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Fall 2013- 731 Rehab Techniques > Student Final Questions > Flashcards

Flashcards in Student Final Questions Deck (67)
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1
Q
The most common traumatic cause of SCI are:
A) Falls
B) Recreational Sports
C) MVA’s
D) Acts of Violence
A

C) MVA’s

2
Q
The SCI that involves more UE impairment than LE:
A) Brown-Sequard Syndrome	
B) Posterior Cord Syndrome
C) Anterior Cord Syndrome
D) Central Cord Syndrome
A

D) Central Cord Syndrome

3
Q
The highest frequency of vertebral level involvement are seen in:
A) C5, C7, T1, L2
B) C5, C7, T12, L2
C) C5, C7, T1, L5
D) C5, C7, T12, L5
A

B) C5, C7, T12, L2

4
Q

An recently disabled NFL player comes into clinic and his neurological level of injury has been diagnosed as a T-11 paraplegic. What is the prognosis of his ambulation potential?
A) good prognosis of Ambulation
B) good prognosis for community Ambulation
C) No good prognosis for ambulation
D) Household ambulatory

A

A) good prognosis of Ambulation

5
Q

In a pt. with a SCI, What are the possible steps needed to prevent a UTI?
A) Drink Plenty of Water
B) Drink a beverage with sugar, caffeine, and alcohol
C) Look for sediment (gritty particles) or mucus in the urine or for four odor in the urine
D) Catherterize more often.

A

A) Drink Plenty of Water

6
Q

A pt. with a SCI comes into clinic and presents with spastic hypertonia of the UE flexor muscles. A functional advantage of having Spastic Hypertonia is:
A) maintain muscle tone and mass
B) affects posture and ability to maintain balance, transfer, and change positions.
C) Causing pain due to stress on joints and muscles.
D) Can act as a warning sign for conditions such as autonomic dysflexia

A

A) maintain muscle tone and mass

7
Q
With a \_\_\_\_ neurological injury, it is impossible to accurately predict the eventual amount of
return of an individual's function.
A) Complete 
B) Incomplete
C) Partial 
D) Complex
A

B) Incomplete

8
Q

Individuals with a C3 or higher level of injury PRIMARILY focus on what for functional goals?
A) Bowel + bladder control
B) Communication + wheelchair mobility
C)Skin checks + pressure relief techniques
D) Bathing + grooming

A

B) Communication + wheelchair mobility

9
Q

To establish functional goals for a patient with a C6 level of injury, motor function of the ___
must score 3 or better on the classification form.
A) Elbow extensors
B) Wrist extensors
C) Elbow extensors
D) Finger flexors

A

B) Wrist extensors

10
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding pressure sores in SCI patients?
A) Up to 80% of individuals with SCI will have a pressure sore in their lifetime.
B) 30% of individuals with SCI will have more than one pressure sore in their lifetime.
C) Redness persisting more than 15 minutes since pressure relief indicates a pressure sore has
D) Damage to the skin has already occurred by the time you realize there is a problem.

A

C) Redness persisting more than 15 minutes since pressure relief indicates a pressure sore has

11
Q

Physical therapy techniques for helping an individual with SCI clear their airway include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Assisted coughing
B) CPAP and BiPAP
C) Positioning in supine or Trendelenburg
D) Patient education

A

B) CPAP and BiPAP

12
Q

The examination of one’s environment includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) interviews
B) self-reports (checklists, questionnaires) and performance-based measures (observation) of
function
C) measures of environmental impact on function
D) viewing the environment within the environment itself

A

D) viewing the environment within the environment itself

13
Q
Which of the following is a principle of universal design?
A) Equitable Use
B) Firmness in Use
C) Complex and Intuitive
D) High Physical Exertion
A

A) Equitable Use

14
Q

When prescribing a wheelchair a physical therapist should consult the patient, the patient’s family and the entire health care team
A) Before prescribing wheelchair selection, fit and wheelchair training
B) After prescribing the wheelchair selection, fit and wheelchair training
C) During wheel training and fitting process
D) Before, during and after wheelchair selection, fit and training.

