Study Guide Flashcards by Moe & Jess Allen/ Ortega

What is the most common gender affected by Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)?

a) 74% females
b) 74% males
c) Equal distribution between males and females
d) 50% males, 50% females

Answer: b) 74% males

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Among which age group is TBI incidence highest?

a) 5-10 years
b) 16-25 years
c) 30-40 years
d) 60-70 years

Answer: b) 16-25 years

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Which ethnic group has a higher incidence of TBI?

a) African Americans
b) Asians
c) Caucasians
d) Hispanics

Answer: c) Caucasians

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Which of the following is NOT a common cause of TBI?

a) Motor Vehicle Accidents (MVA)
b) Falls
c) Drowning
d) Violence

Answer: c) Drowning

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Which type of skull fracture is often associated with epidural hematoma?

a) Linear fracture
b) Depressed fracture
c) Basilar fracture
d) None of the above

Answer: c) Basilar fracture

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What is the typical presentation sequence of epidural hematoma?

a) Immediate loss of consciousness (LOC), then lucid period, then deterioration
b) Immediate deterioration, then lucid period, then loss of consciousness (LOC)
c) Immediate loss of consciousness (LOC) without lucid period
d) Gradual onset of symptoms without loss of consciousness (LOC)

Answer: a) Immediate loss of consciousness (LOC), then lucid period, then deterioration

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Which artery is commonly associated with epidural hematoma?

a) Carotid artery
b) Vertebral artery
c) Middle meningeal artery
d) Basilar artery

Answer: c) Middle meningeal artery

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Subdural hematoma is commonly associated with which type of acceleration?

a) Rapid deceleration
b) Slow acceleration
c) No association with acceleration
d) Vertical acceleration

Answer: a) Rapid deceleration

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Which type of headache is characteristic of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

a) Migraine
b) Tension headache
c) Thunderclap headache
d) Cluster headache

Answer: c) Thunderclap headache

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Cerebral contusion most commonly involves which brain lobes?

a) Occipital and parietal
b) Parietal and temporal
c) Frontal and temporal
d) Frontal and occipital

Answer: c) Frontal and temporal

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What is the term for bleeding within the brain tissue?

a) Subdural hematoma
b) Epidural hematoma
c) Intracerebral hematoma
d) Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Answer: c) Intracerebral hematoma

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Which of the following is NOT typically associated with penetrating brain injury?

a) Scalp laceration
b) Skull fracture
c) Diffuse axonal injury
d) Intracerebral hemorrhage

Answer: c) Diffuse axonal injury

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What is a common feature of a penetrating brain injury?

a) Diffuse stretching, tearing, and shearing of axons

b) Projectile penetrates the calvarium

c) Typically associated with high-velocity injuries such as Motor Vehicle Accidents (MVC)

d) Commonly results in diffuse swelling and bleeding visible on CT or MRI

Answer: b) Projectile penetrates the calvarium

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Which injury is often underestimated as a mechanism of injury but is a common cause of severe disability following Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)?

a) Subdural hematoma
b) Skull fracture
c) Diffuse axonal injury
d) Epidural hematoma

Answer: c) Diffuse axonal injury

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Which of the following is true regarding diffuse axonal injury (DAI)?

a) It is always visible on CT or MRI scans
b) It primarily affects the elderly population
c) Damage is microscopic and not visible on CT or MRI
d) It is commonly associated with penetrating brain injury

Answer: c) Damage is microscopic and not visible on CT or MRI

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What is the typical patient population most commonly affected by Intraventricular hemorrhage?

a) Middle-aged adults
b) Elderly individuals
c) Premature or low birth weight infants
d) Adolescents

Answer: c) Premature or low birth weight infants

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The following are TBI outcome measures.

A) Glasgow outcome Scale- evaluated
B) Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test (GOAT)
C) Ranchos Los Amigos
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Glasgow outcome Scale- evaluated in 4 areas
Eye opening response
Verbal response
Motor response
Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test (GOAT)
Ask the patient questions
Ranchos Los Amigos
Levels 1-8 (1= coma, 4= minimal conscious)

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What does the Glasgow Outcome Scale primarily evaluate?

a) Muscle strength and coordination

b) Cognitive function and memory

c) Eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response

d) Emotional stability and social functioning

Answer: c) Eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response

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True or False: The following are TBI signs and symptoms Headache, Disorientation/memory deficits, Impaired concentration/attention, Gross incoordination, dizziness/vertigo, nausea/vomiting, Irritability, Exaggerated emotional responses, Fatigue, LOC/coma, Focal weakness, Seizure, Asymmetric pupils in setting of, unresponsiveness, Delayed recovery from LOC, Posturing

True

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Which of the following is NOT typically associated with acute TBI signs and symptoms?

