study guide Flashcards
(101 cards)
1
Q
In what way does the skeletal system support the immune system
A
The bone marrow is the site of WBC production
2
Q
What change is associated with integumentary system in elderly?
A
Collagen alterations
3
Q
What is the best example of indirect contact?
A
children playing with blocks
4
Q
What is an example of objective data?
A
ECG tracing
5
Q
What condition is considered an obstructive disorder of the respiratory system?
A
emphysema
( results in the failure of the alveoli and trapping of air in the distal airways w/ resulting obstruction to the flow of air. )
6
Q
A
7
Q
Which statement is true?
A. sanitization is the removal of all pathogens on inanimate objects
B. disinfection is more effective than sterilization for cleaning surgical instruments
C. sanitization inhibits the action of microorganisms
D. disinfected can be removed all pathogens from a surface.
A
sanitization inhibits the action of microorganisms
Sanitization is the process of inactivating or inhibiting, but not eliminating pathogens from a surface such as surgical instruments. Sanitization is more effective than disinfection because 100% of all infectious agents are removed from an object.
8
Q
A
9
Q
What is the correct procedure for collecting a 24 hr urine?
A
Discard the first void, collect the urine for the subsequent 24 hours period.
10
Q
What is the difference between HbgA1C and blood glucose test
A
HbgA1c provides a three month average glucose level
11
Q
The provider is conducting a physical urinalysis. What are the characteristics assessed?
A
color, odor, clarity, volume, and specific gravity
Turbidity: the quality of being cloudy, opaque, or thick with suspended matter.
12
Q
What is a characteristics is consistent with a dx of bulimia?
A
Damage to the oral cavity
13
Q
The CMA is providing home care for a patient for a patient recently diagnosed with HTN. What is an appropriate menu item?
A
Grilled chicken and pasta
Diet should be moderate amounts of animal fats and small amounts of sodium.
14
Q
What is the main purpose of the Z-tract intramuscular injection technique?
A
Avoid possible local skin reactions
Used when prescribed medication can potentially irritate or discolor the skin on contact. The retraction and release of the subcutaneous tissue decrease the possibility of any leakage of the medication onto the the skin following the injection.
15
Q
Which lab result should be reported?
A. HbgA1C 6.2%
B. BUN 19 mg/dl
C. potassium 2.8 mEq/L
D. WBC 9,000 k/ uL
A
Potassium 2.8mEq/L
to avoid the development of cardiac arrhythmias
The normal potassium level for an adult ranges from 3.5 to 5.2 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.2 mmol/L).
Potassium levels between 3 and 3.5 mEq/L (3 to 3.5 mmol/L) are considered mild hypokalemia.
Anything lower than 3 mEq/L (3 mmol/L) is considered severe hypokalemia
testing
16
Q
Elevated CRP level is associated with what condition?
A
CAD ( Coronary artery disease)
CRP is a indicator of the presence of an inflammatory process that can be ID as a risk factor for CAD.
May indicated the presence of arthritis, pancreatitis and kidney failure.
This is a serum test;
Red-top tube, gel-barrier tube, lavender-top (EDTA) tube, or green-top (heparin) tube
17
Q
What is dimensional analysis?
A
the process used to calculate medication dosages
18
Q
A
19
Q
How to document intake of 8oz container of milk
A
240 mL
Metric system is used for all numerical documentation int he electronic health record.
8 x 30 = 240
20
Q
What of following manifestations is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Shaking and tremors
B. Sweating
C. Fruity breath odor
D. Anxiety and irritability
A
Fruity breath odor
21
Q
Which of the following statements by the CMA indicates the need for additional instructions related to patient safety?
A. I will leave the beds in the lowest position
B. If a patient is having a seizure, I will insert a tongue depressor to maintain the airway
C. I will check the patient’s documentation for fall precautions
D. I will notify environmental services of any fluid spills.
A
B;
during a seizure, the patient’s head should not restrained.
22
Q
What defines pure-tone audiometry?
A
Subjective measure of the hearing threshold.
