Study guide and exam questions Flashcards
(516 cards)
1
Q
EMTs can:
A
evaluate the ill and injured, but they can never diagnose patients
2
Q
When should patient be in recovery position?
A
Unconscious, uninjured, & breathing adequately. (No trauma patients in recovery position).
3
Q
What percentage of exhaled oxygen is delivered?
A
16%
4
Q
Most out of hospital cardiac arrests occur as a result of ?
A
Cardiac Dysrhythmia
5
Q
CPR should be initiated when?
A
A valid living will is unavailable
6
Q
Most appropriate treatment for a patient with partial airway obstruction & adequate air exchange?
A
Administer oxygen & transport immediately
7
Q
Gastric distention will most likely occur if:
A
you ventilate a patient too fast
8
Q
What best describes the NREMT?
A
The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing, and is NOT a government agency
9
Q
External chest compressions will only provide how much of blood?
A
30% of blood will be pumped by the heart
10
Q
To minimize risk of litigation, the EMT-B should always:
A
provide competent care that meets current standards
11
Q
In relation to the wrist, the elbow is
A
proximal
12
Q
Best protection against liability when a patient refuses EMS care and transport?
A
Thoroughly document entire event
13
Q
Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD) is a program used to:
A
reduce anxiety from stress related incidents
14
Q
Your best protection against legal liability when a competent patient refuses EMS care and transport is to:
A
advise medical control of the situation
15
Q
Fracture to both femurs is
A
bilateral
16
Q
Which would be an indication of positive orthostatic vital signs?
A
BP and pulse stay the same, but patient gets dizzy
17
Q
Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence?
A
Deviation from standard of care that may result in further injury
18
Q
A 5-year-old with severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. His fracture is:
A
The distal forearm
19
Q
Maintaining chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include?
A
NOT cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons
20
Q
88 year old female with altered mental status. Staff nurse advises you that the patient has terminal cancer & that her physician stated that she would probably die within a few hours; valid DNR is presented to you. What do you do?
A
Make her comfortable & provide emotional support
21
Q
Who can place a patient on a 5150?
A
Law Enforcement, Designated ER doctor, PET team
22
Q
A patient partially regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. Although somewhat confused, the patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances you should:
A
assess whether or not the patient’s mental condition is impaired
23
Q
What do you do when a patient is trapped in a vehicle?
A
Ensure vehicle is stable.
24
Q
Abduction
A
away from midline
25
Baseline vital signs are referred to because they:
are the initial vital signs that will allow you to trend the patient's condition by comparing them to future vital signs
26
The manner in which an EMT-B must act when caring for a patient is called:
standard of care
27
EMT should take a successful cardioversion with AED
Perform frequent pulse checks; reassess all vitals every 5 minutes; Keep AED hooked up to a patient
28
After performing an initial assessment & treating any immediate life threats, you should next:
decide if immediate transport is indicated
29
When evaluating a patient with multiple complaints, the EMT-B's responsibility is to determine
which complaint poses the greatest threat to patient's life
30
Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of chest wall?
only one section of the chest rises on inspiration while other area falls
31
Pain felt at a location other than its origin
reffered pain
32
Communicable diseases can be best decribed as?
Not all people who are infected with these diseases show signs or symptoms of illness
33
Tx you receive following exposure to an infection disease depends on:
The type of disease, not how long you were exposed or how you were exposed
34
Digestive juices from the stomach
hydrochloric acid
35
What is the proper treatment for death in vehicle?
Rapid trauma asessment
36
When assessing the moto function in a conscious patient's lower extermities, you should expect the paitnet to:
Wiggle toes
37
Which of the following activities would NOT be performed during the scene size up
rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status
38
Bodily fluids such as vomitus, tears & saliva may transmit an infectious disease if they
contains visible amounts of blood
39
Patient is unconscious, ineffective breathing, blood secretions in mouth. What to do?
suction her oropharynx
40
The chief complaint is most accurately described as:
most serious thing that patient is concerned about
41
Traumatic neck pain
ensure patient can see you approaching
42
While using sirens most state laws permit
carefully exceed the posted speed limit
43
What is a disease the causes GI bleeding?
Esophageal varices
44
Symptoms of GI bleed may include
coffee ground emesis
45
Abnormal breath sounds least suggestive of fluid in lungs?
stridor
46
Which following patient does NOT have an altered mental status?
a patient with an acute reaction & dizziness
47
Which of the following statments regarding the mechanism of injury is correct?
The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of patient's injuries
48
Appendicitis
associaed with rebound tenderness
49
Bowel obstruction
stoppage of forward flow of intestinal contents
50
Chloecystitis
pain in right upper quadrant; referred pain to right shoulder
51
Blood supply for heart muscle itself comes from?
coronary arteries
52
PID is an inflammation of the:
fallopian tubes, NOT the bladder, rectum, or testes. This is a disease found in women and is based on STDs
53
Left ventricle pumps blood in
aorta
54
Pulmonary artery orginates at?
right ventricle
55
An incarcerated hernia is one that ?
connot be pushed back within respective body cavity
56
A 59 year old male presents with a sudden onset of severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless & diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should
administer oxygen & prepare for immediate transport
57
Ectopic pregnancy signs usually present within
the 1st 6-8 weeks of pregnancy
58
Substance which bonds with oxygen for transportation to the tissue is?
hemoglobin
59
Largest artery
aorta
60
Gas exchange takes place at level of arterioles?
