Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

<p>According to the NASM Code of Conduct, list four guidelines a trainer must adhere to protect the public and the profession</p>

A

<p>1. Not diagnose or treat illness or injury unless for basic first aid or if the Certified Professional is legally licensed to do so and is working in that capacity at that time2. Not train clients with a diagnosed health condition unless the Certified Professional has been specifically trained to do so,3. Not begin to train a client prior to receiving and reviewing a current health-history questionnaire signed by the client.4. Hold a current cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and automated external defibrillator (AED) certification from a NASM-approved provider at all times</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

<p>Describe “forecasting” as it applies to the business fundamentals of professional fitness</p>

A

<p>Making informed predictions based on previous performance indicators and existing trends</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

<p>List the 10 steps to business success in fitness</p>

A

<p>1. Decide on an income figure2. Identify weekly earnings required for that goal3. Calculate the number of required weekly sessions4. Identify the required closing percentage5. Create client conversion timeline6. Identify the total number of interactions required based on the closing percentage7. Identify the required amount of daily interactions8. Do an hour by hour daily breakdown of interactions9. Make sure you obtain contact information10. Conduct follow-ups</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

<p>What are the 4 P’s of marketing in fitness?</p>

A

<p>1. Product2. Price3. Placement4. Promotion</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

<p>Define "prospecting"</p>

A

<p>Implementation of methods designed to search for new clients</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

<p>4 key steps to "asking for the sale"</p>

A

<p>1. Be visible and available2. Be confident enough to ask for the sale3. Display value and quality of service. Market your personality as well as your product4. Remain in consistent contact with your clients</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

<p>What are the ways to overcome the objection of a sale?</p>

A

<p>- empathize with and understand the client's concern- isolate the actual drawbacks- remind the client of the benefits- make a plan to resolve concerns</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

<p>List 5 tips that can enhance the quality of communication</p>

A

<p>– Use of appropriate body language– Provide an explanation of important concepts– Show empathy and compassion– Use positive reinforcement– Use positive greeting protocols (smile, handshake. hello)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

<p>Describe non-verbal communication and how it takes effect</p>

A

<p>Visual and auditory expressions of intent and feeling that exist outside of written or spoken speech</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

<p>Define "active listening"</p>

A

<p>Practicing listening as an act of genuine interest</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

<p>Describe the differences between open-ended and closed-ended questions</p>

A

<p>Open-ended questions allow the questioned party to elaborate with detail. Close-ended questions only require a yes or no answer</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

<p>Define “reflecting” with regards to trainer-client communication</p>

A

<p>Relaying back your interpretation of what the client has communicated</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

<p>Define “summarizing” with regards to trainer-client communication</p>

A

<p>Making brief reflections of what has been communicated to indicate that information has been taken on board</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

<p>Define SMART goals</p>

A

<p>SSpecific MMeasurable AAttainable RRealistic TTimely</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

<p>List eight important considerations in goal expectation management</p>

A

<p>1. Understand the client’s motivations2. Hone in and clarify vague statements like “I want to get fit” or “I want to look better”3. Allow clients to verbalize their goals for more clarity4. Identify unrealistic outcomes5. Set goals based on the SMART principles6. Be able to contrast between product and progress based goals7. Be aware that progress occurs at different rates for different clients8. Identify how and when each client’s goals will be reassessed and revisited</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 4 forms of support a trainer can implement?

A

– Instrumental support in the form of practical applications and infrastructure
– Emotional support in the form of positive psychological reinforcement and encouragement
– Informational support in the form of facts and evidence that provide direction and indicate efficacy and reliability
– Companionship support in the form of positive social associations such as family and close friends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List four potential psychological benefits of exercise

A

– Promotes positive mood
– Improves the quality and quantity of sleep
– Reduces stress
– Reduces indicators and risk factors of anxiety and depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List 5 common barriers to successful behavioral change

A

– Time constraints
– Setting unrealistic goals
– Inadequate social support
– Social anxiety and low self-esteem, Convenience or addictiveness of current behavioral patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What key topics should be discussed at the end of each initial session with a new client?

