Stem cells and cell cycle Wk 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe and outline the cell cycle

A
G0: resting/stationery phase
G1: Cell Growth
S: DNA replication
G2: Preparation
M: Mitosis and cytokenisis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe an overview of cell division and the generation of new cells.

A

Stem cell -> dividing precursor cells -> terminally differentiated cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does mitosis and cytokenisis mean?

A

Mitosis: Nuclear division
Cytokenisis: Cytoplasmic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe an overview of the role of gene expression in determining cell phenotype and the process of cell differentiation.

A

Tissue-specific transcription factors (regulatory proteins) determine how each cell differentiates.

Transcription factors can alter gene expression by changing histone acetylation, and also DNA methylation patterns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does terminally differentiated?

A

When a cell is determined for a function and cannot re-enter the cell cycle unless in a lab.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe and outline the importance of check points and control mechanisms.

A

Cell cycle stages avoid out of control proliferation (cancer).

Check points avoid this.

G1: Is environment favourable (does the cell have enough resources). Checks if the cell is ready for S phase.

G2: Is DNA replicated and repaired correctly before mitosis? If there is damage, it is held for repair.

Mitosis: End of mitosis. Checks alignment of chromosomes to spindle before cytokenisis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe and outline the importance of check points

A

Cell cycle stages avoid out of control proliferation (cancer).

Check points avoid this.

G1: Is environment favourable (does the cell have enough resources). Checks if the cell is ready for S phase.

G2: Is DNA replicated and repaired correctly before mitosis? If there is damage, it is held for repair.

Mitosis: End of mitosis. Checks alignment of chromosomes to spindle before cytokenisis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe and outline the importance of control mechanisms.

A

Cyclin and cyclin-dependent protein kinsases concentration rises during mitosis and falls in interphase.

Cdk add phosphates to target proteins only in presence of cyclin; thus different levels of cyclin changes the cycling-dependent kinase activity during the cell cycle.

Cdk active when cyclin autophosphorylates itself before phosphorylating other proteins which triggers the stages of the cell cycle.

Cyclin levels are degraded during proteasomal degradation.

Proteasome is a large complex of proteins which binds to cyclin and degrades / chops it up into amino acid blocks.

Proteasome is controlled by the small modifier ubiquitin. Poly-ubiquitin is a tagged protein, marking cyclin as “ready for degradation” by proteasome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe and outline the importance of control mechanisms.

A

Cyclin and cyclin-dependent protein kinsases concentration rises during mitosis and falls in interphase.

Cdk add phosphates to target proteins only in presence of cyclin; thus different levels of cyclin changes the cycling-dependent kinase activity during the cell cycle.

Cdk active when cyclin autophosphorylates itself before phosphorylating other proteins which triggers the stages of the cell cycle.

Cyclin levels are degraded during proteasomal degradation.

Proteasome is a large complex of proteins which binds to cyclin and degrades / chops it up into amino acid blocks.

Proteasome is controlled by the small modifier ubiquitin. Poly-ubiquitin is a tagged protein, marking cyclin as “ready for degradation” by proteasome.

Ubiquitylation by enzymes under the control of growth factors.

Cdk is unable to phosphorolyate proteins once deactivated by proteasome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe and outline the importance of control mechanisms.

A

Cyclin and cyclin-dependent protein kinsases concentration rises during mitosis and falls in interphase.

Cdk add phosphates to target proteins only in presence of cyclin; thus different levels of cyclin changes the cycling-dependent kinase activity during the cell cycle.

Cdk becomes active when cyclin autophosphorylates itself before phosphorylating other proteins which triggers the stages of the cell cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is cyclin degraded?

A

Cyclin levels are degraded during proteasomal degradation.

Proteasome is a large complex of proteins which binds to cyclin and degrades / chops it up into amino acid blocks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What controls proteasomal degradation?

A

Proteasome is controlled by the small modifier ubiquitin. Poly-ubiquitin is a tagged protein, marking cyclin as “ready for degradation” by proteasome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the functional consequence of ubiquitylation?

A

Cdk is unable to phosphorolyate proteins once deactivated by proteasome (Ubiquitylation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What controls ubiquitylation?

A

Ubiquitylation by enzymes under the control of growth factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the control protein retinoblastoma (Rb) protein?

A

Controls S phase entry (G1 check point).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is E2F?

A

A transcription factor that activates transcription of genes / components required for S-phase transition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does retinoblastoma function?

A

Binds to E2F, thus E2F not free to activate transcription of genes to progress to S-phase.

18
Q

How does phosphorylation of retinoblastoma effect the cell cycle?

A

Phosphorylation stops the retinoblastoma binding with E2F, thus E2F is able to turn on the transcription for genes needed for S-phase transition.

19
Q

What is proteasome?

A

Proteasome is a large complex of proteins which binds to cyclin and degrades / chops it up into amino acid blocks.

20
Q

What are pluripotent cells?

A

Pluripotent stem cells are cells that have the capacity to self-renew by dividing and to develop into the three primary germ cell layers of the early embryo and therefore into all cells of the adult body

21
Q

What are stem cells?

A

Exist in all tissue and are able to make more copies of themselves for a life time.

22
Q

What does a it mean when a cell becomes senesecent?

A

It stops dividing (the basis of ageing).

23
Q

What are telomeres?

A

The repeated sequences at the end of chromosomes.

24
Q

What happens to telomeres as a stem cell ages?

A

They shorten.

25
Q

How long are telomeres of stems cells when they are formed?

A

Very long.

26
Q

Explain cell differentiation process of the epidermis

A

Stem cells are attached to the basal lamina.

Daughter cells move up through the epidermis and differentiate.

Cells change shape, become flatter, and hardened, packed with keratin.

27
Q

What defines a stem cell in the epidermis?

A

A basal daughter cell attached to the basal lamina.

28
Q

How long does it take for a cell to travel from a stem cell to falling off the body?

A

1 month.

29
Q

What happens to a cell when it is terminally differentiated in the epidermis?

A

When terminally differentiated they loose nucleus.

30
Q

What is a risk of uncontrolled differentiation?

A

Uncontrolled differentiation can lead to cancer.

31
Q

What is the function of histone acetylation?

A

Increasing the propensity for gene transcription.

32
Q

What is the function of transcription factors?

A

Turn on the genes that lead to the production of proteins in the RNAs required for specialized cell functions.

Transcription factors change the gene expression patterns, by changing histone acetylation and histone modifications to open the DNA, making the genes accessible to RNA polymerase.

33
Q

What is DNA methylation?

A

DNA methylation is a biological process by which methyl groups are added to the DNA molecule. Methylation can change the activity of a DNA segment without changing the sequence. When located in a gene promoter, DNA methylation typically acts to repress gene transcription.

34
Q

What is hemi-methylated DNA?

A

Only methylated on one strand

35
Q

What does maintenance methylase do?

A

Recognizes hemi-methyldated DNA and adds a methyl group on the strand missing it, making the double strand fully methylated.

36
Q

What is the effect of methylation on transcription?

A

Suppression as methylation turns the gene off.

37
Q

What is the function of DNA methyltransferase?

A

Methylate CpGs to repress gene expression.

38
Q

How is DNA methyltransferase recruited?

A

Transcription factors.

39
Q

What is the function and process of de-methylation?

A

Function: transcription activation.
Process: DNA replication or repair ().

40
Q

How does DNA replication function to de-methylate DNA?

A

maintenance methylase is not present, thus DNA repairs to un-methylated DNA once copied twice.

41
Q

How does DNA repair function to de-methylate DNA?

A

DNA repair enzymes cut our methylated cytosines and replace with unmethylated cytosine.