Pure tone audiometry measures the patient’s ability to hear tones at a certain decibel level.
23
Q
Which of the following exam/ position pairs is stated incorrectly?
A. Vaginal Exam: lithotomy
B. Sigmoidoscopy: prone
C. Fleet’s enema: lateral
D. EKG/ECG: Fowler’s position
A
Sigmoidoscopy: prone
24
Q
Patient with HTN taking digoxin. Which statement should be reported?
A. I don’t buy processed foods
B. I take St. John Wort for my depression
C. I cook my vegetables w/o salt
D. I will tell my doctor if i feel lightheaded
A
I take St. John Wort for my depression
regular usage decreases the effectiveness of digoxin.
25
Patient had an IV infusing at 50ml/hour, a heparin drip infusing at 8ml/hour, an enteral infusion at 30 ml/hour, and 50 ml of d5W w/ clindomycin IV every 6 hrs. Foley cath was emptied 3 times - 450ml, 375ml and 525ml and the total wound drainage was 46 ml.
What is the correct documentation of the 24 hr intake and output.
Input:
D5W 24 x 50 = 1,200
Heparin 8 x 24= 192
D5W 50 x 4 = 200
Tube Feeding 30 x 24 = 720
Total = 2,312
Output:
Urine = 1,350
Wound = 46
Total = 1,396
26
Which of the following disease is a vector-borne disease?
A. Lyme disease
B. Legionnaire disease
C. Varicella
D. Impetigo
Lyme disease
Vectors are living organisms that can transmit infectious pathogens between humans, or from animals to humans
27
What are the manifestations associated w/ serum potassium level of 7.52mEq/L?
Paresthesias, elevated T waves and QRS widening on the ECG
The normal potassium level in the blood is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L.
Levels between 5.1 mEq/L to 6.0 mEq/L are considered to be mild hyperkalemia.
Levels of 6.1 mEq/L to 7.0 mEq/L are moderate hyperkalemia
Levels above 7 mEq/L reflect severe hyperkalemia.
Progressive hyperkalemia may result in ECG changes, including peaked T wave, flattened P wave, prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and prolonged QRS duration
28
What is a 'sick day' plan?
medicines that should be temporarily stopped during a dehydrating illness
insulin administration protocol for DDM1 w/ decreased intake due to illness
29
Details of the DEXA with a patient who is menopausal. Which of the following statement is consistent w/ this screening test?
A. The scan can also identify arthritic changes in the hip joint
B. Meds containing Magnesium should not be taken for 24 hr prior to the exam
C. Scan does not provide a reliable assessment of the bone in men
D. Fasting for 6 -8 hr prior to the exam is recommended.
Meds containing Magnesium should not be taken for 24 hr prior to the exam
30
Caring for an elderly patient who often asks words to be repeated but able to watch TV set at normal volume.
Which inventions is most appropriate?
A. Speak more loudly when addressing the pt
B. arrange for the interpreter who is fluent in sign language
C. refer the patient to an audiologist to be fitted for a hearing aid
D. maintain a normal volume, speak slowly, and allow the patient time to process.
maintain a normal volume, speak slowly, and allow the patient time to process.
deficit is a delay in the processing or understanding the spoken word not in hearing the word.
31
The purpose of buccal and sublingual routes of meds admin w/ patient. Which statement indicates a need for the additional information?
(false statement)
A. Buccal med have an additional components that allows for the decreased permeability of the gums and palate
B. Sublingual meds provide immediate release of meds to the systemic circulation
C. Buccal meds are formulated to withstand the acid environment of the stomach
D. Sublingual meds may exert a local or systemic effects
Buccal meds are formulated to withstand the acid environment of the stomach
32
Which of the following is an age-related change in the GI System?
A. Dry mouth / xerostomia
B. Increased contractions of the upper esophageal sphincter
C. Increased risk of peptic ulcer disease
D. Malnutrition
Dry mouth / xerostomia
33
Explain how glaucoma affects the eye.
glaucoma occurs when the the flow of fluid in the anterior portion of the eye is either slowed or blocked.