A

– If the client is ready to begin or has any further questions/queries
– The social dynamics, etiquette, and training culture of the facility
– Dress code
– The potential outcomes of interactions with other clients/members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define the 3 main functions of the nervous system

A

The three primary functions of the nervous system include sensory, integrative, and motor functions. Sensory Function is the ability of the nervous system to sense changes in either the internal or external environment. Integrative Function is the ability of the CNS to analyze and interpret sensory information to allow for proper decision making, which produces an appropriate response. Motor Function is then the body’s response (via the efferent pathway) to that integrated sensory information, such as causing a muscle to contract when stretched too far or changing one’s walking pattern when transitioning from walking on a sidewalk to walking in the sand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tendons

A

Connective tissue bridging muscles to the skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fascia

A

Connective tissue that consists of a tough fibrous membrane that holds muscle tissue together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Fascicles

A

Muscle fiber units bundled within a single muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Muscle Fiber

A

Cylindrical cells that produce and resist force through mechanical contraction allowing organisms to move and reposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sarcomere

A

The muscle fiber’s fundamental contractile unit consisting of protein filaments actin and myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Sliding Filament Theory

A

That contraction of muscles takes place through the sliding of actin and myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Type I (slow-twitch) muscle tissue

A

Predominantly aerobic muscle fibers responsible for sustained focused contractions and have a relatively higher mitochondrial count for that reason

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Type II (fast-twitch) muscle tissue

A

More anaerobic, these fibers are tasked with short, explosive contractions aimed at generating power and speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Motor unit

A

The smallest functional unit of a muscle and motor unit system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Neural Activation

A

Stimulation of motor units through delivery of mild impulse. Also known as warming up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Neurotransmitters

A

A signaling chemical release at the end of nerve synapses used to transfer impulses across nerve junctions or to muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Skeletal System Functions

A

Structural integrity and support, protection of vital organs, mobility, anchoring of organs, production of blood and endocrine hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Non-synovial Joints

A

Maintains structural integrity by joining bone segments not required to perform movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Synovial Joints

A

Joints which allow smooth movement between two or more adjacent bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Major Motion Types

A

Spin, slide, and roll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hinge Joint

A

Sagittal plane. E.g. elbows and knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Ball-and-Socket Joint

A

Full axis mobility. E.g. Pelvic and shoulder girdle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Arthrokinematics

A

The science of joint motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Endocrine System

A

The system responsible for the production and secretion of hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Testosterone

A

Anabolic male sex hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Estrogen

A

female sex hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Growth Hormone

A

Anabolic tissue growth hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Insulin

A

Energy and micronutrient regulation hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Cardiorespiratory System

A

System comprising of the heart & blood vessels (circulatory) and lungs (respiratory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cardiovascular System

A

The heart and blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Respiratory System

A

Lungs and breathing system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cardiac Muscle

A

Involuntary heart muscle, relatively more rigid than skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Right Atrium

A

Gathers low oxygen blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Left Atrium

A

Gathers oxygenated blood from the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Sinoatrial Node

A

Myocyte clusters that generate electrical impulses that determine heart rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Right Ventricle

A

Pumps low oxygen blood to lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Left Ventricle

A

Pumps oxygen-rich blood through the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Arteries

A

Vessels for oxygenated blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Veins

A

Vessels for deoxygenated blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Arterioles

A

Small branches of arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Capillaries

A

Smallest blood vessel units. Chemical exchange sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Venules

A

Smallest branches of veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Stroke Volume

A

The volume of blood circulated with each pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Heart Rate

A

The frequency of heartbeats per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Cardiac Output

A

Amount of blood pumped per minute

61
Q

Inspiration

A

Moving air into the lungs through muscular contractions

62
Q

Primary inspiratory muscles

A

External intercostals and diaphragm

63
Q

Secondary inspiratory muscles

A

scalenes, sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis minor

64
Q

Expiration

A

Pushing air out of lungs through muscular contraction

65
Q

Expiratory Muscles

A

Abdominals and internal intercostals

66
Q

Resting Oxygen Consumptions (VO2)

A

Amounts to 3.5ml/min/kg of body mass and is the equivalent of 1 metabolic equivalent (MET)

67
Q

Maximal Oxygen Consumption (VO2Max)

A

Maximum oxygen consumption rate at peak exercise intensity

68
Q

Dysfunctional Breathing

A

Irregular breathing patterns characteristic of stress and anxiety

69
Q

Describe the training effects of cardiorespiratory exercise

A

Increases: metabolic activity mental alertness, cardiac function, respiratory function.
Decreases: resting heart rate, LDL cholesterol, blood pressure, risk of cardiovascular disease

70
Q

What are the 3 functions of blood?

A

Transport
Oxygen, nutrients, and hormones

Regulation
Temperature, fluid balance, pH

Protection
Immune system, clotting

71
Q

Bioenergetics

A

The science of energy in the body

72
Q

Metabolism

A

The usage cycle of nutrients and their conversion into energy, body components, and waste materials through normal life function

73
Q

Aerobic

A

Using oxygen to drive metabolic function

74
Q

Anaerobic

A

Metabolic activity with an absence of oxygen

75
Q

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

A

A molecule used to transfer and store energy in cells

76
Q

Anaerobic Threshold

A

The point at which energy demand surpasses oxu=ygen supply

77
Q

Excess Post Oxygen Consumption (EPOC)

A

Post-exercise elevated metabolic activity

78
Q

Biomechanics

A

The science concerning the generation, transfer, and resistance of mechanical force by the musculoskeletal system and the effects produced.