a) Disorientation/memory deficits
b) Gross incoordination
c) Clear and focused attention
d) Nausea/vomiting

Answer: c) Clear and focused attention

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Which of the following is a potential neurological sequelae of TBI characterized by enlarged ventricles, gait apraxia, cognitive dysfunction, incontinence ?

a) Post-traumatic hydrocephalus
b) Post-traumatic CNS infection
c) Post-traumatic seizures
d) Post-traumatic headache

Answer: a) Post-traumatic hydrocephalus

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Post-traumatic seizures following TBI may occur in different timelines. Which timeline represents seizures that develop months or years post-injury?

a) Immediate seizures
b) Early seizures
c) Late seizures
d) Impact seizures

Answer: c) Late seizures

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What is a common sign/symptom of post-traumatic hydrocephalus?

a) Impaired vision
b) Vertigo or dizziness
c) Enlarged ventricles
d) Motor impairments

Answer: c) Enlarged ventricles

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Which type of TBI-related infection is more common in open/penetrating injuries?

a) CNS Infection
b) seizures
c) empyema
d) Vertigo

Answer: b) CNS infection

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Cranial nerve injury is a common sequelae of TBI. Which cranial nerve is very commonly injured due to shearing of the nerve through the cribriform plate? a) CN VII b) CN V c) CN I d) CN II

Answer: c) CN I

What is a characteristic symptom of CN VII palsy in the lower motor neuron (LMN) type? a) Entire ipsilateral side of face droops b) Vertigo and nystagmus c) Contralateral drooping of the lower half of the face d) Impaired vision

Answer: a) Entire ipsilateral side of face droops

Which medical complication is characterized by the presence of normal bone tissue in abnormal locations? a) Hypertension b) Venous thromboembolic disease c) Heterotopic ossification d) Urinary dysfunction

Answer: c) Heterotopic ossification

Executive dysfunction following TBI can manifest as which of the following? a) Increased speed of information processing b) Socially inappropriate behavior c) Enhanced visuospatial skills d) Improved language abilities

Answer: b) Socially inappropriate behavior

Which type of amnesia is characterized by memory loss for events that occurred after the traumatic brain injury? a) Retrograde amnesia b) Anterograde amnesia c) Posttraumatic memory impairment d) Executive dysfunction

Answer: b) Anterograde amnesia

What is the term for the impairment in the ability to recognize and interpret sensory stimuli? a) Neglect b) Agnosia c) Apraxia d) Extinction

Answer: b) Agnosia

Which of the following symptoms is indicative of autonomic dysfunction commonly seen in individuals in a low-responsive state following Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)? a) Increased sweating b) Bradycardia c) Constricted pupils d) Hypotension

Answer: b) Bradycardia

Which of the following statements accurately describes concussion? a) Always associated with loss of consciousness (LOC) b) Results in permanent brain damage c) Typically shows abnormalities on scans d) May or may not be associated with loss of consciousness (LOC)

Answer: d) May or may not be associated with loss of consciousness (LOC)

What is the typical duration for most patients to recover from a concussion? a) 1-3 days b) 1-3 weeks c) 1-3 months d) 1-3 years

Answer: c) 1-3 months

Which syndrome is characterized by persistent symptoms and social/vocational difficulties following a concussion? a) Post-concussive syndrome b) Chronic traumatic encephalopathy c) Second-impact syndrome d) Concussion syndrome

Answer: a) Post-concussive syndrome

What is the morbidity rate associated with second-impact syndrome? a) 0% b) 25% c) 50% d) 100%

Answer: d) 100%

Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) is associated with: a) A single concussion b) Rapid recovery within days c) Multiple concussions over time d) Immediate onset of symptoms after trauma

Answer: c) Multiple concussions over time

What is the hallmark symptom of an absence seizure? a) Brief staring b) Sudden loss of consciousness c) Rhythmic jerking movements d) Abrupt stiffening/posturing

Answer: a) Brief staring

Which type of seizure is characterized by sudden loss of muscle tone? a) Myoclonic seizure b) Atonic seizure c) Tonic seizure d) Clonic seizure

Answer: b) Atonic seizure

What is the term for a seizure that starts in one area of the brain and then spreads to involve the whole brain? a) Simple partial seizure b) Complex partial seizure c) Secondarily generalized seizure d) Absence seizure

Answer: c) Secondarily generalized seizure

Which type of seizure originates in one area of the brain and may involve preserved awareness? a) Generalized seizure b) Absence seizure c) Simple partial seizure d) Complex partial seizure

Answer: c) Simple partial seizure

What percentage of the population will experience a seizure at least once? a) 0.1-0.5% b) 1-2% c) 5-10% d) 10-15%

Answer: c) 5-10%

What is the definition of a seizure? a) Normal and synchronized activity in cortical neurons b) Abnormal and excessively synchronized activity in cortical neurons c) Brief periods of confusion and disorientation d) Sudden loss of consciousness without motor symptoms

