Study Guides Flashcards

(84 cards)

1
Q

What is the maximum Takeoff & Go Around TGT?

Time Limit?

A

800° C

5 mins, 10 mins single engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the maximum Ground Start TGT?

Airstart?

A

700° C

780° C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the maximum Reverse TGT?

A

695° C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the length, height, width?

A

L = 88’ 4”
H = 24’ 5 1/8”
W = 77’ 10”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the minimum taxi width for a 180° turn?

A

54’ 2”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When is the use of autothrottles prohibited?

A

With wing anti-ice during Takeoff and Go-Around.
Also, must be disengaged at 50 ft AGL during approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Maximum tailwind for takeoff?

A

10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the maximum airport altitude?

A

15,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Minimum air pressure for engine start?

Ok to drop during start?

A

25 psi

Yes, as low as 20 psi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Maximum APU alternator load for starts?

A

35% (30% for high altitude/ambient temps.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do you do for a hot start?

A
  1. HP Fuel Cock - SHUT
  2. Affected Engine, continue to motor for 30 secs
  3. Start Master - OFF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where do you find Engine Drift-Down speeds?

A

QRH, EC (10/11).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Can the airplane be flown with a winglet removed?

A

Yes (see CDL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where can the CDL be found?

A

Appendix B of the AFM or AOM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Can the airplane be dispatched with any Boost Pumps inop? If so, how many and under what circumstances?

A

One, as long as the Crossflow and Intertank Valves are operative. (see MEL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many converter fans can be inoperative?

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Can you dispatch with a failed DU?

A

Yes, only in #5 position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What position are the landing gear in if the the red light in the Landing Gear Handle remains illuminated after gear retraction and all three green lights are out?

A

Gear position is unknown. NOT down and locked

Green lights = downlocks engaged
Red light = door open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What alternate means do you have of extending the landing gear?

How many times?

A

Nitrogen pressure.
(Forces uplocks open, Gear freefalls down.)

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where is the pressure gauge for the Emergency Extension Nitrogen Bottle?

A

Nose Landing Gear Well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the Emergency Extension Nitrogen Bottle pressure?

A

3,000 psi @ 70°F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

After takeoff at positive rate the Landing Gear Handle moves up but one or more of the gear does not go up - what is the likely cause?

A

Pin was not removed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

After takeoff at positive rate the Landing Gear Handle is not able to be moved up - what is the likely cause?

What must be done in this case?

A

Nutcracker in ground mode.

Unarm the ground spoilers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the takeoff recommended actions for snow, slush, or wet conditions?