79
Q

Force

A

A transfer of energy that acts on a physical body causing it to change its direction and velocity

80
Q

Torque

A

A rotational force acting about a fixed axis

81
Q

Lever

A

A rigid bar that applies torque about a fixed pivot or fulcrum

82
Q

Describe the 3 classes of levers

A
1st class
The fulcrum in the center
2nd class
Resistance in the center
3rd class
Effort in the center
83
Q

Superior vs Inferior

A

Superior - Above

Inferior - Below

84
Q

Proximal vs Distal

A

Proximal - Closest to a reference point

Distal - Farthest from a reference point

85
Q

Anterior vs Posterior

A

Anterior - Front

Posterior - Behind

86
Q

Medial vs Lateral

A

Medial - Central

Lateral - On either side

87
Q

Contralateral vs. Ipsilateral

A

Contralateral - Opposite sides

Ipsilateral - Same side

88
Q

What are the 3 planes of motion?

A

Frontal - Adduction/abduction, lateral flexion, eversion/inversion (Lateral raise, lateral lunge, lateral shuffle)
Sagittal - flexion and extension (Bicep curl, hamstring curl)
Transverse - Rotation, Horizontal adduction/abduction (throwing motion)

89
Q

Flexion

A

Muscles shorten

90
Q

Extension

A

Muscles lengthen

91
Q

Plantar Flexion

A

extension about the ankle joint

92
Q

Dorsal Flexion

A

Flexion about the ankle joint

93
Q

Abduction

A

Extension away from the midline

94
Q

Adduction

A

Flexion towards the midline

95
Q

Horizontal Abduction

A

Abduction along the transverse plane

96
Q

Internal Rotation

A

Joint rotation towards the midline

97
Q

External Rotation

A

Joint rotation away from the midline

98
Q

Concentric

A

Muscle shortens with contraction (effort>resistance)

99
Q

Eccentric

A

Muscle lengthens under resistance (effort

100
Q

Isometric

A

Muscle length remains constant against resistance (effort=resistance)

101
Q

Length-tension relationship

A

The tension a muscle can produce at a given resting length

102
Q

Force-couple

A

A muscle pair working to produce motion

103
Q

Force-velocity curve

A

An increase in velocity correlates to a decrease in concentric force and an increase in eccentric force

104
Q

Neuromuscular Efficiency

A

The degree at which force can be produced, reduced, and stabilized across all 3 movement planes

105
Q

Structural Efficiency

A

The degree of optimal alignment of the musculoskeletal system towards the most ideal centre of mass distribution for a given body

106
Q

David’s Law

A

soft tissue models along the lines of stress

107
Q

Autogenic Inhibition

A

Muscle spindle inhibition due to sensory impulses of tension being greater than motor impulses of contraction

108
Q

Reciprocal Inhibition

A

The contraction of one muscle leads to the relaxation of it’s opposite to facilitate movement

109
Q

Relative Flexibility

A

Body’s affinity towards seeking the least resistive path

110
Q

Pattern Overload

A

Abnormal stress caused by excessive repetition of a single movement

111
Q

Postural Distortion Patterns

A

Common movement patterns associated with muscle imbalances

112
Q

Altered Reciprocal Inhibition

A

A tight agonist that inhibits its functional antagonist causing muscle inhibition

113
Q

Synergistic Dominance

A

When a prime mover’s function is taken over by a synergist

114
Q

Muscle Imbalance

A

Disproportionate muscle length about a joint

115
Q

Define the OPT model

A

NASM’s Optimum Performance Training model aimed at enhancing the body through the correction of deficiencies, and improvement of the fundamentals of stabilization, strength, and power

116
Q

Define the 3 pillars of the OPT model

A

Stability
The ability to achieve and maintain postural equilibrium through all planes of motion

Strength
The degree to which muscular tension can produce force

Strength endurance
The length of time muscular tension can be sustained

Maximal strength
The maximum amount of force that can be produced through muscular contraction

Muscular hypertrophy
The increase in mass and volume of muscle tissue due to growth stimulated by metabolic and/or mechanical response. May lead to a corresponding increase in strength and power.

Power
The rate of strength output over time.

117
Q

Motor Behavior

A

motor response to internal and external stimuli

118
Q

Motor Control

A

The integration of present sensory stimuli with previous experiences via the CNS

119
Q

Motor Learning

A

Incorporation of motor control patterns into adopted movement systems through repetition.

120
Q

Motor Development

A

The lifelong progression of motor skill behavior.