Answer: b) Abnormal and excessively synchronized activity in cortical neurons

Which of the following conditions is NOT typically considered in the differential diagnosis of seizures? a) Stroke b) Migraine c) Diabetes d) Movement disorder

Answer: c) Diabetes

What is the primary classification of epilepsies based on the presence or absence of an obvious cause? a) Primary and secondary b) Simple and complex c) Focal and generalized d) Acute and chronic

Answer: a) Primary and secondary

What is the term for seizures that are not caused by epilepsy and may have a psychological origin? a) Secondary seizures b) Breathholding seizures c) Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures d) Cardiac arrhythmia seizures

Answer: c) Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures

Which diagnostic tool is commonly used to record seizures with continuous video monitoring? a) EEG b) MRI c) CT scan d) PET scan

Answer: a) EEG

Which of the following is NOT considered a seizure trigger? a) Stress b) Sleep deprivation c) Regular exercise d) Alcohol consumption

Answer: c) Regular exercise

What is a recommended action in providing first aid during a seizure? a) Restrain the person to prevent movement b) Give food or liquid to help them recover faster c) Turn the person on their side and loosen tight clothing d) Put something in the person's mouth to prevent them from biting their tongue

Answer: c) Turn the person on their side and loosen tight clothing

Which of the following is NOT a recommended action during a seizure? a) Restraining the person to prevent movements b) Giving antiepileptic drugs (AED) if available c) Ensuring the person's safety by removing nearby hazards d) Putting anything in the person's mouth to prevent them from swallowing their tongue

Answer: a) Restraining the person to prevent movements

What percentage of seizures are not controlled by medications, making the individual a candidate for alternative treatments? a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 50%

Answer: c) 30%

Which of the following is NOT a potential psychosocial issue associated with epilepsy? a) Anxiety b) Depression c) Hair loss d) Suicidality

Answer: c) Hair loss

What is a common neurological impairment associated with epilepsy? a) Hearing loss b) Vision impairment c) Memory loss d) Tremor

Answer: d) Tremor

What is the term for sudden unexpected death in epilepsy? a) Seizure-induced mortality b) Epileptic shock c) Sudden cardiac arrest d) Sudden unexpected death (SUDEP)

Answer: d) Sudden unexpected death (SUDEP)

Which drug is mentioned as a treatment option for Multiple Sclerosis? a) Natalizumab b) Penicillin c) Aspirin d) Insulin

Answer: a) Natalizumab

What is the common assessment tool used to evaluate the disability status of individuals with Multiple Sclerosis? a) MRI scan b) EEG (Electroencephalogram) c) EDSS (Expanded Disability Status Scale) d) PET scan

Answer: c) EDSS (Expanded Disability Status Scale)

Which of the following symptoms is NOT commonly associated with Multiple Sclerosis? a) Paresthesia b) Lhermitte’s sign c) Seizures d) Visual disturbances

Answer: c) Seizures ## Footnote **MS Symptoms** * Paresthesia * Lhermitte’s * Bladder: urgency, frequency, incomplete emptying * Visual disturbance: blurred, diplopia (double vision) * Weakness * Spasticity * Fatigue * Cognitive impairment * Depression * Pseudobulbar affect (laughing/crying @ inappropriate times) *

Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of Multiple Sclerosis? a) Degeneration of neurons due to aging b) Infection of the central nervous system by bacteria c) Autoimmune disorder causing demyelination and axonal injury d) Excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid leading to hydrocephalus

Answer: c) Autoimmune disorder causing demyelination and axonal injury

Which gender is more commonly affected by Multiple Sclerosis? a) Men b) Women c) No gender predilection d) Equally affects both men and women

Answer: b) Women

At what age range is Multiple Sclerosis commonly diagnosed? a) 10-20 years b) 20-50 years c) 50-70 years d) 70-90 years

Answer: b) 20-50 years

What is the estimated worldwide prevalence of Multiple Sclerosis (MS)? a) 1 million people b) 2.5 million people c) 5 million people d) 10 million people

Answer: b) 2.5 million people

Which of the following is NOT part of the NIH Stroke Scale (NIHSS) used for stroke neuro exams? a) Facial strength b) Limb ataxia c) Blood pressure d) Level of consciousness

Answer: c) Blood pressure

What is the 4th leading cause of death in the United States? a) Cancer b) Heart disease c) Stroke d) Chronic lower respiratory diseases

Answer: c) Stroke

What is the approximate number of strokes that occur each year in the United States? a) 100,000-150,000 b) 400,000-450,000 c) 700,000-750,000 d) 1 million

Answer: c) 700,000-750,000

What term is used to describe a transient neurological impairment caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia without acute infarction? a) Hemorrhagic stroke b) Ischemic stroke c) Silent stroke d) Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