Eventual change in the pressure in the eye can affect the optic nerve, which will lead to vision loss if not controlled.
34
Which of the following measurements is one of the mensuration assessment parameters?
A. Range of motion of the shoulder and arm
B. Fundal height in a pregnant women
C. bowels sounds
D. Body symmetry
Fundal height in a pregnant women
35
Which of the following is NOT included in the pt-exposure care of a healthcare worker following occupational exposure to the HIV virus?
A. pt-exposure anti-viral therapy is contraindicated if the exposed person is pregnant.
B. HIV testing will be repeated at 6 wks, 12 wks and 6 mos at min.
C. Exposed person should avoid blood or tissue donation, breast feeding or pregnancy for 6 to 12 wks after exposure
D. Renal and hepatic studies and CBC will be done at baseline and repeated freq.
pt-exposure anti-viral therapy is contraindicated if the exposed person is pregnant.
Anti-viral therapy started immediately after exposure, w/o waiting for further specialty consultation if the exposed person is pregnant due to the risk of the unborn fetus.
36
Which of the following menu choices is the best source of fiber?
A. 1 c strawberry
B. 2 pcs whole wheat bread
C. 1 oz dry roasted almonds
D. 1 c split pea soup
1 c split pea soup
contains 4.8 g
strawberry - 3g
whole wheat - 3.8g
dry almond - 3 g
37
A patient tells the CMA that he is doing well with his recovery from an MI 3 weeks ago. Which of the following statements by this patient indicates the needs for add'l instructions?
A. I'm walking 20 mins a day
B. My BP is well controlled by my new meds
C. I think the ginseng that I am taking is helping me to exercise easier.
D. I've stopped using salt at the dinner table.
I think the ginseng that I am taking is helping me to exercise easier.
Ginseng can potentially increase bp and decreased the effectiveness of warfarin.
38
Which of the following tubes contains a coagulant that facilitates the clotting of the blood in prep for plasma tests?
A. Tiger top (red/black)
B. Red top
C. Purple top
D. Light blue top
Tiger top
contains silica which promotes clotting of the blood to allow analysis of the clotting factor.
39
While many of the manifestations are common to both forms of abuse, which of the following manifestations most likely indicates substances abuse as opposed to alcohol abuse?
A. Depression
B. Violent behavior
C. Lack of interest in the family or activities
D. Abrupt weight change
Abrupt weight change
( due to the affects to GI and brain )
40
Which of the following lab reports is consistent with acute renal failure?
A. BUN 12mg per dL
B. Serum creatinine 5.4 mg per dL
C. GFR 92 L/min x 1.73(2)
D. HbgA1C 14.5 mg per dL
Serum creatinine 5.4 mg per dL
When kidney are damaged by disease or injury, waste products such as creatinine accumulate in the bloodstream.
Normal range .6-1.2mg
41
Which of the following manifestations is an indication of insulin shock?
A. Diffuse abd pain
B. Anorexia
C. Nausea and Vomiting
D. Sweating and anxiety
Sweating and anxiety
AKA: hypoglycemia
42
Which is the correct statement?
A. Sagittal plan is a horizontal line that divides the core of the body into the right and left sides
B. Caudal plane is a vertical line that divides the body into the right and left sides
C. transverse plane is a horizontal line that divides the body into upper and lower sections
D. coronal plane is a horizontal line that divides the body into upper/ superior and lower/inferior sections.
transverse plane is a horizontal line that divides the body into upper and lower sections
(AKA axial plane)
43
Which of the following statement correctly describes the Jaeger chart?
A. series of paragraphs of increasingly smaller text that tests near vision.
B. a panel of letters of different sizes that tests acuity
C. Circles containing colored letters embedded in a background of another color to test for color blindness.
D. grid square of straight lines to test for macular degeneration.
series of paragraphs of increasingly smaller text that tests near vision
44
Which of following criteria is NOT consistent with CLIA amendments as they relate to waive test kits for at home uses?