121
Q

Sensorimotor Integration

A

The integration of sensory input with the appropriate motor response.

122
Q

Muscle Synergies

A

Muscles collaboratively recruited by the CNS to produce movement

123
Q

Proprioception

A

The ability to interpret sensory input from mechanoreceptors in order to maintain balance and postural equilibrium.

124
Q

Two Types of motor feedback

A

Internal feedback: sensory input data resulting from the corresponding internal response to motor function and its outcomes.

External feedback: explicit data provided by external validators such as a coach, video playback or readings on measuring implements.

125
Q

Carbs

A

Primary energy source macronutrients that include sugars, starches, and fiber.

126
Q

Define the 7 types of carbs

A

Monosaccharide
A single unit of sugar. E.g. fructose, glucose.

Disaccharides
A double sugar molecule. E.g. lactose, sucrose and maltose.

Fiber
Complex polysaccharide found in plant tissue. Assists in gut health, glucose uptake regulation, and the nourishment of gut microbiota.

Soluble Fiber
Soluble fiber dissolves in water.

Insoluble Fiber
Insoluble fiber remains solid/in suspension in water.

Glucose
The most basic molecular structure of a carbohydrate

Glycogen
Carbohydrate storage unit stored in liver and muscle tissue

127
Q

What is the glycemic index?

A

The Glycemic index refers to numbers (0–100) assigned to a food source that represents the rise in blood sugar after consuming the food.

128
Q

Lipids

A

Lipids are organic compounds made of glycerol and fatty acids that are hydrophobic. They include oils, fats, waxes, and steroids and contain roughly twice the energy yield per unit mass of carbohydrates.

129
Q

Define the 6 types of lipids

A

Triglyceride
The most common lipid structure consists of glycerol and 3 fatty acids.

Saturated Fat
A lipid where all the fatty acid chains have single bonds. Solid at ambient temperature.

Trans-fat
Hydrogenated unsaturated fat used for large scale industrial food production. Knowl to pose tremendous health risks

Unsaturated fat
A lipid where one or more double bond in the fatty acid chain

Monounsaturated
A lipid with only one double bond

Polyunsaturated
A lipid with more than one double bond

130
Q

Give examples of saturated, monosaturated, and polyunsaturated fat

A

Saturated Fat
Meat, dairy products, coconut oil

Monounsaturated fat
tree nuts, flaxseed, sunflower seeds

Polyunsaturated fat
Fatty fish, olive oil

131
Q

Protein

A

A nitrogen-based organic molecule comprised of one or more amino acid chains.

132
Q

Amino Acids

A

Sub Molecules of proteins containing amine and carboxyl groups.

133
Q

What are essential amino acids?

A

Amino acids that are both necessary to normal life function and cannot be naturally produced in the body. They must therefore be ingested through an inclusive diet.

134
Q

What are non-essential amino acids?

A

Amino acids that are either unnecessary to normal health, or are necessary, but are naturally produced in adequate quantities and don’t need to be ingested through an inclusive diet.

135
Q

What is a complete protein?

A

A protein or protein source that includes all essential amino acids.

136
Q

What is an incomplete protein?

A

A protein or protein source that does not possess all necessary amino acids.

137
Q

Micronutrients

A

Inorganic molecules that drive important life functions and are only needed in trace quantities. These include vitamins and minerals.

138
Q

Toxicity

A

A substance’s ability to have a negative impact on health.

139
Q

What percentage of the body is made of water?

A

Approximately 60%.

140
Q

What is the daily recommended water intake for men/women?

A

2.2 L for women and 3 L for men.

141
Q

What is the benefit of drinking cold water?

A

Cold water is well known to assist in digestive health.

142
Q

What should one drink during an exercise that exceeds an hour?

A

A beverage containing up to 8% carbohydrates.

143
Q

For an overweight person, how much extra water is recommended per 25lbs?

A

Approximately 8oz.

144
Q

What are the two adverse effects of dehydration?

A

Fatigue decreased performance and circulatory deficiency.

145
Q

Calorie

A

The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water 1 degree Celsius.

146
Q

What is the resting metabolic rate (RMR)?

A

Amount of energy expended during rest and inactivity.

147
Q

What is the thermic effect of food (TEF)?

A

The energy expended through the process of digestion accounting for 6-10% of total expenditure.

148
Q

What is the amount of energy expended through deliberate physical activity?

A

Approximately 20% of total energy.

149
Q

3 ideal protocols when using carbs for performance

A

– High carb consumption two to four hours before physical activity
– Consume 1,5 grams of carbs per kg of body weight to maximize glycogen reserves
– For activity lasting more than 1 hour, consume 30 – 60 grams of carbs per hour