Answer: d) Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

What is the classification of a stroke that involves the occlusion of a blood vessel resulting in neurological impairments? a) Ischemic stroke b) Hemorrhagic stroke c) Transient ischemic attack d) Silent stroke

Answer: a) Ischemic stroke

What is the mortality rate within one year after a stroke? a) 1-10% b) 16-36.8% c) 21-30% d) 31-40%

Answer: b) 16-36.8%

What is the recommended management strategy for secondary stroke prevention? a) Lifestyle modifications only b) Medication therapy only c) Combination of lifestyle modifications and medication therapy d) Surgical intervention

Answer: c) Combination of lifestyle modifications and medication therapy

What is the risk of recurrent stroke within one month after an initial stroke? a) 1.2-3.3% b) 6.1-9.0% c) 9.2-14.1% d) 16-36.8%

Answer: a) 1.2-3.3%

What is the first-line treatment for acute ischemic stroke within 3 hours of symptom onset? a) Intravenous tissue plasminogen activator (IV tPA) b) Aspirin c) Heparin d) Warfarin

Answer: a) Intravenous tissue plasminogen activator (IV tPA)

What acronym is commonly used to recognize the signs and symptoms of a stroke? a) RAPID b) FAST c) SWIFT d) SPEED

Answer: b) FAST

What is the initial imaging test recommended for acute strokes? a) MRI with contrast b) CT of head without contrast c) PET scan d) Ultrasound of the carotid arteries

Answer: b) CT of head without contrast

Which of the following are strategies to recover from stroke? A) Forced use therapy B) Early rehab C) Robot assisted therapy D) TMS E) All of the above

All of the above

What is one of the recovery strategies commonly used after a stroke that involves forcing the use of the affected limbs? a) Passive range of motion exercises b) Forced use therapy c) Meditation d) Acupuncture

Answer: b) Forced use therapy

What type of therapy is associated with improved recovery after stroke and involves using a treadmill? a) Yoga b) Pilates c) Treadmill-assisted therapy d) Tai Chi

Answer: c) Treadmill-assisted therapy

What percentage of stroke survivors experience depression post-stroke? a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d) 20%

Answer: d) 20%

Which factor is NOT associated with affecting recovery after a stroke? a) Age b) Pre-stroke physical activity c) Blood type d) Recurrent strokes

Answer: c) Blood type

What percentage of stroke survivors require institutional care at 3 months post-stroke? a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 40%

Answer: c) 30%

Which concern is commonly expressed by stroke survivors regarding their ability to perform daily activities? a) Driving restrictions b) Financial stability c) Employment opportunities d) Memory loss

Answer: a) Driving restrictions

What is the purpose of chronic anti-platelet agents in stroke prevention? a) Lowering blood pressure b) Reducing cholesterol levels c) Preventing blood clot formation d) Treating atrial fibrillation

Answer: c) Preventing blood clot formation

Which medication is commonly prescribed for lipid-lowering to prevent stroke? a) Aspirin b) Statins c) Warfarin d) Metformin

Answer: b) Statins

Which medical condition is often linked as an increase risk of stroke? a) Migraine b) Osteoarthritis c) Headache d) Dyslipidemia

Answer: d) Dyslipidemia

What is a primary preventive measure for reducing the risk of stroke associated with hypertension? a) Regular exercise b) Smoking cessation c) Antihypertensive medication d) Vitamin D supplementation

Answer: c) Antihypertensive medication

Which of the following is NOT a common risk factor for stroke? a) Hypertension b) Osteoporosis c) Diabetes d) Atrial fibrillation

Answer: b) Osteoporosis

What complication has the greatest impact on mortality rates in individuals with spinal cord injuries? a) Septicemia b) Pneumonia c) Deep vein thrombosis d) Neurogenic shock

Answer: b) Pneumonia

What syndrome results from hemisection of the spinal cord? a) Central cord syndrome b) Brown-Sequard syndrome c) Anterior cord syndrome d) Mixed cord syndrome

Answer: b) Brown-Sequard syndrome

In which syndrome is there preservation of light touch and joint position but loss of motor function and pain sensation? a) Central cord syndrome b) Brown-Sequard syndrome c) Anterior cord syndrome d) Mixed cord syndrome

Answer: c) Anterior cord syndrome

What is a common reason for rehospitalization in individuals with spinal cord injuries? a) Musculoskeletal injuries b) Respiratory complications c) Cardiovascular diseases d) Gastrointestinal disorders

Answer: b) Respiratory complications

What is the average length of stay in acute care for individuals with spinal cord injuries? a) 5 days b) 11 days c) 20 days d) 35 days