FALSE --- capillaries are where gas diffusions occur
61
Stridor is caused by
narrowing of UPPER airway
62
Functions of the upper airway
filters air; warms and humidifies air; provides sense of smell
63
You receive a call for a 70 year old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should:
begin assisting her ventiliations with a BVM
64
Pain from an MI my radiae to?
one or both arms; jaw;epigastric region
65
Priority EMT intervention for patient suspected of MI?
high flow oxygen
66
In what area of the lungs do respirations occur?
Alveoli
67
Your 71 year old patient complains of chest pain. He has a pulse rate of 140 & his respirations are 5 per min. You should immediately:
support patients ventilations with BVM
68
A 60 year old male presents with acute respiratory distress. He is conscious and alert, has pink and dry skin, and respirations of 24 breaths/min with adequate depth. Which of the following treeatment modalities is MOST appropriate for this patient?
O2 via a nonrebreather mask, and focused history and physical exam
69
symptoms of congestive heart failure?
pedal edema
70
A 56 year old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 911. Most likely the cause of this patient's present condition is:
cardiogenic shock
71
Patient who has diarrhea and vomitting 3 days, weak pulse, applied 100% O2, should receive what appropriate tx from an EMT?
Prepare for immediate transport since he has indications of shock
72
Shock is result of
hypoperfusion
73
Hyperglycemia will have pale, cool & moist skin signs?
FALSE
74
Heat exhaustion is all except
hot, dry skin
75
Patient for pupillary response to light. What is normal response?
constriction
76
Purpose of insulin is to?
TRANSPORT glucose across cell membranes
77
Chemical burns to eye is to be irrigated for no more than
15 min
78
Status epilepticus is best defined as a brief seizure
FALSE because status epilepticus lasts for more than 5 min and therefore is NOT brief (short)
79
Nose bleed scenario question
grasp the lower nostril and maintain pressure
80
Bones are totally solid
FALSE, because bones are hollow structures that consist of blood vessels and bone marrows inside
81
Eye laceration scenario
BOTH eyes covered
82
EMT's priority concern for the victim of an electrical burn is:
safety (DUHH!!)
83
The EMT's priority assessment with neurological problems is:
Determining their LOC
84
Most significant sign of an increase in intracranial pressure is?
increasing confusion & disorientation
85
Fell on ice, severe right hip pain, right leg appears shortened & externally rotated. You suspect?
Fractured hip and injured spine
86
Rewarming of a patient with mild hypothermia should?
take place en route to hospital
87
Open fracture is ALWAYS worse than a closed fracture?
FALSE -- in some closed fractures, you can't tell whether there is internal bleeding within the fracture compared to open fractures
88
Severe pain to both eyes after welding with clear safety goggles suffering from?
UV light
89
Burns in anterior aspect of both arms and anterior chest is equal to what percentage?
18% = Anterior aspect of both arms (4.5 + 4.5) + anterior chest (9)
90
childrens bones are most flexible
TRUE
91
EMT-B tx for insulin should include:
Administering oral glucose and high flow O2
92
Diabetes is always caused by ketoacidosis
FALSE -- ketoacidosis involves the metabolism of fats which produce ketones
93
Frost bitten foot can be ID
mottling and blistes
94
Nitroglycerin (NTG) should NOT be administered when:
Patient has a systolic pressure of less than 100mmHg
95
Your 42 year old male patient was involved in a house fire & his lower legs have been burned. They are charred black, but your patient states he has litle pain. This purn will be classified as:
both full thickness & third degree
96
Priority intervention for patient with possible sprain?
Immobilize!!!
97
center of the iris that allows light to move
pupil
98
Serious head injury include all of the following:
combative behavior; CSF leakage from ears; decreased sensory function; (NOT constricte pupils)
99
Stages of seizures in order of occurance:
aura, tonic, clonic and postictal
100
Patient has obvious swelling to facial area with several dislodged teeth. Minimal bleeding in mouth, conscious with 138/80mmHg, pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min. with adequate TV. You should:
Apply supplemental O2, immobilize spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport patient
101
Victim of hypothermia will have symptoms of
Loss of judgement and apathy (AKA lethargic patients who make bad decisions)
102
Abdominal evasceration to left lower quadrant after a knife cut. After increasing airway & assessing for other life threats, care for his wound by?
Cover with moist sterile dressing secured in a place with bandages
103
When administering epinephrine via auto injector, how long should it be held in place?
10 Seconds
104
Physiological action response does epi produce when given for allergic reaction?
vasoconstriction & bronchodilation
105
Significant hazards associated with splinting
delayed transport of injury
106
Sugar reading 300 mg/dL, semi-conscious, breathing shallowly, receiving assisted ventilation from partner. Define definitive treatment. (\*Definitive tx: most needed tx that the EMT cannot provide for patient)
Insulin, not oxygen, because patient needs insulin the most since they have elevating blood sugar levels
107
top priority of treatment with head injury
spinal precaution
108
Behavioral emergency is most accurae:
detailed physical exam may be detrimental to gaining patient's trust & should NOT be performed unless there is an accompanying physical complaint.
109
An epidural hematoma is MOST?
bleeding between skull and dura mater
110
Nervous system controls body's which voluntary activities
somatic
111
Heat cramps are MOST likely the result of
a loss of water & electrolytes
112
Indicates severe head injury
decerbate posturing
113
All diabetic patients must take insulin?
FALSE -- some diabetics adjust their diet, take oral pills, and some others inject insulin
114
You are assisting an asthma patient with an inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses inhaler, you should:
Instruct him to hold his breath as long as he possibly could.