A. Waived lab tests will be cause harm if used incorrectly.
B. testing kits for at-home used must be approved by the FDA
C. tests must not produce false-positive or false-negative results
D. Providers who recommend the use of the kits will provide appropriate instructions for their use.
tests must not produce false-positive or false-negative results
45
Which of the following conditions requires that all who have contact w/ the patient use a particulate respirator capable of filtering particles smaller than 5 microns?
A. Diphtheria
B. TB
C. Adenovirus
D. difficile infection
TB
TB, varicella, herpes zoster and rubella are transmitted by droplet infection ( smaller than 5 microns)
Diphtheria and Adenovirus = larger than 5 microns
46
Patient is to received Valsartan 0.16g by mouth one time. There are 80 mg tablets available. Which is the correct dose?
A. 0.5 tabs
B. 1.5 tabs
C. 1 tabs
D. 2 tabs
D
1 tab/ 80mg x 1000mg/1gx0.16g/1=2 tabs
47
Which of the following medications should not be taken in combination with nitroglycerin and what would be the result if they are taken together?
A. Warfarin; excessive blood thinning
B. Sildenafil; irreversible hypotension
C. Allegra; increased heart rate
D. Sertraline; increased depression
B
Sildenafil + nitroglycerin as both cause blood vessel dilatation ; irreversible hypotension
48
Lipid-soluble drugs dissolve across the capillary membrane. Which of the following is an add'l advantage of lipid solubility?
A. lipid-soluble drugs are the only substances that can passively diffuse across the blood-brain barrier
B. Lipid solubility is associated with 100% absorption rates
C. Lipid soluble drugs cross the cellular membrane by passive diffusion
D. First-pass effect decreases lipid solubility
C:
Lipid soluble drugs cross the cellular membrane by passive diffusion
49
A new anti-Parkinson's drug at the usual adult dosage has been prescribed for a 68 yr patient. Which of the following will have the most significant effect on the patient's reaction?
A. patient's age
B. medication dose
C. amt of med that crosses the blood-brain barrier
D. patient's individual genetic and environmental influences.
D
patient's individual genetic and environmental influences.
50
CMA should understand that pharmacogenetic alterations that affect cellular metabolism can result in which of the following circumstances?
A. Altered plasma concentration of the drug
B. Reduced binding of the drug at the receptor site
C. Idiosyncratic changes that alter excretion of the drug
D. Increased drug potency.
A. Altered plasma concentration of the drug
51
Which of the following is constant with developmental anticipatory guidance?
A. ID of family coping strategies
B. Assessment of delayed grief resolution
C. ID of patient expectations for treatment success
D. Assessment of physical and cognitive benchmark
D. Assessment of physical and cognitive benchmark
52
Which of the following is true regarding behavioral anticipatory guidance and developmental anticipatory guidance?
A. Developmental level is basis for assessing expected and unexpected patient behavior
B. Behavioral anticipatory guidance is only used to assist parents w/ child behavior
C. Developmental anticipatory guidance is only appropriate when a child is not reaching expected benchmarks
D. Behavioral anticipatory guidance is less useful in elderly populations than developmental anticipatory guidance
A. Developmental level is basis for assessing expected and unexpected patient behavior
53
Which of the following is a form of tertiary prevention for a newborn infant?
A. MMR vaccination
B. Pavlik harness application for developmental dysphagia of the hip (DDH)
C. phenylketonuria (PKU) screening
D. Blood transfusion for sickle cell disease.
D. Blood transfusion for sickle cell disease.
54
Caring for a patient with relapsing remitting MS which has not responded to treatment. Which of the following must be included in the teaching plan for the patient who is beginning therapy with the newly available drug Mavenclad (cladribine)?
A. Anemia is common with cladribine, due to bone morrow suppression of red blood cell production.
B. a negative pregnancy test is required each cycle of therapy with cladribine
C. cladribine has proven effective in patients infected with HIV
D. cladribine therapy results in photosensitization.
B. a negative pregnancy test is required each cycle of therapy with cladribine
55
Therapy with proton pump insulin (PPIs) is recommended for the continued management of which condition?