Answer: b) 11 days

In which type of spinal cord injury is there complete paralysis of the lower extremities but partial preservation of upper extremity function? a) Incomplete tetraplegia (quadriplegia) b) Incomplete paraplegia c) Complete paraplegia d) Complete tetraplegia (quadriplegia)

Answer: b) Incomplete paraplegia

Which level of injury is characterized by weakness or paralysis affecting all four limbs? a) Incomplete tetraplegia (quadriplegia) b) Incomplete paraplegia c) Complete paraplegia d) Complete tetraplegia (quadriplegia)

Answer: a) Incomplete tetraplegia (quadriplegia)

What racial/ethnic group experiences the highest incidence of spinal cord injuries? a) Hispanic b) Asian c) Non-Hispanic white d) African American

Answer: c) Non-Hispanic white

Which of the following is the leading cause of spinal cord injuries? a) Falls b) Violence c) Medical/surgical procedures d) Motor vehicle crashes

Answer: d) Motor vehicle crashes

What is the average age of individuals who sustain spinal cord injuries? a) 25 b) 35 c) 42 d) 50

Answer: c) 42

Which gender is more commonly affected by spinal cord injuries? a) Women b) Men c) Both genders equally d) Gender has no impact on the incidence of spinal cord injuries

Answer: b) Men

What is the approximate number of spinal cord injuries that occur annually? a) 7,000 b) 12,000 c) 17,000 d) 25,000

Answer: c) 17,000

Which neurological level is determined as the highest of either the sensory or motor levels? a) Sensory level b) Motor level c) Neurological level d) ASIA level

Answer: c) Neurological level

What is the sensory level defined as in spinal cord injury assessment? a) The lowest dermatome with normal sensation b) The highest dermatome with normal sensation c) The lowest innervated muscle with grade 3 strength d) The highest innervated muscle with grade 5 strength

Answer: a) The lowest dermatome with normal sensation

What is the scoring range for sensory testing using light touch and pinprick? a) 0-1 b) 0-2 c) 1-3 d) 1-4

Answer: b) 0-2

How many dermatomes are examined on each side for sensory testing? a) 10 b) 20 c) 28 d) 30

Answer: c) 28

How many key muscles are tested on each side for motor testing using the MMT method? a) 5 upper extremity and 5 lower extremity muscles b) 10 upper extremity muscles c) 10 lower extremity muscles d) 5 key muscles total

Answer: a) 5 upper extremity and 5 lower extremity muscles

Which testing method is used to assess muscle strength in spinal cord injury patients? a) Sensory testing b) Motor testing c) Neurological level assessment d) Reflex testing

b) Motor testing

What is the ASIA Grade for a patient with complete loss of sensory and motor function at the S4/5 level? a) Grade A b) Grade B c) Grade C d) Grade E

Answer: a) Grade A

Which classification system is commonly used to assess spinal cord injuries? a) NINDS Scale b) ASIA Exam c) Glasgow Coma Scale d) FIM Score

Answer: b) ASIA Exam

What is the focus of injury in Cauda Equina Syndrome? a) Lower spinal cord and/or individual nerve roots b) Upper spinal cord c) Cervical nerve roots d) Lumbar vertebrae

Answer: a) Lower spinal cord and/or individual nerve roots

What percentage of individuals with ASIA-A spinal cord injury are likely to remain complete? a) 10-20% b) 30-40% c) 50-60% d) 80-90%

Answer: d) 80-90%

What percentage of individuals with ASIA-B spinal cord injury become ambulatory? a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 95%

Answer: b) 50%

Which ASIA classification has the highest likelihood of becoming community ambulatory? a) ASIA-A b) ASIA-B c) ASIA-C d) ASIA-D

Answer: d) ASIA-D

Autonomic dysreflexia is a potential complication of spinal cord injury. What is a common trigger for autonomic dysreflexia? a) Elevated blood pressure b) Low blood sugar c) Bladder dysfunction d) Hypothermia

Answer: c) Bladder dysfunction

Orthostatic hypotension is a common concern in individuals with spinal cord injury. What is orthostatic hypotension characterized by? a) High blood pressure when lying down b) Low blood pressure when standing up c) Irregular heart rate during exercise d) Elevated blood pressure during physical activity

Answer: b) Low blood pressure when standing up

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of spinal cord injury? a) Neoplastic spinal compression b) Spinal epidural abscess c) Pulmonary embolism d) Spinal epidural hematoma

Answer: c) Pulmonary embolism

What type of orthopedic deformity is commonly seen in cerebral palsy? a) Scoliosis b) Clubfoot c) Cleft palate d) Kyphosis

Answer: a) Scoliosis

Which cognitive deficit is commonly observed in individuals with cerebral palsy? a) Dysarthria b) Dysphagia c) Seizures d) Cognitive deficits