115
agitation and belligerance may indicate severe injury
TRUE
116
Immediate EMT intervention for frostbite will include?
remove patient from environment & SLOWLY re-warm affected area
117
The meninges and CSF that circulates between each meningeal layer fxns by:
Acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord
118
Quadrapalegia can result from spinal cord
true
119
Most common history, sign or symptom in a patient with a concussion is?
brief loss of consciousness
120
After performing an initial assessment & treating any immediate life threats, you should next:
decide if immediate transport is indicated
121
When evaluating a patient with multiple complaints, the EMT-B's responsibility is to determine
which complaint poses the greatest threat to patient's life
122
Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of chest wall?
only one section of the chest rises on inspiration while other area falls
123
Pain felt at a location other than its origin
reffered pain
124
Communicable diseases can be best decribed as?
Not all people who are infected with these diseases show signs or symptoms of illness
125
Tx you receive following exposure to an infection disease depends on:
The type of disease, not how long you were exposed or how you were exposed
126
Digestive juices from the stomach
hydrochloric acid
127
What is the proper treatment for death in vehicle?
Rapid trauma asessment
128
When assessing the moto function in a conscious patient's lower extermities, you should expect the paitnet to:
Wiggle toes
129
Which of the following activities would NOT be performed during the scene size up
rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status
130
Bodily fluids such as vomitus, tears & saliva may transmit an infectious disease if they
contains visible amounts of blood
131
Patient is unconscious, ineffective breathing, blood secretions in mouth. What to do?
suction her oropharynx
132
The chief complaint is most accurately described as:
most serious thing that patient is concerned about
133
Traumatic neck pain
ensure patient can see you approaching
134
While using sirens most state laws permit
carefully exceed the posted speed limit
135
What is a disease the causes GI bleeding?
Esophageal varices
136
Symptoms of GI bleed may include
coffee ground emesis
137
Abnormal breath sounds least suggestive of fluid in lungs?
stridor
138
Which following patient does NOT have an altered mental status?
a patient with an acute reaction & dizziness
139
Which of the following statments regarding the mechanism of injury is correct?
The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of patient's injuries
140
Appendicitis
associaed with rebound tenderness
141
Bowel obstruction
stoppage of forward flow of intestinal contents
142
Chloecystitis
pain in right upper quadrant; referred pain to right shoulder
143
Blood supply for heart muscle itself comes from?
coronary arteries
144
PID is an inflammation of the:
fallopian tubes, NOT the bladder, rectum, or testes. This is a disease found in women and is based on STDs
145
Left ventricle pumps blood in
aorta
146
Pulmonary artery orginates at?
right ventricle
147
An incarcerated hernia is one that ?
connot be pushed back within respective body cavity
148
A 59 year old male presents with a sudden onset of severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless & diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should
administer oxygen & prepare for immediate transport
149
Ectopic pregnancy signs usually present within
the 1st 6-8 weeks of pregnancy
150
Substance which bonds with oxygen for transportation to the tissue is?
hemoglobin
151
Largest artery
aorta
152
Gas exchange takes place at level of arterioles?
FALSE --- capillaries are where gas diffusions occur
153
Stridor is caused by
narrowing of UPPER airway
154
Functions of the upper airway
filters air; warms and humidifies air; provides sense of smell
155
You receive a call for a 70 year old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should:
begin assisting her ventiliations with a BVM
156
Pain from an MI my radiae to?
one or both arms; jaw;epigastric region
157
Priority EMT intervention for patient suspected of MI?
high flow oxygen
158
In what area of the lungs do respirations occur?
Alveoli
159
Your 71 year old patient complains of chest pain. He has a pulse rate of 140 & his respirations are 5 per min. You should immediately:
support patients ventilations with BVM
160
A 60 year old male presents with acute respiratory distress. He is conscious and alert, has pink and dry skin, and respirations of 24 breaths/min with adequate depth. Which of the following treeatment modalities is MOST appropriate for this patient?
O2 via a nonrebreather mask, and focused history and physical exam
161
symptoms of congestive heart failure?
pedal edema
162
A 56 year old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 911. Most likely the cause of this patient's present condition is:
cardiogenic shock
163
Patient who has diarrhea and vomitting 3 days, weak pulse, applied 100% O2, should receive what appropriate tx from an EMT?