A. Peptic ulcer disease that has been treated
B. H.pylori infection that is asymptomatic
C. Barrett esophagus that has been treated
D. GERD that is asymptomatic
C. Barrett esophagus that has been treated
56
Which drug increases Parkinsonian manifestations?
A. Metoclopramide
B. Cyclosporin
C. Rapid0acting insulin
D. Nicotine
A. Metoclopramide
57
Which of the following is a characteristic of high-quality research evidence?
A. Results obtained from observational studies
B. Variable estimates of effects size
C. RCT study design
D. Case controlled analytics
C. RCT study design
58
Which of the following drugs is contraindicated for the treatment of otitis externa in a seven-year old child with otitis externa?
A. Polymyxin B Sulfate
B. Tobramycin dexamethsone
C. Neomycin
D. Hydrocortisone
B. Tobramycin dexamethsone
59
What is the most common cause of off-label drug use in pediatric populations?
A. Many prescription drugs do not contain labeling information for small children
B. The pediatric Research Equity Act forbids off-label use of all prescription drugs
C. Most drugs can be used for pediatric patients with altered doses
D. Pediatric drug therapies do not require FDA review.
A. Many prescription drugs do not contain labeling information for small children
60
Aminoglycosides such as gentamicin are absolutely contraindicated for the treatment of which condition?
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Parkinson's disease
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Amyloidosis
C. Myasthenia gravis
61
Which alteration can result in abnormal increases in the plasma concentration of a drug?
A. Induction
B. Inhibition
C. Desensitization
D. Absorption
B. Inhibition
62
Which condition can alter the pharmacodynamic reaction of a drug at the cellular receptor site?
A. Type 2 diabetes
B. Cushing's disease
C. Addison's disease
D. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Addison's disease
63
Which of the following is a characteristic of the black box warnings issued by the FDA?
A. all drug labels contain a black box label
B. Mandatory restrictions for the administration of the drug are listed
C. The black box information is intended for consumers
D Black box warnings refer to the most common reactions associated with the drug
B. Mandatory restrictions for the administration of the drug are listed
64
Which racial or ethnic group demonstrates a higher than normal incidence of lactose intolerance?
A. Arab Americans
B. Asian Americans
C. Native Americans
D. African Americans
B. Asian Americans
65
Which symptoms should be reported to the FDA as an ADR?
A. Intractable vomiting following oral chemotherapy
B. Acute cirrhosis secondary to self-induced acetaminophen overdose
C. Intervention is required to prevent permanent damage following the reported ADR
D. Alteration of the pharmacotherapeutic plan is required due to the reported ADR
C. Intervention is required to prevent permanent damage following the reported ADR
66
Which of the following differentiates a legend drug from an OTC drug?
A. Legend drugs are not approved by the DFA
B. OTC drugs require black box labels
C. OTC drugs have labels that provide adequate drug instructions for adults
D. Opioid drugs are not included as legend drugs
C. OTC drugs have labels that provide adequate drug instructions for adults
67
What is the difference between quantal and graded drug responses?
A. a graded response is an objective measurement of biological drug effect such as BP changes
B. A quantal response is the patient's subjective report of the drug's biological effect
C. The graded response for a given dose of a drug is the same from one patient to the next
D. A quantal response is considered to be a negative outcome.
A. a graded response is an objective measurement of biological drug effect such as BP changes
68
Which of the following medications can be contribute to or worsen hypertension?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Dextromethorphan
C. Dapagliflozin
D. Bupropion
D. Bupropion
69
Which of the following criteria is included in the MELD classification of lever disease to estimate the expected 3-months survival?
A. Creatinine level
B. Ascites
C. Encephalopathy
D. Nutritional status
A. Creatinine level
70
Which condition is an inherited cause of insulin resistance?