Answer: d) Cognitive deficits

What is a common hearing problem associated with cerebral palsy? a) Tinnitus b) Rubella c) Otosclerosis d) Otitis media

Answer: b) Rubella

Which motor type of cerebral palsy is characterized by slow, labored speech and limb ataxia? a) Spastic b) Athetoid c) Ataxic d) Atonic

Answer: c) Ataxic

What is the major characteristic of spastic type cerebral palsy? a) Fluctuating muscle tone b) Limb ataxia c) Increased muscle tone d) Hypotonia

Answer: c) Increased muscle tone

Which imaging technique is commonly used in the diagnosis of cerebral palsy? a) X-ray b) Ultrasound c) PET scan d) Electrocardiogram

Answer: b) Ultrasound

What is the prevalence of cerebral palsy in the population? a) 1 out of 500 b) 1 out of 1,000 c) 1 out of 5,000 d) 1 out of 10,000

Answer: b) 1 out of 1,000

Which therapeutic intervention involves cutting nerve groups to reduce spasticity in individuals with cerebral palsy? a) Botox injections b) Antispasticity medication c) Selective dorsal rhizotomy d) Constraint-induced therapy

Answer: c) Selective dorsal rhizotomy

What is the primary purpose of constraint-induced therapy in cerebral palsy management? a) To reduce muscle tone b) To promote relaxation c) To increase range of motion d) To encourage the use of the affected limb

Answer: d) To encourage the use of the affected limb

Which therapeutic intervention focuses on goal-direction and motor learning approach? a) Myofascial release b) NDT and sensory integration c) Constraint-induced therapy d) Therapeutic intervention (PT/OT/SLP)

Answer: c) Constraint-induced therapy

What is the primary goal of myofascial release in cerebral palsy management? a) To increase muscle tone b) To reduce muscle stiffness c) To promote muscle relaxation d) To improve muscle strength

Answer: b) To reduce muscle stiffness

Which type of intervention focuses on educational strategies for children with limited participation and developmental delay? a) Surgical intervention b) Therapeutic intervention (PT/OT/SLP) c) Compensatory approach d) Educational intervention

Answer: d) Educational intervention

Whichof the following are intervention used for cerebral palsy management? a) Surgical b) Selective dorsal rhizotomy c) Antispasticity medication d) Botox e) Therapeutic intervention (PT/OT/SLP) f) Constraint-induced therapy g) Goal-direction h) Motor learning approach i) NDT and sensory integration j) Compensatory approach k) Myofascial release l) Kinesio-taping m) All of the above

m) All of the above

Which medical intervention involves the use of botulinum toxin to reduce muscle spasticity? a) Selective dorsal rhizotomy b) Botox injections c) Antispasticity medication d) Surgical intervention

Answer: b) Botox injections

What is the primary purpose of antispasticity medication in cerebral palsy management? a) To increase muscle tone b) To promote relaxation c) To reduce muscle spasticity d) To improve coordination

Answer: c) To reduce muscle spasticity

Which surgical intervention involves cutting nerve groups to reduce spasticity in individuals with cerebral palsy? a) Selective dorsal rhizotomy b) Botox injections c) Antispasticity medication d) Constraint-induced therapy

Answer: a) Selective dorsal rhizotomy

What is the primary goal of surgical intervention in cerebral palsy management? a) To improve cognitive function b) To address sensory processing issues c) To reduce muscle spasticity or contractures d) To enhance social skills

Answer: c) To reduce muscle spasticity or contractures

Besides symptom relief, what is a key aspect of ALS management? a) Surgical intervention b) Management of feeding and communication c) Physical therapy for muscle strengthening d) Psychological counseling

Answer: b) Management of feeding and communication

Which initial signs are commonly observed in individuals with ALS? a) Fever and chills b) Visual disturbances c) Difficulty swallowing and slurred speech d) Joint pain and stiffness

Answer: c) Difficulty swallowing and slurred speech

In Guillain-Barre Syndrome, which part of the nervous system is primarily affected? a) Central nervous system b) Peripheral nervous system c) Autonomic nervous system d) Enteric nervous system

Answer: b) Peripheral nervous system

In ALS, what is the primary site of degeneration? a) Cerebellum b) Basal ganglia c) Spinal cord and cortices d) Brainstem

Answer: c) Spinal cord and cortices

What triggers Guillain-Barre Syndrome? a) Genetic mutations b) Traumatic injury c) Bacterial or viral infection d) Chemical imbalance

Answer: c) Bacterial or viral infection

Which medication is commonly prescribed for the management of ALS due to its ability to decrease glutamate levels? a) Riluzole b) Botox c) Antispasticity medication d) Immunosuppressants

Answer: a) Riluzole

What is the primary characteristic of upper motor neuron involvement in ALS? a) Flaccid paresis b) Fasciculations c) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes d) Muscle cramping