Prepare for immediate transport since he has indications of shock
164
Shock is result of
hypoperfusion
165
3rd stage of labor
ends w/ delivery of the placenta
166
Best position for a pt in labor with limb presentation
left lateral trendelenburg
167
S/S of pregnant-induced hypotension (preclampsia) include all except:
blood in the urine
168
30 yr. old pregnant female, gravida - 3 para - 2. This means she has:
given birth to 2 live babies
169
Visualization of the vertex at the vaginal orifice is known as
crowning
170
Meconium
devlops in the intestine of the baby during gestation
171
Placenta will be delivered:
15-30 min in most instances
172
Average length of labor for primipara
18-24 hrs
173
Placenta Abruptio
placenta detaching itself from the uterine wall before the baby is delivered
174
EMT intervention for a pt who's bleeding from an obstetrical condition include:
maintain open airway and high flow oxygen
175
Ovum fertilized in
Fallopian tube
176
Pregnant patient may not show signs of blood loss bc they
have double blood volume
177
Ectopic pregnancy-
ovum is attached outside of uterus
178
Fundus=
superior 1/3 of uterus
179
Supine hypotensive syndrome =
the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava
180
Pulseless umbilical cord from signal orifice-
insert hand into vagina to make space for cord
181
Priority question for pregnant patient-
what baby is this for you
182
Priority sign of imminent delivery is
"visualization of the presenting part"
183
Emt treatment for ectopic pregnancy=
position of comfort, high flow o2
184
Respond to a call for 14 year old pregnant patient,postical & BP of 240/120
eclampsia
185
cut cord before drying the baby
FALSE
186
membranes always rupture immediatley befor delivery
FALSE
187
in a prehospital delivery EMT should always transport code 3
FALSE
188
Rapid death do to a snake bit is because of
anaphylaxis
189
What is SIDS
Infant death unexplained
190
Most common cause of dehydryan in child is due to
vomitting and diarrhea
191
Triage is necessary when
when you have 2 or more patients
192
Most supcious for child abuse
bruises in various stages of healing
193
In infants and toddlers common cause of seizures is
high fever
194
care for SIDS
CPR, Trans, Emotional support for Family
195
EMT Primary action for pediatric w/ resp problems
establish and maintain an open airway, provide O2, transport
196
Which is true for SIDS
devastating for family
197
Submerssion injuries in the adolescent age groups are most commonly associated with
alcohol
198
assesment of 8 year old
talk to child and caregiver
199
triage
to sort
200
EMT priority w/ rattlesnake bite (LA)
immobilize
201
Triage
sort according to priority of illness
202
Abdominal pain in the pediatric patients is best cared for by :
transport patient in position of comfort & with oxygen as tolerated
203
33yr Male, gathering wood w/ sharp pain to hand. Abdom pain, weak, nausea
black widow
204
The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the:
nervous system
205
Pale Skin in a child indicates that the ..
blood vessels near the neck are constricted
206
which of the following finding is least suggestive of child abuse
consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver
207
Scene: bicycle crash involving a car-- 10 yr old patient riding bike, concious and has a great deal of bleeding from leg wound
assure and open airway and immobilize the spine
208
Which of the following statements regarding hazardous material is most correct?
some substances are not hazardous in themselves but become toxic when mixed w/ another chemical
209
Multi-people in a small town began expierencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination & muscle twitiching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community
atropine & pralidoxine chloride
210
A MCI is the most accurately defined as ..
an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a systmes avaliable resources
211
A patient who has expierenced a back injury with or without spinal cord damage would be arranged with:
yellow
212
Exposure to _____ would most likely result in immediate respiratory distress
chlorine
213
A person who routinely uses a substance and requires increasing to achieve the same effect is expierencing
tolerance
214
Possible drug abuse patient who is seeing and hearing things you cannot might indicate
use of PCP
215
The bombing of Alfred P. Murrah Federal Building in 1995 is an example of :
domestic terrorism
216
Amphetamines & cocaine are in the drug category:
stimulants
217
Irritated nose/mouth, numbness, & altered state of consciousness may indicate abuse of
hydrocarbons
218
The EMT priority in caring for a patient with surface contact poisoning is to
avoid contaminating yourself
219
Botulinum is a
potent bacterial neurotoxin
220
A WMD (weapon of mass destruction) is MOST accurately defined as:
any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage
221
Which of the following is NOT a factor in determing how to protect yourself aggainst the effects of radiation?
radiation type (remember TDS: time, distance, and shielding
222
Skin lesions associated with smallpox:
are identical in their development
223
Codeine, heroin, & morphine are examples of:
narcotics
224
The ovum is usually fertilized in the
fallopian tube
225
A substance abuse patient demonstrating pinpoint pupils & depressed respirations has most likely taken
narcotics
226
Delirium tremens (DT's) is a syndrome associated with withdrawl from
alcohol
227
Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent
soman (GD)
228
An overdose on acetamophine (tylenol) will most likely cause
liver failure
229
To date, the preferred weapon of mass destruction for terrorists
explosive weapons
230
multiple patients. First young female unconscious&apneic open head injury weak pulse&thready
give her low priority and continue triaging
231
Which of the following drug is not a sedative
cocaine
232
Arrive at scene, Green liquid leaking from tank
remain at a safe distance and notify the hazard materials
233
Which of the following statements regarding inhaled poison is most correct
lung damage may progress after the patient is removed from the enviorment
234
EMT intervention for a patient who has ingested corrosives include
discouraging patient from vomiting
235
All of the following biological agents or disease can be transmited from a person to person except
Ricin
236
The process of moving or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazerdous material is called
decontamination
237
Which one of the following is NOT a rout by which poison may enter the body
interfusion
238
A 52 year old male presents himself with a fever of 102.5'F with multiple blisters with identical shape and size. This patients clinical presentation most consist with
Small pox
239
An excited sweaty patient with elevated pulse and blood pressure may indicate use of
Stimulants
240
When vicitms of a mass casualty are moved to the treatment area
A thorough assesment is preformed and further treatment is rendered
241
The sighn and symptoms of a indigested poison can include
All of the above: signs and symptoms of shock, ALOC, burns or strains
242
A poison that enters the body by \_\_\_is the most difficult to treat
Injection
243
Patient has GRAVIDA - 3 and PARA - 2. Which is accurate about the patient?
The patient has had 2 live births. GRAVIDA means # of times pregnant and PARA means # of live births
244
Which is priority for describing imminent child delivery?
Visualization of the infant's head / Crowning
245
Best position for a patient during labor ?
Left Lateral trendelenberg
246
Meconium is a substance which:
Develops in the intesting of the baby during gestion
247
Umblical cord is clamped and cut before drying and warming the baby?