A

D) Before, during and after wheelchair selection, fit and training.

15
Q
Individuals using a wheelchair who have fair to good trunk control usually require only back support to the 
A) Inferior angle of the scapula
B) Lower thoracic spine
C) Mid-scapula 
D) Upper cervical spine
A

C) Mid-scapula

16
Q

Spasticity can positively or negatively affect a patient’s seated posture, which of the following types
of spasticity is most likely to negatively impact a patient’s posture
A) Spasticity in the hip adductors because it can account for hip dislocations
B) Spasticity in the lower trunk musculature can negatively affect sitting posture by decreasing trunk
Stability
C) Spasticity in the long finger flexors can negatively affect wheelchair propulsion
D) Spasticity in the hip flexors causing pelvic obliquity

A

A) Spasticity in the hip adductors because it can account for hip dislocations

17
Q
A LMN injury includes:
A) Increased muscle tone
B) Spastic paralysis
C) Increased muscle stretch reflexes 
D) Absent muscle stretch reflexes
A

D) Absent muscle stretch reflexes

18
Q

In the ASIA classification form, what is the neurological level?
A)The lowest segment where motor and sensory function is normal on both sides
B) The highest segment where motor and sensory function is normal on both sides
C) The lowest segment where motor is normal and sensory is not
D) The lowest segment where sensory is normal and motor is not

A

A)The lowest segment where motor and sensory function is normal on both sides

19
Q

What is the key sensory point for C3?
A) At least one cm lateral the occipital protuberance at the base of the skull
B)At least 3 cm behind the ear
C) In the supraclavicular fossa, at the midclavicular line
D) Over the acromioclavicular joint

A

C) In the supraclavicular fossa, at the midclavicular line

20
Q
An individual with a SCI shows signs of sensory impairment but motor function is preserved below the neurological level and includes the sacral segments S4-S5 (light touch, pin prick, at S4-S5: or deep anal pressure (DAP)), and no motor function is preserved more than three levels below the motor level on either side of the body. This individual is in category:
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
A

B) B

21
Q

Zone of partial preservation is categorized:
A) in complete injuries only
B) in incomplete injuries only
C) in partial injuries only
D) in both complete and incomplete injuries

A

A) in complete injuries only

22
Q
Key muscles in the ASIA form include all of the following muscles except:
A) elbow flexors
B)elbow extensors
C) ankle plantar flexors
D)  long toe flexors
A

D) long toe flexors

23
Q
Which of the following describes a pathological deformity that causes inversion and supination of the foot during gait?
A) Equinus Gait
B) Equinovarus Gait
C) Calcaneal Gait
D) Genu Varum Gait
A

B) Equinovarus Gait

24
Q
You observe your patient walking into your clinic and notice the patient has knee “drop off” and a shortened swing phase with an early HS. Which of the following is most likely to be the cause of this?
A) Eccentric Knee Flexors
B) Eccentric Hip Extensors
C) Concentric Knee Extensors
D) Eccentric Knee Extensors
A

D) Eccentric Knee Extensors

25
Q

Patient presents with excess plantarflexion. Which of the following may be present as a result of this deviation?
A) Post Tib weakness causing inability to counteract the excess PF
B) Loss of medial arch support, causing increased foot pronation during the PF
C) Decreased foot rocker in stance, leading to a shorter stance phase
D) Increased demand on knee and hip extensors to counteract the posterior force resulting from excess PF

A

C) Decreased foot rocker in stance, leading to a shorter stance phase

26
Q

Witch patient is more likely to become an amputee?
A) A 85 year old lady that is inactive and a history of peripheral vascular disease
B) A middle aged construction worker that works with power tools
C) A 35 year old patient with Diabetes Mellitus
D) A taxi driver that has a history of driving violations and has a BMI of 35.

A

A) A 85 year old lady that is inactive and a history of peripheral vascular disease

27
Q

How are stretching exercises best utilized to minimize muscle shortening and join contractors in amputee patients?
A) Prevention by using slow controlled stretches for at least 20 seconds.
B) Treatment of shortened structures by frequent stretches multiple times a day.
C) Prevention by short ballistic stretches for 20 repetitions every day.
D) Treatment by rhythmic rotation to decrease spasticity.