A

Delay gear retraction, cycle at a safe altitude 1 or 2 times.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What and why is the speed for emergency extension of the landing gear?
175 KCAS There is potentially no hydraulic fluid in the actuators to slow/damp the extension force.
26
With a fully charged accumulator, how many Parking/Emergency Brake applications are available?
5-6
27
What pressure should the Accumulator be charged to?
3,000 psi @ 70°F
28
Anti-skid braking is available from which hydraulic systems?
Combined, Utility, and AUX
29
What are nosewheel deflection values? - Pedals - Tiller - Tiller+Pedals
- Pedals: 7°±1 - Tiller: 78°±2 - Tiller+Pedals: 80°±2
30
What action is required for an amber ENG FIRE LOOP ALERT CAS msg?
Disable the faulty loop
31
What engine vibration indications (EVM) are considered normal?
EVM should not exceed 0.6 unless in icing conditions
32
What actions should be taken if EVM exceeds 0.6?
Retard until EVM returns to normal level. EVM indications alone should not be used as criteria for Engine Shutdown. If the vibration is accompanied by other failure indications... Affected Engine - Shutdown.
33
What happens if a Thrust Reverser deploys in flight? Crew actions?
Affected Power Lever retards automatically ("snatchback") Reverse Levers - Verify Down Affected Engine Power Lever - Idle Airspeed - do NOT exceed 200 KCAS T/REV Emergency Stow Switch - PRESS
34
Pulling the Engine Fire Handle does what?
**"A FIRE"** - **A**rms the Halon Bottle (Arms the squib) - **F**uel is shut OFF at the Hopper - Hydraul**I**c valve is shut OFF at the reservoir - **R**everser is disabled. - **E**lectrical at the Alternator is disabled.
35
What is the maximum fuel load (gals) and weight? Can it be exceeded?
4,370 gallons 29,500 lbs Can be exceeded (fuel density changes); allowed if ramp/takeoff weights are not.
36
Why are there different fuel imbalance limits.
More fuel = further out on wings; longer moment.
37
How can fuel be balanced?
Crossflow or Intertank Valves
38
What is the primary purpose of the Intertank Valve?
Pressure defueling and cold fuel temperature fuel balancing.
39
Where does the APU normally receive fuel from?
Left Hopper
40
AUX System Components
**G**rumman **A**ircraft **F**lew **B**efore **G**ulfstream **D**id - **G**round Spoiler System - **A**ccumulator - **F**laps - **B**rakes (Normal & Park/Emer) - Landing **G**ear - **D**oors (Main Cabin, Cargo, and Landing Gear)
41
Requirements for UTIL Pump Activation
- Combined Pressure drops below 800 psi - at least 1 gal of fluid in Combined reservoir - Flight system has at least 2,000 psi - Flight system temp is 220°F or less
42
Items lost when lose Flight Hyd Sys
**PRAY** - Util **P**ump - **R**ight **R**everser - **A**utopilot (due to YD loss) - **Y**aw Damper
43
What causes AUX Pump to activate automatically?
**CUTEN** - **C**ombined and **U**tility Hys pressure <1,500 psi, and, - **T**oe Brake Pedal depresses >10°, and, - **E**ither **N**utcracker in the Ground Mode
44
What causes automatic shutdown of APU?
- APU Fire - High EGT - High Oil Temp - Low Oil Px - Overcurrent in APU ECU - APU Overspeed - 110%
45
What is the minimum voltage to charge the Main Batteries with Ext AC power? Why?
4 V. There is a DC powered solenoid to connect Ext AC to the Electrical system. (If Battery Override Switch in Ext AC receptacle, can override this)
46
What must happen for the red OIL PRESS LOW light to illuminate after turning the APU Master Switch ON?
The Fuel Control Valve and Air Inlet Door must open.
47
Items lost when you lose COMB/UTIL Hyd System
COMB: **UNSAT** - **U**til Pump - **N**osewheel Steering - **S**tall Barrier - **A**BEX - **T**hrust Reverser If fluid, UTIL Pump Runs, only lose - **A**BEX - **T**hrust Reverser
48
What do the Main Batteries serve
**EAA** is in **O**shKosh - **E**ss DC bus power source - **A**PU starting - **A**UX Hyd Pump (ON) - **O**il Servicer
49
What turns the E-BATTs on?
**GEM** - 2.5 **G**s or greater - **E**SS DC Bus power loss (<20V) when ARMed - **M**anually selected ON
50
What makes Main Battery Chargers go into "TR Mode" (aka BATT-on-Bus)? How do you know?
**EAA** - **E**ss DC bus is powered by batteries - **A**PU starting - **A**UX Hyd Pump ON - Battery switch lights "ON" are illuminated
51
What 4 things open the Isolation Valve
1. ISOLATION switch 2. APU on Bleed Air Panel 3. START MASTER 4. CRANK MASTER
52
What functions does the Cabin Safety Relief Valve provide?
**NPR** - **N**egative diff pressure relief at -0.25 psi - **P**ositive diff pressure relief at 9.7 ±0.1 psi - **R**ate limiting: ≤3,000 fpm
53
The GIV can maintain Sea Level cabin px up to _____. The GIV can maintain ________ ft cabin alt up to FL450.
- 22,000 ft - 6,550 ft
54
Conditions that cause the Pack Valves to close
**REST** - **R**am Air switch - RAM - **E**ngine Starting (MASTER=L, START=R) - **S**witch (Pack) - "COOL **T**URB HOT" CAS msg
55
Power Source for Pressurization System
- Auto = AC - Manual = DC
56
Maximum Alt for Pax O2?
- FL250 max recommended for sustained ops - Recommended to only use for descent to where supplemental O2 is not required as pax may become hypoxic if oxygen runs out.
57
Minimum temp for cockpit displays?
+50° F
58
Rating for Alternators
- 115 VAC - 3 phase - 30 kVA
59
Output of Converters (AC & DC)
- AC: 115 VAC, 400 Hz, 23 kVA - DC: 28V, 250 Amps (7 kVA)
60
Min HP% to consider when using HMG
67%
61
Maximum output of the TRU
300 Amps
62
Rating of the E-Inverter
800 volt-amps
63
Max output of batteries
50 amps each, total of 100 amps
64
Capacity of fuel hopper tank
190 gals (~1,270 lbs)
65
Fuel Press Low - ___ psi
< 15 psi at the high pressure fuel pump inlet
66
Guaranteed minimum thrust provided by TAY engine
13,850 lbs at sea level
67
"SVO" light should extinguish by _____?
44.5% Hp
68
"OIL PRESS LOW" CAS msg illuminates at ____?
< 16 psi
69
Requirements to engage Autothrottle
- Armed - Isolation Valve closed - TOGA mode - ≥ 1.17 EPR
70
Conditions that cause the Autothrottles to disengage.
- A/T disconnect switches - A/T Arm button (off or selecting a second time) - Selecting opposite AP/AT computer - Manual Override - Opening the isolation vale - Alternate wing flap operation - LP split >20% - Either HP <41%
71
"PYLON HOT" CAS msg comes on at ______?
325° F
72
"BLEED PRESS HI" CAS msg comes on at _____?
75 psi
73
"BLEED AIR HOT" CAS msg comes on at _____?
550° F
74
"WING HOT" CAS msg comes on at ____ ?
>180°
75
"WING WARM" blue annunciator comes on at _____?
>100° F
76
What would cause a Pack valve to close?
- L/R Pack Control Switches - Master Start/Crank switch (L) - Starter Switch (R) - RAM AIR Switch - ON - "COOL TURB HOT" CAS msg (ground only)
77
"CABIN PRESS LOW" CAS msg comes on at ____?
9,250 ft ± 750 ft
78
Pax O2 drops at _______ cabin altitude?
13,000 ± 500 ft
79
Preflight Brake Accumulator pre-charge?
1200 psi @ 70°
80
O2 (exterior) gauge acceptable readings?
1,800 psi, as low as 1,500 psi @ 70°F
81
O2 mask requirement (part 135) & (part 91)
Part 91 - >FL350 - when one crew-member leaves station - >FL410 - one crew-member continuously Part 135 - >FL250 - when one crew-member leaves station - >FL350 - one crew-member continuously
82
What is proper trim set to at takeoff?
- V2
83
Max crosswind for engine start?
- 25 kts (demonstrated)
84
APU can provide power up to what altitude?
- Guaranteed operation up to 35,000 ft.