FALSE
248
The primary mechanism that a childs body uses to compensate for decreased perfusion:
increased cardiac contraction
249
When treating a patient that has been contaminated with a hazardous substance, the emt should:
arrange for decontamination before treating the patient
250
3rd stage of labor
ends w/ delivery of the placenta
251
Best position for a pt in labor with limb presentation
left lateral trendelenburg
252
S/S of pregnant-induced hypotension (preclampsia) include all except:
blood in the urine
253
30 yr. old pregnant female, gravida - 3 para - 2. This means she has:
given birth to 2 live babies
254
Visualization of the vertex at the vaginal orifice is known as
crowning
255
Meconium
devlops in the intestine of the baby during gestation
256
Placenta will be delivered:
15-30 min in most instances
257
Average length of labor for primipara
18-24 hrs
258
Placenta Abruptio
placenta detaching itself from the uterine wall before the baby is delivered
259
EMT intervention for a pt who's bleeding from an obstetrical condition include:
maintain open airway and high flow oxygen
260
Delivery emt priority action
drying and warming of newborn
261
Ovum fertilized in
Fallopian tube
262
Pregnant patient may not show signs of blood loss bc they
have double blood volume
263
Ectopic pregnancy-
ovum is attached outside of uterus
264
Fundus=
superior 1/3 of uterus
265
Supine hypotensive syndrome =
the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava
266
Pulseless umbilical cord from signal orifice-
insert hand into vagina to make space for cord
267
Priority question for pregnant patient-
what baby is this for you
268
Priority sign of imminent delivery is
"visualization of the presenting part"
269
Emt treatment for ectopic pregnancy=
position of comfort, high flow o2
270
Respond to a call for 14 year old pregnant patient,postical & BP of 240/120
eclampsia
271
cut cord before drying the baby
FALSE
272
membranes always rupture immediatley befor delivery
FALSE
273
in a prehospital delivery EMT should always transport code 3
FALSE
274
Rapid death do to a snake bit is because of
anaphylaxis
275
What is SIDS
Infant death unexplained
276
Most common cause of dehydryan in child is due to
vomitting and diarrhea
277
Triage is necessary when
when you have 2 or more patients
278
Most supcious for child abuse
bruises in various stages of healing
279
In infants and toddlers common cause of seizures is
high fever
280
care for SIDS
CPR, Trans, Emotional support for Family
281
EMT Primary action for pediatric w/ resp problems
establish and maintain an open airway, provide O2, transport
282
Which is true for SIDS
devastating for family
283
Submerssion injuries in the adolescent age groups are most commonly associated with
alcohol
284
assesment of 8 year old
talk to child and caregiver
285
triage
to sort
286
EMT priority w/ rattlesnake bite (LA)
immobilize
287
Triage
sort according to priority of illness
288
Abdominal pain in the pediatric patients is best cared for by :
transport patient in position of comfort & with oxygen as tolerated
289
33yr Male, gathering wood w/ sharp pain to hand. Abdom pain, weak, nausea
black widow
290
The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the:
nervous system
291
Pale Skin in a child indicates that the ..
blood vessels near the neck are constricted
292
which of the following finding is least suggestive of child abuse
consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver
293
Scene: bicycle crash involving a car-- 10 yr old patient riding bike, concious and has a great deal of bleeding from leg wound
assure and open airway and immobilize the spine
294
Which of the following statements regarding hazardous material is most correct?
some substances are not hazardous in themselves but become toxic when mixed w/ another chemical
295
Multi-people in a small town began expierencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination & muscle twitiching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community
atropine & pralidoxine chloride
296
A MCI is the most accurately defined as ..
an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a systmes avaliable resources
297
A patient who has expierenced a back injury with or without spinal cord damage would be arranged with:
yellow
298
Exposure to _____ would most likely result in immediate respiratory distress
chlorine
299
A person who routinely uses a substance and requires increasing to achieve the same effect is expierencing
tolerance
300
Possible drug abuse patient who is seeing and hearing things you cannot might indicate
use of PCP
301
The bombing of Alfred P. Murrah Federal Building in 1995 is an example of :
domestic terrorism
302
Amphetamines & cocaine are in the drug category:
stimulants
303
Irritated nose/mouth, numbness, & altered state of consciousness may indicate abuse of
hydrocarbons
304
The EMT priority in caring for a patient with surface contact poisoning is to
avoid contaminating yourself
305
Botulinum is a
potent bacterial neurotoxin
306
A WMD (weapon of mass destruction) is MOST accurately defined as:
any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage
307
Which of the following is NOT a factor in determing how to protect yourself aggainst the effects of radiation?