A

A) Prevention by using slow controlled stretches for at least 20 seconds.

28
Q
The concept that believes in order to provide function in a joint, the joints proximal and distal must be stabilized is known as:
A) Three pressure concept
B) Functional chain concept
C) Stability concept
D) Joint movement concept
A

B) Functional chain concept

29
Q
Cervical orthotics are normally used for which of the following purposes:
A) Allowing mobility
B) Improve flexion and extension
C) Stabilize spinal segments
D) Correct posture
A

C) Stabilize spinal segments

30
Q
Treatment for scoliosis with an orthotic is determined by what degree of curvature?
A) 0-30 degrees
B) 25-40 degrees
C) >45 degrees
D) 30-45 degrees
A

D) 30-45 degrees

31
Q
What is used in home health with adults to determine the level/intensity of care that will be reimbursed and to determine the outcomes of care provided?
A) OASIS
B) Barthel Index
C) SIP
D) SF-36
A

A) OASIS

32
Q
What is the best example of a BADL?
A) Grocery shopping
B) Bathing
C) Doing laundry
D) Cooking
A

B) Bathing

33
Q
What score on the SF-36 would represent the best health?
A) 0
B) 68
C) 90
D) 120
A

C) 90

34
Q
Miss E. climbs 6 stairs with the helper providing steadying assistance.  Descending the stairs requires 75% or more assistance from the helper. Identify the appropriate FIM score:
A) 1 Max Assist
B) 3 Mod Assist
C) 2 Max Assist
D) 2 Mod Assist
A

C) 2 Max Assist

35
Q
The FIM scoring tool is commonly used on all of the following populations except:
A) Stroke Patients
B) Spinal Cord Injury Patients
C) Geriatric Patients
D) Pediatric Patients
A

D) Pediatric Patients

36
Q
When scoring a patient for locomotion on stairs it is important to remember what constitutes a full flight of stairs. From the following ranges, select the most appropriate range that represents a full flight:
A) 10-12
B) 12-16
C) 10-16
D) 12-14
A

D) 12-14

37
Q
Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in hypertonia?
A) Cauda equina lesion
B) Anterior horn cell lesion
C) Acute UMN lesion
D) Dorsal reticulospinal lesion
A

D) Dorsal reticulospinal lesion

38
Q

A patient with decorticate rigidity is most likely to present with which of the following postures?
A) Shoulder adduction, elbow flexion, wrist flexion, LE internal rotation, foot plantar flexion
B) Shoulder adduction, elbow extension, wrist flexion, LE internal rotation, foot plantar flexion
C) Shoulder abduction, elbow flexion, wrist flexion, LE internal rotation, foot dorsiflexion
D) Shoulder adduction, elbow extension, wrist flexion, LE internal rotation, foot plantar flexion

A

A) Shoulder adduction, elbow flexion, wrist flexion, LE internal rotation, foot plantar flexion

39
Q
During a cranial nerve examination, a patient presents with left tongue deviation with tongue protrusion. Which of the following cranial nerves is most likely to be affected?
A) Left CN XII
B) Left CN X
C) Right CN XII
D). Right CN XII
A

A) Left CN XII

40
Q
During a sensory screening examination, you find impaired sensation along the lateral portion of a patient’s calf, traveling down between the lateral malleolus and calcaneus. No motor deficits were noted. What peripheral nerve or nerve level may be indicated with this finding?
A) L5
B) Saphenous nerve
C) Sural nerve
D) L4
A

C) Sural nerve

41
Q
A patient in your clinic scores a 10/15 on the Glasgow Coma Scale, this patient is suspected to have what level of brain injury?
A) Severe
B) Moderate
C) Mild
D) None
A

B) Moderate

42
Q
A patient demonstrates a mildly exaggerated Achilles tendon reflex on his affected side when compared to the unaffected side. How would you rate this response, and what nerve may be involved?
A) 4+, S2
B) 3+, S1
C) 3+, S2
D) 4+, S1
A

B) 3+, S1

43
Q
What single form of rehabilitation is key in all stages of cancer? 
A) Palliative care
B) ROM exercises 
C) Aerobic Exercise
D) Pain Reduction
A

C) Aerobic Exercise

44
Q

Which grades of lymphedema are reversible and which are not reversible?
A) Grades 0-1 are reversible, and Grades 2-4 are not reversible
B) Grades 0-2 are reversible, and Grades 3-4 are not reversible
C) Grades 0-3 are reversible, and Grade 4 is not reversible
D) All grades are reversible with proper care.