A. Abdominal obesity
B. Insulin receptor mutations
C. HIV antiretrovirals
D. Anti-insulin antigens
B. Insulin receptor mutations
71
Which statement about u_500 Humulin R insulin is correct?
A. it can be administered intravenously
B. it can be mixed with other insulins in the same syringe
C. Hypoglycemia may occur 15-18 hors after injections
D. the vial must be discarded after 14 days of use.
C. Hypoglycemia may occur 15-18 hors after injections
72
Providers widely debate the importance of which characteristic of analog insulin?
A. Hyperglycemic control
B. Alternations in body weight
C. Effect onlong term complications
D. Cost
D. Cost
73
Which of the following manifestations would the CMA expect to observe in a patient with a serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L?
A. Palpitations
B. Paraesthesias
C. Decreased deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
D. Prolonged P-R interval
D. Prolonged P-R interval
74
What is the rationale for "brown bag" approach to increasing the patient's adherence to the therapeutic drug regimen?
A. The plan requires the patient to construct a written drug plan
B. The plan allows the provider to identify all prescription drugs, OTC preparations, and all other supplements at each appointment and to assess the patient's knowledge of the drug plan.
C. The patient can identify ways to coordinate the drug administration schedule with the activities of daily living (ADLs)
D. The patient can use the brown bag contents to learn about the individual drugs
B. The plan allows the provider to identify all prescription drugs, OTC preparations, and all other supplements at each appointment and to assess the patient's knowledge of the drug plan
75
Which category of adverse drug reactions (ADRs) is commonly considered to be due to incorrect administration of the drug?
A. Rapid reactions
B. First dose reactions
C. Early reactions
D. Intermediate reactions
A. Rapid reactions
76
Which of the following culturally and linguistically appropriate services (CLAS) criteria requires mandatory compliance and reporting for all federally assisted health care institutions?
A. Provide effective, equitable, understandable, and respectful quality care and services
B. Recruit, promote, and support a culturally and linguistically diverse governance, leadership and workforce.
C. Conduct ongoing assessments of the organization's CLAS-related activities
D. Ensure the competence of the individuals who provide language assistance
D. Ensure the competence of the individuals who provide language assistance
77
Which of the following is a humanistic outcome?
A. BP: 120/80
B. EKG: normal sinus rhythm
C. Pain increases with exercise
D. Plasma Na+ 142 mg/dL
C. Pain increases with exercise
78
According to the nursing theories of culturally congruent practice, which of the following is the FIRST step?
A. Cultural self-awareness
B. Cultural skill development
C. Cultural knowledge acquisition
D. Cultural implementation training
A. Cultural self-awareness
79
Which of the followping activities is associated with the "A" of the SHARE approach?
A. Explore the patient's values
B. Engage the patient in shared decision-making
C. Review all treatment options
D. Reassess patients priorities
A. Explore the patient's values
80
A patient is taking 50mg of spironolactone daily. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated for the patient at this time?
A. Simvastatin 40mg PO daily
B. KCI 20 mEq/L PO BID
C. Clorazepate 3.75 mg PO
D. Metronidazole 500mg in 100mL D5W IV over 60 mins
A. Simvastatin 40mg PO daily
81
Which of the OARS communication tools can potentially enhance the patient's self-efficacy?
A. Tell me more about the experience
B. Are you saying that...?
C. I understand your concerns
D. Is there anything else that you would like to say?
C. I understand your concerns
“OARS” stands for:
Open-ended questions
Affirming
Reflective listening
Summarizing.
82
Which of the following is NOT consistent with Ranson's criteria for the prediction of mortality associated with cute pancreatitis?
A. Age 38
B. Serum calcium 7.2 mg/dl
C. Plasma glucose: 280mg/dl
D. WBC 19,000/ mm3
A. Age 38
83
The differential diagnosis for conductive hearing loss includes which of the following disorders?
A. Meniere's disease
B. Arnold-Chiari malformations
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Glomus tumor
D. Glomus tumor
84
Which kind of wound is NOT commonly associated with the development of tetanus?