radiation type (remember TDS: time, distance, and shielding
308
Skin lesions associated with smallpox:
are identical in their development
309
Codeine, heroin, & morphine are examples of:
narcotics
310
The ovum is usually fertilized in the
fallopian tube
311
A substance abuse patient demonstrating pinpoint pupils & depressed respirations has most likely taken
narcotics
312
Delirium tremens (DT's) is a syndrome associated with withdrawl from
alcohol
313
Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent
soman (GD)
314
An overdose on acetamophine (tylenol) will most likely cause
liver failure
315
To date, the preferred weapon of mass destruction for terrorists
explosive weapons
316
multiple patients. First young female unconscious&apneic open head injury weak pulse&thready
give her low priority and continue triaging
317
Which of the following drug is not a sedative
cocaine
318
Arrive at scene, Green liquid leaking from tank
remain at a safe distance and notify the hazard materials
319
Which of the following statements regarding inhaled poison is most correct
lung damage may progress after the patient is removed from the enviorment
320
EMT intervention for a patient who has ingested corrosives include
discouraging patient from vomiting
321
All of the following biological agents or disease can be transmited from a person to person except
Ricin
322
The process of moving or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazerdous material is called
decontamination
323
Which one of the following is NOT a rout by which poison may enter the body
interfusion
324
A 52 year old male presents himself with a fever of 102.5'F with multiple blisters with identical shape and size. This patients clinical presentation most consist with
Small pox
325
An excited sweaty patient with elevated pulse and blood pressure may indicate use of
Stimulants
326
When vicitms of a mass casualty are moved to the treatment area
A thorough assesment is preformed and further treatment is rendered
327
The sighn and symptoms of a indigested poison can include
All of the above: signs and symptoms of shock, ALOC, burns or strains
328
A poison that enters the body by \_\_\_is the most difficult to treat
Injection
329
Patient has GRAVIDA - 3 and PARA - 2. Which is accurate about the patient?
The patient has had 2 live births. GRAVIDA means # of times pregnant and PARA means # of live births
330
Which is priority for describing imminent child delivery?
Visualization of the infant's head / Crowning
331
Best position for a patient during labor ?
Left Lateral trendelenberg
332
Meconium is a substance which:
Develops in the intesting of the baby during gestion
333
Umblical cord is clamped and cut before drying and warming the baby?
FALSE
334
The primary mechanism that a childs body uses to compensate for decreased perfusion:
increased cardiac contraction
335
When treating a patient that has been contaminated with a hazardous substance, the emt should:
arrange for decontamination before treating the patient
336
3rd stage of labor
ends w/ delivery of the placenta
337
Best position for a pt in labor with limb presentation
left lateral trendelenburg
338
S/S of pregnant-induced hypotension (preclampsia) include all except:
blood in the urine
339
30 yr. old pregnant female, gravida - 3 para - 2. This means she has:
given birth to 2 live babies
340
Visualization of the vertex at the vaginal orifice is known as
crowning
341
Meconium
devlops in the intestine of the baby during gestation
342
Placenta will be delivered:
15-30 min in most instances
343
Average length of labor for primipara
18-24 hrs
344
Placenta Abruptio
placenta detaching itself from the uterine wall before the baby is delivered
345
EMT intervention for a pt who's bleeding from an obstetrical condition include:
maintain open airway and high flow oxygen
346
Delivery emt priority action
drying and warming of newborn
347
Ovum fertilized in
Fallopian tube
348
Pregnant patient may not show signs of blood loss bc they
have double blood volume
349
Ectopic pregnancy-
ovum is attached outside of uterus
350
Fundus=
superior 1/3 of uterus
351
Supine hypotensive syndrome =
the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava
352
Pulseless umbilical cord from signal orifice-
insert hand into vagina to make space for cord
353
Priority question for pregnant patient-
what baby is this for you
354
Priority sign of imminent delivery is
"visualization of the presenting part"
355
Emt treatment for ectopic pregnancy=
position of comfort, high flow o2
356
Respond to a call for 14 year old pregnant patient,postical & BP of 240/120
eclampsia
357
cut cord before drying the baby
FALSE
358
membranes always rupture immediatley befor delivery
FALSE
359
in a prehospital delivery EMT should always transport code 3
FALSE
360
Rapid death do to a snake bit is because of
anaphylaxis
361
What is SIDS
Infant death unexplained
362
Most common cause of dehydryan in child is due to
vomitting and diarrhea
363
Triage is necessary when
when you have 2 or more patients
364
Most supcious for child abuse
bruises in various stages of healing
365
In infants and toddlers common cause of seizures is
high fever
366
care for SIDS
CPR, Trans, Emotional support for Family
367
EMT Primary action for pediatric w/ resp problems
establish and maintain an open airway, provide O2, transport
368
Which is true for SIDS
devastating for family
369
Submerssion injuries in the adolescent age groups are most commonly associated with
alcohol
370
assesment of 8 year old
talk to child and caregiver
371
triage
to sort
372
EMT priority w/ rattlesnake bite (LA)
immobilize
373
Triage
sort according to priority of illness
374
Abdominal pain in the pediatric patients is best cared for by :
transport patient in position of comfort & with oxygen as tolerated
375
33yr Male, gathering wood w/ sharp pain to hand. Abdom pain, weak, nausea
black widow
376
The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the:
nervous system
377
Pale Skin in a child indicates that the ..
blood vessels near the neck are constricted
378
which of the following finding is least suggestive of child abuse
consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver
379
Scene: bicycle crash involving a car-- 10 yr old patient riding bike, concious and has a great deal of bleeding from leg wound
assure and open airway and immobilize the spine
380
Which of the following statements regarding hazardous material is most correct?
some substances are not hazardous in themselves but become toxic when mixed w/ another chemical
381
Multi-people in a small town began expierencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination & muscle twitiching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community
atropine & pralidoxine chloride
382
A MCI is the most accurately defined as ..
