the hands of the enemy is an event that no military personwants to experience. However, at some point in your career you may find yourself in a situation where capture is a possibility. You need to know a few basic evasion principles to decrease your chances of winding up as a guest of the enemy.
144
What have the primary mission of rapidly delivering and supporting solutions that enable information dominance for our Naval, Joint, National and Coalition Warfighters?
SPAWARSYSCEN’s
Space and Naval Warfare Systems Centers
145
What is the minimum number of members that must make up a special court-martial (SPCM)?
3
A special court-martial (SPCM) consists of not less than three members. The accused can request that enlisted personnel serve on the court. In that event, enlisted personnel make up at least one third of the court membership. The accused has the right to consult with a defense counsel and to request that the court consist of only the military judge. A SPCM may award a more severe punishment than a SCM. For example, it can award a bad-conduct discharge, confinement for 6 months, loss of two-thirds pay per month for 6 months, and hard labor without confinement for 3 months.
146
Within how many hours after discovery must missing or destroyed silver be reported to NAVSUP N3/4?
48
147
How often at a minimum must the Food Service Officer (FSO) and Leading Culinary Specialist (LCS) review the General Mess Control Record (NAVSUP Form 338)?
Daily
148
As a general guideline no more than how many months should elapse between the ASPA inspection and the resulting adjusted PED?
18
149
NDI instructors are military or civilian personnel who have completed Instructional Delivery Continuum Journeyman Instructor Training course (What course number?) or equivalent.
A-012-0077
150
What contains the DD Form 1348 (6-pt) for outstanding requisitions?
EXREP or work stoppage file
151
How many steps are involved in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
5
152
The O-level MMP shall be distributed by what day of the month prior to the month to which it applies?
25th
153
Aviation 3M data for Aviation 3M data other than flight/readiness data, Non-aircraft data, and D-level maintenance data shall be retained for how many years?
12
154
Advancing temporary officers to permanent enlisted rates requires a NAVPERS 1070/604 entry in the enlisted field service record and what entry mailed for inclusion in the official officer record citing this instruction as authority for advancement?
NAVPERS 1070/613
Advancing temporary officers to permanent enlisted rates requires a NAVPERS 1070/604 entry in the enlisted field service record and a NAVPERS 1070/613 entry mailed for inclusion in the official officer record citing this instruction as authority for advancement. The NAVPERS 1070/613 shall contain the following comments in the remarks section: "TEMPORARY OFFICER APPOINTMENT WHILE SERVING IN A PERMANENT ENLISTED STATUS. Rate from: XXXX, Rate to: XXXX, Effective date: YYMMDD, Auth: BUPERSINST 1430.16F."
155
The most widely accepted method of publishing the results of maintenance analysis is through the use of what?
Monthly maintenance summaries
156
The TYCOM automatically funds the Federal Prison Industries program at the rate of what amount per ship, per fiscal year?
$50,000 (
157
What must be achieved before benefits can be obtained from QA?
Teamwork
158
What is the primary means of recording aircraft status changes, from acceptance into the inventory until final strike?
XRAY
159
What maintains and distributes the HMIS hazardous item list?
NAVSUPSYSCOM
160
How often must inventories of computers, as reflected in command information systems security plans and on controlled equipage cards be reported to TYCOM?
Annually
161
What assigned to each person will determine his or her ability to access specific NALCOMIS menu?
SMQ
162
The DFAS performs research on differences of how much or more before including it in the SFOEDL?
$3,000
163
How often at a minimum must the Sales Officer or Duty Supply Officer conduct sanitation inspections of ship’s store spaces?
Daily
164
Who is responsible for shift change and semiannual inventories of tools assigned to the tool room?
Tool Room Supervisor
165
Which instruction should be referred to for reporting procedures for those activities with reportable engines?
NAVAIRINST 13700.15
166
Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1/2 inch stripe with 1/8 inch bluestrip broken by one hash mark, centered on the outer face of the sleeve?
W-5
167
What can be used to develop controls that may include time, money, people or equipment?
Resource
168
Which program identifies tasks, skills, and knowledge requirement for each Military Occupational Specialty (MOS)?
MATMEP
Maintenance Training Management and Evaluation Program (MATMEP)
169
Utilization of aircraft is reported by submission of which form?
OPNAV 3710/4
Naval Aircraft Flight Records (OPNAV 3710/4)
170
Which Material Control Codes (MCCs) are used to identify repairable items?
D, E, G, H, Q, or X
171
Who is responsible for tracking divisional safety petty officer training?
Safety officer
Divisional safety petty officer training completion shall be tracked by the safety officer. Training accomplishment shall be part of the annual safety self-assessment.
172
The length of a flat-size mail-piece is which dimension?
Longest
173
Which program provides the policy and procedures whereby maintenance activities can effectively accomplish their assigned engine maintenance responsibilities?
Gas Turbine Engine Maintenance
174
Any personnel removed from aircraft maintenance responsibilities for how many days or longer will receive an egress system checkout before performing any aircraft maintenance?
90
175
When an individual is no longer served by the postal activity, code the directory card for destruction so that a minimum of how many months directory service is provided?
12