A. A wound that occurred four hours ago
B. A stellate wound
C. A Puncture wound
D. A wound with compromised tissue
A. A wound that occurred four hours ago
85
The differential diagnosis for sudden loss of vision includes which of the following conditions?
A. Uveitis
B. Amblyopia
C. Hyphema
D. Pituitary tumor
C. Hyphema
86
Which of the following may be necessary to treat the Hawthorne effect?
A. Random selection
B. Random assignments
C. Blinding of the researcher
D. Placebo control group
D. Placebo control group
87
Which drug often requires concurrent use of docusate?
A. Pantoprazole
B. Verapamil
C. Metformin
D. Naproxen
B. Verapamil
(Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker)
Docusate is a medication utilized for managing and treating constipation
The most common side effect of verapamil is constipation
Pantoprazole = a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)
Naproxen= NSAID
88
Which assessment is required for a patient who is taking sumatriptan for the first time?
A. Blood glucose
B. Platelet count
C. Glaucoma testing
D. ECG
D. ECG
89
The CMA is caring for a patient with serotonin syndrome. Which drug decreases the reuptake of serotonin?
A. Procarbazine
B. Fenfluramine
C. Ondansetron
D. Lithium
C. Ondansetron
90
Which of the following drugs is on the STOPP list of the current START/STOPP list?
A. NSAIDS with moderate HTN
B. Beta-blocker with stable angina
C. ACE inhibitor with heart failure
D. PPI therapy for GERD
A. NSAIDS with moderate HTN
91
92
What is the difference between nociceptive pain and neuropathic pain?
A. Nociceptive pain only affects hollow organs
B. Neuropathic pain is caused by damage within the peripheral or central nervous system
C. Nociceptive pain should be treated by NSAIDs first.
D. Neuropathic pain requires opioid analgesics for acceptable pain relief
B. Neuropathic pain is caused by damage within the peripheral or central nervous system
93
Which statement about chlamydia is correct?
A. Men are more often asymptomatic than women
B. Antibody testing is the most reliable indicator of the presence of the condition
C. Testing is not currently recommended for men
D. The degree of risk for complications in women is similar to a UTI
C. Testing is not currently recommended for men
94
A TB skin test is considered positive at 15mm in which of the following patient populations?
A. Patient with no risk factors for the development of the disease
B. HIV + patients
C. Immunocompromised patients
D. Recent immigrants
A. Patient with no risk factors for the development of the disease
95
Which statement about either community-or hospital acquired pneumonia is correct?
A. Hospital-acquired pneumonia is responsible for signs and symptoms of pneumonia for 7 days after discharge
B. The incidence of hospital acquired pneumonia is associated with charges in reimbursement schedules
C. Community acquired pneumonia is responsible for signs and symptoms of pneumonia for 72 hours after admission to the hospital
D. Patients with community acquired pneumonia should be hospitalized for at least 48 hours to ensure adequate anti-infective agent coverage.
B. The incidence of hospital acquired pneumonia is associated with charges in reimbursement schedules
96
What is the rationale for glucose testing of the CSF obtained from the lumbar puncture of a patient with meningitis?
A. Verification of the ICP
B. Assessment of protein levels
C. Differentiation of bacterial and viral disease
D. Identification of ketoacidosis in diabetic patients
C. Differentiation of bacterial and viral disease
97
Which of the following manifestations is associated with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic states?
A. Fruity smelling breath
B. High levels of ketones in the urine
C. Flushing of the skin
D. Cerebral edema in younger patients
D. Cerebral edema in younger patients
98
Which of the following manifestations is associated with right sided heart failure?
A. Increased respiratory rate
B. CVP 21cm water
C. Serum sodium 145 mg/dL
D. Dyspnea on exertion
B. CVP 21cm water
99
100
What is the purpose of the Wells score?
A. Assess the risk potential of venous stasis ulcers
B. Confirm the presence of a DVT
C. Assess the probability of a PE
D. Stratify ankle-brachial index scores
C. Assess the probability of a PE
101