A

A) Grades 0-1 are reversible, and Grades 2-4 are not reversible

45
Q

What is the leading cause of emotional distress in cancer?
A) Coping Styles
B) Misinterpretation and Difficulty with Processing Information
C) Adjusting to the Diagnosis
D) Physical Disability

A

D) Physical Disability

46
Q
Steve is transferring from supine to a seated position and requires help moving his left leg to the side of the bed what would his FIM score be for this transfer?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
A

C) 4

47
Q
Amanda can walk up a full flight of stairs with her hand on the rail but with no other assistance what is her FIM score for stairs?
A)  4
B)  5
C) 6
D)  7
A

C) 6

48
Q
A pt that was involved in a car accident and needs a cervical orthoses.  The physician stated that the pt only has soft tissue damage and needs a cervical orthoses that will allow rotation, but will restrict flexion, extension, and side-bending.  Which of the following orthoses is MOST appropriate for this patient?
A) HALO
B) Soft Cervical Collar
C) Aspen Cervical Orthosis
D) Minerva Brace
A

B) Soft Cervical Collar

49
Q
A pt recovering from thoracic and lumbar compression fractures due to osteoporosis and is instructed to wear a brace for immobilization.  The physician states the needed restrictions as follows; limit flexion, extension, sidebending, and slight limit of rotation.  Based on the restrictions needed for this patient, which of the following is the MOST appropriate spinal orthoses for this patient?
A) TLSO
B) Elastic Lumbar Corset
C) Milwaukee Brace
D) Charleston Bending Orthosis
A

A) TLSO

50
Q
You are seeing a new patient today. He is an active 25 y/o RT transfemoral amputee following a motorcycle accident 2 weeks ago. He is upset and concerned that he will not be able to return to his normal life of biking, hiking & Vegas nightlife. Upon visual inspection you notice some diffuse redness and 3+ pitting edema around his incision & stump. Your most immediate concern is:
A) Post-surgical infection
B) Improperly fitted prosthesis
C) Inappropriate sock fitting
D) Inappropriate stump wrapping
A

A) Post-surgical infection

51
Q

You are gait training with your 25 y/o RT transfemoral amputee & you notice him landing hard on his prosthesis, a pistoning action, and then vaulting to continue his stride. You are concerned about the implications of this movement. Your next action is:
A) Call the Prosthetist
B) Check skin integrity for sheer force skin damage
C) Suggest the patient double up on socks/sleeves
D) Inspect & adjust mechanical components of prosthesis yourself

A

A) Call the Prosthetist

52
Q
A physical therapist works with a 50-year-old female patient immediately following a Symes amputation. The patient remains in an acute care hospital and has the following goals: control her pain, optimize ROM and strength and ultimately be discharged from the hospital. Which stage of amputee rehabilitation is this patient currently in?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III 
D) Stage IV
A

C) Stage III

53
Q

A physical therapist writes short-term goals to be achieved in 3-5 days for a patient who was independent prior to their acute care hospital admission for LE transfemoral amputation. Which of the following goals would be MOST appropriate?
A) Patient will demonstrate independence or assistance with stairs as necessary
B) Patient will demonstrate independence with transfers to wheelchair with an assistive device that is the least restrictive
C) Patients will demonstrate ROM WFL and strength 4/5 throughout affected and non- affected limb
D) Patient will demonstrate modified independence with bed mobility

A

B) Patient will demonstrate independence with transfers to wheelchair with an assistive device that is the least restrictive

54
Q

How is mirror box therapy hypothesized to work as pain relief for phantom limb pain?
A) Nerve desensitization
B) Visual reprocessing
C) Cortical restructuring
D) Suppression of the somatosensory system