an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a systmes avaliable resources
383
A patient who has expierenced a back injury with or without spinal cord damage would be arranged with:
yellow
384
Exposure to _____ would most likely result in immediate respiratory distress
chlorine
385
A person who routinely uses a substance and requires increasing to achieve the same effect is expierencing
tolerance
386
Possible drug abuse patient who is seeing and hearing things you cannot might indicate
use of PCP
387
The bombing of Alfred P. Murrah Federal Building in 1995 is an example of :
domestic terrorism
388
Amphetamines & cocaine are in the drug category:
stimulants
389
Irritated nose/mouth, numbness, & altered state of consciousness may indicate abuse of
hydrocarbons
390
The EMT priority in caring for a patient with surface contact poisoning is to
avoid contaminating yourself
391
Botulinum is a
potent bacterial neurotoxin
392
A WMD (weapon of mass destruction) is MOST accurately defined as:
any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage
393
Which of the following is NOT a factor in determing how to protect yourself aggainst the effects of radiation?
radiation type (remember TDS: time, distance, and shielding
394
Skin lesions associated with smallpox:
are identical in their development
395
Codeine, heroin, & morphine are examples of:
narcotics
396
The ovum is usually fertilized in the
fallopian tube
397
A substance abuse patient demonstrating pinpoint pupils & depressed respirations has most likely taken
narcotics
398
Delirium tremens (DT's) is a syndrome associated with withdrawl from
alcohol
399
Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent
soman (GD)
400
An overdose on acetamophine (tylenol) will most likely cause
liver failure
401
To date, the preferred weapon of mass destruction for terrorists
explosive weapons
402
multiple patients. First young female unconscious&apneic open head injury weak pulse&thready
give her low priority and continue triaging
403
Which of the following drug is not a sedative
cocaine
404
Arrive at scene, Green liquid leaking from tank
remain at a safe distance and notify the hazard materials
405
Which of the following statements regarding inhaled poison is most correct
lung damage may progress after the patient is removed from the enviorment
406
EMT intervention for a patient who has ingested corrosives include
discouraging patient from vomiting
407
All of the following biological agents or disease can be transmited from a person to person except
Ricin
408
The process of moving or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazerdous material is called
decontamination
409
You respond to a local motel for a you confused female who was sexually assulted. The last thing she remebered was drinking at a bar when she woke up she was at a motel what happened
Roofies
410
Which one of the following is NOT a rout by which poison may enter the body
interfusion
411
A 52 year old male presents himself with a fever of 102.5'F with multiple blisters with identical shape and size. This patients clinical presentation most consist with
Small pox
412
An excited sweaty patient with elevated pulse and blood pressure may indicate use of
Stimulants
413
When vicitms of a mass casualty are moved to the treatment area
A thorough assesment is preformed and further treatment is rendered
414
The sighn and symptoms of a indigested poison can include
All of the above: signs and symptoms of shock, ALOC, burns or strains
415
A poison that enters the body by \_\_\_is the most difficult to treat
Injection
416
Patient has GRAVIDA - 3 and PARA - 2. Which is accurate about the patient?
The patient has had 2 live births. GRAVIDA means # of times pregnant and PARA means # of live births
417
Which is priority for describing imminent child delivery?
Visualization of the infant's head / Crowning
418
Best position for a patient during labor ?
Left Lateral trendelenberg
419
Meconium is a substance which:
Develops in the intesting of the baby during gestion
420
Umblical cord is clamped and cut before drying and warming the baby?
FALSE
421
The primary mechanism that a childs body uses to compensate for decreased perfusion:
increased cardiac contraction
422
When treating a patient that has been contaminated with a hazardous substance, the emt should:
arrange for decontamination before treating the patient
423
3rd stage of labor
ends w/ delivery of the placenta
424
Best position for a pt in labor with limb presentation
left lateral trendelenburg
425
S/S of pregnant-induced hypotension (preclampsia) include all except:
blood in the urine
426
30 yr. old pregnant female, gravida - 3 para - 2. This means she has:
given birth to 2 live babies
427
Visualization of the vertex at the vaginal orifice is known as
crowning
428
Meconium
devlops in the intestine of the baby during gestation
429
Placenta will be delivered:
15-30 min in most instances
430
Average length of labor for primipara
18-24 hrs
431
The condition that occurs when the placenta detaches itself from the uterine wall before baby is delivered
Placentia Abruptio
432
EMT intervention for a pt who's bleeding from an obstetrical condition include:
maintain open airway and high flow oxygen
433
Delivery- emt priority action
drying and warming of newborn
434
Ovum fertilized in
Fallopian tube
435
Pregnant patient may not show signs of blood loss bc they
have double blood volume
436
Ectopic pregnancy-
ovum is attached outside of uterus
437
Fundus=
superior 1/3 of uterus
438
Supine hypotensive syndrome =
the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava
439
Pulseless umbilical cord from signal orifice-
insert hand into vagina to make space for cord
440
Priority question for pregnant patient-
what baby is this for you
441
Priority sign of imminent delivery is
"visualization of the presenting part"
442
Emt treatment for ectopic pregnancy=
position of comfort, high flow o2
443
Respond to a call for 14 year old pregnant patient,postical & BP of 240/120
eclampsia
444
cut cord before drying the baby
FALSE
445
membranes always rupture immediatley befor delivery
FALSE
446
in a prehospital delivery EMT should always transport code 3
FALSE
447
Rapid death do to a snake bit is because of
anaphylaxis
448
What is SIDS
Infant death unexplained
449
Most common cause of dehydryan in child is due to
vomitting and diarrhea
450
Triage is necessary when
when you have 2 or more patients
451
Most supcious for child abuse
bruises in various stages of healing
452
In infants and toddlers common cause of seizures is
high fever
453
care for SIDS
CPR, Trans, Emotional support for Family
454
EMT Primary action for pediatric w/ resp problems
establish and maintain an open airway, provide O2, transport
455
Which is true for SIDS
devastating for family
456
Submerssion injuries in the adolescent age groups are most commonly associated with
alcohol
457
assesment of 8 year old
talk to child and caregiver
458
triage
to sort
459
EMT priority w/ rattlesnake bite (LA)
immobilize
460
Triage
sort according to priority of illness
461
Abdominal pain in the pediatric patients is best cared for by :
transport patient in position of comfort & with oxygen as tolerated
462
33yr Male, gathering wood w/ sharp pain to hand. Abdom pain, weak, nausea
black widow
463
Which is more common in children than in adults following head injury?
