STIs and congenital and perinatal infection (W31 and 32)

Question 1

Which cells does gonorrhoea attach to?

Answer 1

Columnar epithelium of the cervix or urethra

Question 2

What is the likely presentation of gonorrhoea in a female?

Answer 2

asypmtomatic

Question 3

What % of people with gonorrhoea also have chlamydia?

Answer 3

50%

Question 4

G- diplococci in neutrophils, oxidase +, in the cervical smear of an STI patient. What’s the organism?

Answer 4

N. gonorrhoeae

Question 5

What is the EIA syphillis test?

Answer 5

Detects abs to T. pallidum, therefore will be pos from time of infection for the rest of their life.

Question 6

What does a + result on the EIA syph test mean?

Answer 6

Present infection or past, treated infection.

Question 7

What is the RPR syphillis test?

Answer 7

Measures antibodies produced to proteins unearthed by syph induced tissue damage.

Question 8

What does a + result on the RPR syph test mean?

Answer 8

Active infection or a false +

Question 9

Interpret this syph result: EIA-, RPR+

Answer 9

false +, no infection

Question 10

Interpret this syph test: EIA+ RPR-

Answer 10

past, treated infection

Question 11

What is the treatment for gonorrhoea?

Answer 11

cephtriaxone (cephalosporin)

Question 12

What is the treatment for chlamydia?

Answer 12

azithromycin or erythromycin tetracycline: have to get into cells.

Question 13

What is the treatment for T. pallidum?

Answer 13

beta lactam, penecillin

Question 14

If a serology test looking for Abs against X is negative, what could this mean? (4)

Answer 14

1. Never been exposed to X
2. Can’t make abs (immunosuppressed)
3. Too early in infection for Abs
4. Test isn’t sensitive enough

Question 15

If a serology test looking for Abs against X is +, what could this mean? (4)

Answer 15

1. Had X
2. Immunised against X
3. Had something similar to X with shared antigens
4. Has something that stimulates a polyclonal ab response eg EBV

Question 16

What is the gram of C. trachomatis?

Answer 16

Gram- with no cell wall therefore un gram-stainable.

Question 17

What is an elementary body of C. trachomatis?

Answer 17

Infectious agent, non-replicating, hardy

Question 18

What is a reticulate body of C. trachomatis?

Answer 18

Intracellular,replicating form

Question 19

What does + HBsAg result indicate?

Answer 19

HbS is found on the surface of the virus but is also produced in vast excess by infected hepatocytes and found in the
blood–> current HBV infection

Question 20

What does + anti- HBs indicate?

Answer 20

Immunity to HBV from vaccine or prior infection

Question 21

What does + HBeAg indicate?

Answer 21

Actively replicating HBV

Question 22

What does + anti-HBe indicate?

Answer 22

Cleared HBV infection

Question 23

What does + anti-HBc IgM indicate?

Answer 23

Recent HBV infection

Question 24

What does + anti-HBc IgG indicate?

Answer 24

Past or chronic/ latent HBV

Question 25

Multiple painful genital blisters- which likely STI?

Answer 25

Herpes simplex virus 1

Question 26

One non-painful genital lesion- which likely STI?

Answer 26

Syph

Question 27

What cells will you see on cell culture in HSV2 patient?

Answer 27

Multinuclear giant cells

Question 28

What % of primary HSV2 infections are symptomatic?

Answer 28

70%

Question 29

What’s the treatment for HSV2?

Answer 29

Acyclovir

Question 30

What is the common presentation of Rubella (2)?

Answer 30

erythematous maculopapular rash and enlarged LNs down back of neck

Question 31

What are the outcomes of infection in pregnancy with rubella (4)?

Answer 31

1. opthalmological effects
2. cardiac effects
3. auditory effects
4. late neurological effects

Question 32

What are the outcomes of infection in pregnancy with parvovirus B19?

Answer 32

Foetal death: virus targets developing RBCs

Question 33

What is the treatment for the foetus of a mother infected with parvovirus B19?

Answer 33

Blood transfusion to foetus

Question 34

What does the FBE of a patient with CMV look like?

Answer 34

Leucocytosis, 49% lymphocytes, and presence of atypical mononuclear cells.