A

C) Cortical restructuring

55
Q
A patient is experiencing recurrent recollection of an event, intrusive and distressing dreams, dissociative states (behaving as if reliving event), amnesia of events, and disturbed sleep patterns. What are they suffering from?
A) Posttraumatic stress disorder
B) Panic Disorder
C) Depression
D) Fibromyalgia
A

A) Posttraumatic stress disorder

56
Q
When examining a patient, when you consider their premorbid status or mental illness, personality styles, coping strategies, defense mechanisms and emotional reactions to disability you are examining their what?
A) Psychosocial factors
B) Client demographics 
C) Mental Status
D) Psychosocial adaption
A

A) Psychosocial factors

57
Q

The phase models of Psychosocial adaption suggests patient’s reaction to a chronic disability or illness follows a stable sequence of phases, what is the correct order?
A) Shock, anxiety, denial, depression, internalized anger, externalized hostility, acknowledgement, adjustment
B) Shock, anxiety, depression, denial, internalized anger, externalized hostility, acknowledgement, adjustment
C) Anxiety, shock, depression, denial, internalized anger, externalized hostility, acknowledgement, adjustment
D) Anxiety, Shock, denial, depression, internalized anger, externalized hostility, acknowledgement, adjustment

A

A) Shock, anxiety, denial, depression, internalized anger, externalized hostility, acknowledgement, adjustment

58
Q
Relaxation response, guided imagery, desensitization, cognitive-behavioral therapy are all techniques for addressing anxiety. Which technique is said to work by decreasing the levels of cortisol that can inhibit the immune system and slow tissue repair
A) Relaxation Response
B) Guided Imagery
C) Desensitization
D) Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
A

B) Guided Imagery

59
Q
With what activity are vestibular inputs relied upon the most to maintain balance?
A) Marching in place, eyes open
B) Standing on foam, eyes closed
C) Marching in place, eyes closed
D) Standing, eyes open to eyes closed
A

B) Standing on foam, eyes closed

60
Q

Once a patient has mastered stepping, dynamic reversals in modified plantigrade, what progression should be used to further challenge the patient’s balance control?
A) UE PNF patterns in modified plantigrade
B) Stabilizing reversals in modified plantigrade
C) Rhythmic stabilization in modified plantigrade
D) Weight shifts with dynamic reversals in modified plantigrade

A

A) UE PNF patterns in modified plantigrade

61
Q
“Pushing over the wall” is a single-leg standing exercise that efficiently improves standing balance and strength in which of the following muscle groups:
A) Hip Adductors
B) Hip Extensors
C) Hip Abductors
D) Hip Flexors
A

C) Hip Abductors

62
Q
The following are intermediate-level challenges to balance (near a support surface), EXCEPT:
A) Floor-to-standing transfers
B) Marching in place 
C) Partial Lunges
D) Heel-offs and toe-offs
A

A) Floor-to-standing transfers

63
Q
How many items are included in the Functional Independence Measure (FIM) assessment?
A) 20
B) 18
C) 16
D) 15
A

B) 18

64
Q
Michael is able to transfer himself from his wheelchair but requires VC’s for positioning and safety of transfer (i.e locking wheelchair). What level of assistance is he for wheelchair transfers?
A) Minimal assist (level 4)
B) Modified Independent (Level 6)
C) Supervision/Setup (Level 5)
D) Independent (Level 7)
A

C) Supervision/Setup (Level 5)

65
Q
Jacob climbs up and down six steps with only touching assistance from a helper. What is Jacob FIM rating for stairs?
A) Modified assistance
B) Minimal assistance
C) Supervision/Setup
D) Maximal assistance
A

D) Maximal assistance

66
Q
People over the age of 65 have an average of \_\_ chronic health problems?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 5
D) 3
A

C) 5

67
Q
Discharge Based Outcome includes both:
A) DC plan, Pt. Goals met
B) Pt. satisfaction, reintegration into community 
C) Reintegration into community, DC plan
D) Pt. Goals met, pt. satisfaction
A

C) Reintegration into community, DC plan