Answer: c) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes

Which test is commonly used to assess muscle enzyme levels in individuals suspected of having neuromuscular disorders? a) Electrodiagnostic testing b) Muscle biopsy c) Nerve conduction studies d) Muscle enzyme test

Answer: d) Muscle enzyme test

Which of the following clinical presentations is characteristic of Guillain-Barre Syndrome? a) Flaccid paresis, muscle atrophy, and fasciculations b) Spastic paresis, hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, and weight loss c) Difficulty walking, hand weakness, slurred speech, and dysphagia d) Painless, progressive weakness, muscle cramps, and cognitive changes

Answer: d) Painless, progressive weakness, muscle cramps, and cognitive changes

What is the primary trigger for myasthenia gravis? a) Genetic mutations b) Traumatic injury c) Autoimmune response blocking ACh receptors d) Chemical imbalance

Answer: c) Autoimmune response blocking ACh receptors

What is the approximate prevalence of myasthenia gravis in the population? a) 5-10 per 100,000 b) 10-14 per 100,000 c) 14-20 per 100,000 d) 20-25 per 100,000

Answer: c) 14-20 per 100,000

Which symptom is characteristic of ocular myasthenia gravis? a) Bulbar weakness b) Proximal weakness c) Bilateral ptosis d) Respiratory weakness

Answer: c) Bilateral ptosis

When does weakness in myasthenia gravis typically worsen? a) In the morning b) After meals c) In cold environments d) With exercise, heat, and in the evening

Answer: d) With exercise, heat, and in the evening

Which class of drugs is commonly used for medical management of myasthenia gravis to inhibit the breakdown of acetylcholine? a) Antihistamines b) Anticholinesterase drugs c) Antidepressants d) Antibiotics

Answer: b) Anticholinesterase drugs

What is a common treatment option for myasthenia gravis that involves the removal of the thymus gland? a) Chemotherapy b) Radiation therapy c) Thymectomy d) Immunotherapy

Answer: c) Thymectomy

What characterizes a myasthenia crisis? a) Temporary relief of symptoms b) Severe muscle weakness leading to respiratory arrest c) Sudden onset of symptoms d) Muscle spasms and tremors

Answer: b) Severe muscle weakness leading to respiratory arrest

Which medical procedure may be necessary to assist with feeding in individuals with spinal muscular atrophy? a) Tracheostomy b) Respiratory assessment c) GI tube placement d) Scoliosis treatment

Answer: c) GI tube placement

What is the primary medical intervention for individuals with spinal muscular atrophy? a) Surgical correction of motor neuron loss b) Administration of gene therapy c) No specific treatment available d) Stem cell transplantation

Answer: c) No specific treatment available

Which respiratory symptom is commonly observed in individuals with spinal muscular atrophy? a) Hyperventilation b) Impaired cough c) Increased lung capacity d) Normal respiratory function

Answer: b) Impaired cough

Which type of spinal muscular atrophy is characterized by the inability to sit up? a) Type 1 b) Type 2 c) Type 3 d) Type 4

Answer: a) Type 1

Which type of cells undergo progressive degeneration and loss in spinal muscular atrophy? a) Motor neurons b) Sensory neurons c) Interneurons d) Glial cells

Answer: a) Motor neurons

What is the approximate prevalence of spinal muscular atrophy in the population? a) 1 per 5,000 b) 1 per 10,000 c) 1 per 15,000 d) 1 per 20,000

Answer: b) 1 per 10,000

What is the primary cause of spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)? a) Autosomal dominant mutation b) Deletion of the survival motor neuron gene c) X-linked recessive disorder d) Chromosomal abnormality

Answer: b) Deletion of the survival motor neuron gene

What is a common respiratory complication associated with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy? a) Hyperventilation b) Asthma c) Respiratory function declines d) Pneumonia

Answer: c) Respiratory function declines

Which therapeutic intervention aims to manage the curvature of the spine in individuals with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy? a) Gene therapy b) Physical therapy c) Respiratory therapy d) Scoliosis management

Answer: d) Scoliosis management

What is the primary goal of steroid therapy in Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy? a) To cure the condition b) To reduce serum creatine kinase levels c) To improve muscle strength and function d) To prevent cardiac dysrhythmias

Answer: c) To improve muscle strength and function

Which symptom of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy usually appears first? a) Respiratory difficulties b) Scoliosis c) Muscle weakness in legs d) Cognitive impairments

Answer: c) Muscle weakness in legs

At what age does Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy typically begin to manifest symptoms? a) Birth b) 2-6 years c) Adolescence d) Adulthood

Answer: b) 2-6 years

What is the approximate prevalence of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy in the population? a) 25 per 100,000 b) 50 per 100,000 c) 63 per 100,000 d) 100 per 100,000