nausea and vomitting NOT spinal cord
464
The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the:
nervous system
465
When faced with a hazardous material the emt should
deny entry to authorized personel
466
The primary mechanism that a childs body uses to compensate for decreased profusion is?
increase heartrate
467
S/S of meningitis in an infant/child includes which of the folliwing:
headache and fever, stiff and painful neck, ALOC, EXCEPT sunken fontanels
468
Child may begin to show signs of stranger anxiety as early as:
12 months
469
EMT treatment for pediatric patient with high fever includes:
Passively cooling patient to near normal temperatures without chilling
470
Pale Skin in a child indicates that the ..
blood vessels near the skin are constricted
471
which of the following finding is least suggestive of child abuse
consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver
472
Scene: bicycle crash involving a car-- 10 yr old patient riding bike, concious and has a great deal of bleeding from leg wound
assure and open airway and immobilize the spine
473
Which of the following statements regarding hazardous material is most correct?
some substances are not hazardous in themselves but become toxic when mixed w/ another chemical
474
Which statement regarding ICS is MOST correct?
The ICS is designed for use in daily EMS operations
475
Multi-people in a small town began expierencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination & muscle twitiching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community
atropine & pralidoxine chloride
476
A MCI is the most accurately defined as ..
an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a systmes avaliable resources
477
What medical problem can present similar to a patient under alcoholic influence?
All of the above (epilepsy, diabetes, head injury)
478
A patient who has expierenced a back injury with or without spinal cord damage would be arranged with:
yellow
479
Exposure to _____ would most likely result in immediate respiratory distress
chlorine
480
A person who routinely uses a substance and requires increasing to achieve the same effect is expierencing
tolerance
481
Possible drug abuse patient who is seeing and hearing things you cannot might indicate
use of PCP
482
The bombing of Alfred P. Murrah Federal Building in 1995 is an example of :
domestic terrorism
483
Amphetamines & cocaine are in the drug category:
stimulants
484
Irritated nose/mouth, numbness, & altered state of consciousness may indicate abuse of
hydrocarbons
485
The EMT priority in caring for a patient with surface contact poisoning is to
avoid contaminating yourself
486
Botulinum is a
potent bacterial neurotoxin
487
A WMD (weapon of mass destruction) is MOST accurately defined as:
any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage
488
Which of the following is NOT a factor in determing how to protect yourself aggainst the effects of radiation?
radiation type (remember TDS: time, distance, and shielding
489
Skin lesions associated with smallpox:
are identical in their development
490
Codeine, heroin, & morphine are examples of:
narcotics
491
The ovum is usually fertilized in the
fallopian tube
492
A substance abuse patient demonstrating pinpoint pupils & depressed respirations has most likely taken
narcotics
493
Delirium tremens (DT's) is a syndrome associated with withdrawl from
alcohol
494
Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent
soman (GD)
495
An overdose on acetamophine (tylenol) will most likely cause
liver failure
496
To date, the preferred weapon of mass destruction for terrorists
explosive weapons
497
multiple patients. First young female unconscious&apneic open head injury weak pulse&thready
give her low priority and continue triaging
498
Which of the following drug is not a sedative
cocaine
499
Arrive at scene, Green liquid leaking from tank
remain at a safe distance and notify the hazard materials
500
Which of the following statements regarding inhaled poison is most correct
lung damage may progress after the patient is removed from the enviorment
501
EMT intervention for a patient who has ingested corrosives include
discouraging patient from vomiting
502
All of the following biological agents or disease can be transmited from a person to person except
Ricin
503
The process of moving or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazerdous material is called
decontamination
504
Which one of the following is NOT a rout by which poison may enter the body
interfusion
505
A 52 year old male presents himself with a fever of 102.5'F with multiple blisters with identical shape and size. This patients clinical presentation most consist with
Small pox
506
An excited sweaty patient with elevated pulse and blood pressure may indicate use of
Stimulants
507
When vicitms of a mass casualty are moved to the treatment area
A thorough assesment is preformed and further treatment is rendered
508
The signs and symptoms of a indigested poison can include
All of the above: signs and symptoms of shock, ALOC, burns or strains
509
A poison that enters the body by \_\_\_is the most difficult to treat
Injection
510
Patient has GRAVIDA - 3 and PARA - 2. Which is accurate about the patient?
The patient has had 2 live births. GRAVIDA means # of times pregnant and PARA means # of live births
511
Which is priority for describing imminent child delivery?
Visualization of the infant's head / Crowning
512
Best position for a patient during labor ?
Left Lateral trendelenberg
513
Meconium is a substance which:
Develops in the intesting of the baby during gestion
514
Umblical cord is clamped and cut before drying and warming the baby?
FALSE
515
The primary mechanism that a childs body uses to compensate for decreased perfusion:
increased cardiac contraction
516
When treating a patient that has been contaminated with a hazardous substance, the emt should:
arrange for decontamination before treating the patient
