STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS (1/3)

Question 1

What are the problems that growth causes for cells?

Answer 1

Lack of efficiency in moving nutrients and waste materials across the cell membrane; places increasing demands on its DNA

Question 2

Describe the process of cell division.

Answer 2

The cell divides into 2 daughter cells. It starts with the division of the cell nucleus (mitosis), and then the division of the cytoplasm (cytokinesis).

Question 3

What happens during interphase?

Answer 3

G[ap]1 phase (cell growth), S[ynthesis] phase (DNA replication), and G[ap]2 phase (preparing for cell division)

Question 4

Describe the processes of the cell cycle.

Answer 4

G1 (cell growth): Cells grow in size and synthesize new proteins and organelles
S (DNA replication): DNA is synthesized and chromosomes are replicated; has 2x as much DNA as before
G2 (prep for cell division): required organelles and molecules (for cell division) are made
M (cell division): mitosis and cytokinesis

Question 5

What are the parts of a (eukaryotic) chromosome?

Answer 5

chromatid/sister chromatids, centromere, telomere

Question 6

What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?

Answer 6

To help separate duplicated chromosomes

Question 7

What are the differences between cell division in plant cells and animal cells?

Answer 7

Plant cells do not undergo mitosis, they divide twice, don’t replicate DNA, and form a cell plate. Animal cells undergo mitosis, divide once, replicate DNA, and create a cleavage furrow.

Question 8

During normal mitotic cell division, what happens to the chromosome # of the cell?

Answer 8

The chromosome # doubles

Question 9

Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to do what?

Answer 9

They’ve lost the ability to control their growth rate

Question 10

What is the difference between a cancerous cell and a normal cell growth chart?

Answer 10

The cancerous cell growth chart shows an exponential increase, while a normal cell growth chart shows constant and controlled growth

Question 11

What are the different types of stem cells? Define them.

Answer 11

Totipotent: Able to develop into any cell found in the body
Multipotent: has limited potential to develop into many types of differentiated cells
Pluripotent: Capable of developing into most (not all) of the body’s cell types

Question 12

Describe the process of fertilization.

Answer 12

Process in sexual reproduction in which male (sperm) and female (egg) reproductive cells join/fuse to form a new cell

Question 13

Describe the process of crossing over.

Answer 13

Process in which homologous chromosomes exchange portions of their/swap positions of chromatids during meiosis

Question 14

Define diploid and haploid #s in terms of meiotic division.

Answer 14

Haploid: 1 set of genes
Diploid: 2 sets of homologous chromosomes

Question 15

What are the differences between a cell undergoing mitosis and one that’s undergoing meiosis?

Answer 15

Separation of chromosomes, # of cells produced, and # of chromosomes each cell contains

Question 16

How does crossing over lead to gene maps?

Answer 16

Crossing over between genes indicates the genes’ locations, helping form a map of the genes

Question 17

What are the nucleotides found in DNA?

Answer 17

Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine

Question 18

How does nondisjunction affect the formation of gametes?

Answer 18

Gametes with an abnormal # of chromosomes may result

Question 19

How does the distance between genes affect how they’re inherited?

Answer 19

The farther the 2 genes are, the more likely crossing over would occur between them. The closer the 2 genes are, the less likely crossing over would occur between them.

Question 20

Describe the base pairing rule and show how to determine the amount of any nucleotide using it.

Answer 20

The rule is that bonds in DNA can form only between adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine. Can determine the amount of any nucleotide since the base pairs are always equal

Question 21

Identify the parts of a DNA molecule. (USE DNA MOLECULE PICTURE)

Answer 21

(LEFT to RIGHT, TOP to BOTTOM)
Sugar-phosphate backbone, base pairs, hydrogen bonds, base pair, nucleotide

Question 22

Identify the parts of a DNA nucleotide. (USE DNA NUCLEOTIDE PICTURE)

Answer 22

(LEFT to RIGHT)
phosphate group, [deoxyribose] sugar, nitrogenous base (specifically adenine)

Question 23

Describe the process used to replicate a DNA molecule.

Answer 23

The 2 strands of each DNA molecule separate. 2 new complementary strands are then synthesized following the base pairing rule.

Question 23

One example of 2 sides of the DNA molecule showing the base pairing rule?

Answer 23

adenine to guanine; thymine to cytosine

Question 24

Compare and contrast DNA and RNA nucleotides.

Answer 24

DNA nucleotides have adenine pair with thymine, use deoxyribose, and are double-stranded. RNA nucleotides have adenine pair with uracil, use sugar ribose, and are single-stranded.

Question 25

Which type(s) of RNA is (are) involved in protein synthesis?

Answer 25

Messenger RNA (mRNA), Ribosomal RNA (rRNA), and Transfer RNA (tRNA)

Question 26

Describe the relationship between triplets, codons, and amino acids.

Answer 26

One triplet makes one codon and one codon specifies one amino acid

Question 26

What are all the types of mutations that can occur in DNA?

Answer 26

point mutation and chromosomal mutation

Question 27

What happens during the process of translation?

Answer 27

The sequence of bases of mRNA is converted into the sequence of amino acids of a protein

Question 28

Define exon and intron.

Answer 28

Exon: expressed sequence of DNA; codes for a protein
Intron: sequence of DNA that’s not involved in coding for a protein

Question 29

Describe the function of the Universal Codon Box.

Answer 29

Used to translate a genetic code into a sequence of amino acids

Question 29

How do the regulatory sites on DNA determine whether a gene is expressed?

Answer 29

Proteins that bind to regulatory sites on DNA determine whether a gene is expressed

Question 30

Using CODON BOX PICTURES #1 and #2, identify the amino acid sequence that TACGCGTAAACGATC would create.

Answer 30

Start-Arg-Iso-Cys-Stop

Question 30

How does a cell turn on and off its genes?

Answer 30

By using their gene regulatory proteins

Question 31

Define true-breeding, pure-bred, and hybrid.

Answer 31

true-breeding: being homozygous for genes
pure-bred: bred from parents of the same breed or variety
hybrid: offspring of crosses between parents with different traits

Question 32

How did Mendel conclude that traits are inherited?

Answer 32

By crossing his stocks of true-breeding plants and examining their different traits

Question 33

What does the principle of dominance state?

Answer 33

Some alleles are dominant and others are recessive

Question 34

What does the classic Mendelian cross produce? Why?

Answer 34

It produces one homozygous dominant, two heterozygous dominant, and one homozygous recessive because it shows the chances of getting either a dominant or recessive trait.

Question 35

How could a pea plant that has a recessive allele for green peas show the yellow pea phenotype?

Answer 35

It could be shown since the yellow pea allele would be considered dominant in this case, the phenotype of the yellow color would also show.

Question 36

Why did short plants reappear in Mendel’s F2 generation?

Answer 36

Because the alleles from each gene are segregated from each other so they each gamete only carries one allele for each gene

Question 37

What would happen if alleles didn’t segregate during gamete formation?

Answer 37

The alleles would not change and be the same in the next generations

Question 38

What do we use the principles of probability in genetics for?

Answer 38

We use it to explain the results of genetic crosses and what the likelihood of getting a specific trait could be

Question 39

Using a classic Mendelian cross, determine the probability that an F2 plant would be tall.

Answer 39

25% probability