Answer: c) 63 per 100,000

What is the primary cause of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)? a) Autosomal recessive mutation b) Mutation in the DMD gene producing dystrophin c) Deletion of the SMN gene d) Trinucleotide repeat expansion

Answer: b) Mutation in the DMD gene producing dystrophin

Huntington's disease is primarily characterized by: a) Paralysis of voluntary movement b) Excessive movement and tremors c) Progressive degeneration of nerve cells in the brain d) Spasticity and rigidity

Answer: c) Progressive degeneration of nerve cells in the brain

Which term refers to involuntary, rapid, jerky movements that are characteristic of certain movement disorders like Huntington's disease? a) Chorea b) Athetosis c) Ballism d) Tremor

Answer: a) Chorea

Degeneration of which brain structure is associated with movement disorders characterized by either paucity or excess movement? a) Cerebellum b) Hippocampus c) Basal ganglia d) Thalamus

Answer: c) Basal ganglia

Which motor system is associated with abnormal involuntary movements, rigidity, and immobility without paralysis? a) Pyramidal b) Extrapyramidal c) Spasticity d) Rigidity

Answer: b) Extrapyramidal

Which motor system is characterized by paralysis of voluntary movement and absence of involuntary movement? a) Pyramidal b) Extrapyramidal c) Spasticity d) Rigidity

Answer: a) Pyramidal

What is the inheritance pattern of the disorder described? Huntington’s Disease a) Autosomal recessive b) X-linked recessive c) Autosomal dominant d) Multifactorial

Answer: c) Autosomal dominant

What is the approximate prevalence of the disorder in the population? Huntington’s Disease a) 2-4 per 100,000 b) 4-8 per 100,000 c) 10-15 per 100,000 d) 20-25 per 100,000

Answer: b) 4-8 per 100,000

Which gene mutation is associated with the production of toxic protein fragments leading to severe degeneration of basal ganglia and frontal cortex? Huntington’s Disease a) MTHFR b) MTT c) APP d) BRCA1

Answer: b) MTT

What is the primary neurotransmitter affected by the depletion of GABA in the basal ganglia and nigra? a) Dopamine b) Serotonin c) Glutamate d) Acetylcholine

Answer: a) Dopamine

Which characteristic movement disorder is commonly observed in individuals with the Hunnigtons disorder? a) Akinesia b) Dystonia c) Chorea d) Tremor

Answer: c) Chorea

Which medication is commonly used to manage Huntington’s Disease? a) Benzodiazepines b) Antipsychotics c) Asprain d) Anticonvulsants

Answer: b) Antipsychotics

Besides medication, what other therapeutic intervention may be beneficial for individuals with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy? a) Surgery b) Psychotherapy c) Physical therapy d) Radiation therapy

Answer: c) Physical therapy

Besides medication, what other treatment modality is commonly used for advanced cases of Parkinson's disease to alleviate symptoms? a) Chemotherapy b) Physical therapy c) Radiation therapy d) Deep brain stimulation

Answer: d) Deep brain stimulation

What is an outcome of medication in managing Parkinson's disease? a) To cure the disease b) To speed up disease progression c) They are symptomatic d) To prevent dementia

Answer: c) They are symptomatic

Which symptom is considered a cardinal feature of Parkinson's disease? a) Choreiform movements b) Athetoid movements c) Resting tremor d) Spasticity

Answer: c) Resting tremor

What is the primary neurotransmitter system affected by degeneration in Parkinson's disease? a) Serotonergic b) Glutamatergic c) GABAergic d) Dopaminergic

Answer: d) Dopaminergic

At what age does Parkinson's disease typically begin to manifest symptoms? a) Before age 20 b) Between ages 20-30 c) After age 40 d) After age 60

Answer: c) After age 40

What is the primary cause of Parkinson's disease in most cases? a) Autosomal recessive mutations b) Environmental toxins c) Idiopathic factors d) Viral infections

Answer: c) Idiopathic factors

Which of the following are therapeutic Intervention used for spasticity? A) Therapeutic Intervention B) Goal-directed therapies C) Constraint induced therapy D) Bilateral intensive programs E) Sensory processing F) Functional /compensatory approach G) All of the above

G) All of the above

What is important when facilitating healing in the first 8-12 weeks for your patient with a lumbar spinal surgery? A) smoking cessation B) Not using NSAIDS C) Precautions to avoid bending, lifting, and twisting for 8-12 weeks D) All of the above

D) All of the above

What is the gold standard treatment for ischemic stroke? A) TPA aka mega clot buster B) Mechanical thrombectomy C) Rehab D) Both A & B

D) Both A & B * Gold standard treatment for ischemic stroke is the mega clot buster (TPA = tissue Plasminogen Activator), when combined with mechanical thrombectomy*

Study Guide Flashcards

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