Study Questions Part 1 Flashcards
(203 cards)
1
Q
What are the four basic tissues of the human body?
A
epithelial, muscle, neural & connective tissue
2
Q
What is the function of each type of bone cells?
A
osteoblast- form bone; osteocyte- maintain or nurture bone; osteoclast- remodel bone
3
Q
What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?
A
glycosaminoglycans
4
Q
What is the principle type of protein in bone?
A
collagen type 1
5
Q
What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?
A
hydroxyapatite
6
Q
What is wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?
A
living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress
7
Q
What are the three responses of bone that allow it to be described as “living”?
A
it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age
8
Q
What is bone the embryological derivative of?
A
mesenchyme or cartilage
9
Q
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?
A
intramembranous ossification
10
Q
What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?
A
from the second to third month in utero
11
Q
What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?
A
from the second to fifth month in utero
12
Q
What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?
A
chondrocranium
13
Q
Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
A
the clavicle
14
Q
What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?
A
sexual dimorphism (gender variation), ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation), geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation) and idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)
15
Q
What are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?
A
long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones
16
Q
What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal II?
A
heterotopic and accessory bone
17
Q
What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?
A
heterotopic bone
18
Q
What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?
A
Accessory bone
19
Q
What is the characteristic feature of a long bone?
A
it is longer than it is across (length greater than breadth)
20
Q
What are the names given to the parts of the a long bone?
A
the diaphysis (shaft) and typically two epiphyses (extremities)
21
Q
What is the primary characteristic of short bones?
A
they are essentially cuboidal
22
Q
What are the examples of short bones?
A
most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus
23
Q
What are examples of flat bones?
A
the parietal bone and sternum
24
Q
What are examples of pneumatic bone?
A
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid, & temporal
25
What is the characteristic of sesamoid bones?
the bone develops within a tendon
26
what are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?
patella and pisiform
27
What are examples of heterotopic bone?
calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments
28
What are examples of accessory bones?
para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae
29
What are the four basic surfaces feature categories?
elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways & facets
30
When do the surface features of bone become prominent?
during and after puberty
31
What are the types of osseous linear elevation?
the line, ridge and crest
32
What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?
tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber, or tuberosity and malleolus
33
What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?
spine and process
34
What are the categories of osseous depressions?
linear and rounded depressions
35
What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?
notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus
36
What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?
the fovea and fossa
37
What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?
ostium or orifice and hiatus
38
What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?
foramen or canal
39
What is the definition of an osseous foramen?
an ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone
40
What is the definition of an osseous canal?
an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone
41
What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind ended passageway?
meatus
42
What is the definition of an osseous fissure
an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones
43
What are the categories of osseous facets?
flat facets and rounded facets
44
What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?
articular heads and articular condyles
45
What bones form the axial skeleton?
the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs
46
What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?
the cranium
47
What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?
the calvaria or calva
48
What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?
the neurocranium, the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton) and the auditory ossicles
49
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?
28 bones
50
What bones form the neurocranium of a typical adult skull?
the frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid
51
How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?
8 bones
52
How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton?
14 bones
53
What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?
the spine
54
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?
24 bones
55
How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?
1 bone
56
What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?
the manubrim sterni, the corpus sterni and the xiphoid process
57
How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?
12 pair or 24 ribs
58
What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?
syndesmology
59
What are the three histological classifications of joints?
fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid
60
The ligamentous sacra-iliac joints (or most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column) are examples of which joint classification?
syndesmosis
61
What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?
they are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template
62
What are examples of a permanent (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?
costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint
63
What are the characteristics of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?
limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the join, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification
64
Which example of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?
symphysis menti
65
What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?
articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid
66
What are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?
located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint "at rest"
67
What are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?
located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion
68
What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?
Present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resembles Golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion
69
What is the function of type IV articular receptors?
nociceptive, they monitor pain
70
Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?
accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine
71
What are the three modifications of the articular synovial membrane?
1) synovial villi, 2) articular fat pads or Haversian glands, 3) synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
72
Articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column?
lumbar zygapophyses
73
Intra-articular discs are a feature of what joint examples?
temporomandibular, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular, and radio-ulnar joints
74
Synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples
femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses
75
What are the layers of the synovial membrane
outer fibrous layer and an inner (lumenal) cellular AKA synovial lamina intima
76
What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?
are phagocytic
77
What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?
secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid
78
Which collagen fiber typer predominates in articular cartilage?
type II
79
What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?
form a network for water retention
80
What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?
Cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property
81
What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?
cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property
82
What theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?
weeping theory
83
Which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?
boosted theory
84
Which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low-friction observed during movement?
boundary theory
85
What are the properties of synovial fluid?
it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty
86
Which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
hyaluronate
87
What substance in synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
lubricin
88
What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)
within the simple joint or compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus
89
What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as uniaxial?
hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)
90
What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as non axial?
plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)
91
What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as biaxial?
(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)
92
What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as multiaxial?
ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis), (diarthrosis spheroidal), (diarthrosis cotyloid) are all classifications given to the same type of joint
93
What are the examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints?
median atlanto-axial joint and osteo-ligamentous ring
94
What are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?
tempromandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee
95
What are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?
radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpi-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column
96
What are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joints?
carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot
97
What are examples of diarthrosis cotyloid joints?
femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and humerus- glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder
98
What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent
33 segments
99
What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult
26 segments
100
What constitutes the spine?
the 24 pre sacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
101
Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?
the ant bear and three toed sloth
102
Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?
the manatee and two-toed sloth
103
What does the term "cervical" refer to?
the region of the neck
104
What does the term "thoracic" refer to?
breast plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso
105
What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?
the dorsal segments; the dorsals
106
What does the term "lumbar" refer to?
the loin; the region between the rib and hip
107
What does the term "sacrum" refer to?
the holy bone, or the holy region
108
What does the term "coccyx" refer to?
a cuckoo birds' bill or cuckoo birds' beak
109
What is the length of a typical male spinal column?
about 70 centimeters or 28 inches
110
What is the length of a typical female spinal column?
about 60 centimeters or 25 inches
111
What is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column?
about 3 inches
112
What is the length of the male cervical region?
about 12 centimeters or 5 inches
113
What is the length of the male thoracic region?
about 28 centimeters or 11 inches
114
What is the length of the male lumbar region?
about 18 centimeters or 7 inches
115
What is the length of the male sacrum?
about 12 centimeters or 5 inches
116
Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine?
about 58 centimeter or 23 inches
117
How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?
ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template
118
What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight-bearing transfer?
S1-S3 at the auricular surface
119
What is specifically responsible for the shape and position of the human frame?
comparative anterior vs posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc
120
What organ(s) is (are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?
the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear
121
Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?
notochord
122
What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?
paraxial mesoderm?
123
Name the areas of the cellular differentiation formed within the somite?
sclerotome, myotome and dermatome
124
What are the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?
membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous
125
Migration of a somite pair to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?
the perichordal blastema
126
The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?
neural processes and costal processes
127
What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?
intersegmental artery
128
What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?
the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)
129
The intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?
the perichordal disc
130
The union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastema gives rise to what feature?
the vertebral blastema
131
What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?
the segmental artery
132
When will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema?
beginning in the 6th embryonic week
133
What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?
chondrification
134
How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?
six... 2 for the cetrum, 2 for the neural arches, 2 for each transverse process
135
What is the ear lies time that centers of ossification appear in cartilaginous vertebra?
during the 7th embryonic week
136
What is the name given to centers of ossification based on time of appearance?
primary centers appear in utero, and secondary centers appear after birth
137
What is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebrae?
3 primary centers: 5 secondary centers
138
What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
centrum centers and neural arch centers
139
What are the names/locations of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
tip of transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers
140
What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?
during puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old
141
What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?
cervicle- rectangular; thoracic- triangular; lumbar- reniform
142
What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?
superior epiphyseal rim, inferior epiphyseal rim
143
What is the name given to the intermediate part of the vertebral arch where the transverse process and the articular processes attach?
the lamina- pedicle junction
144
What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?
cervical- posterolateral
thoracic- posterior, slight lateral
lumbar- posterior
145
What ligament will attach to the lamina?
the ligamentum flavum
146
What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?
para-articular process
147
What classification of bone will para- articular process represent?
accessory bone
148
What is the name given to the overlap of lamina on X-ray?
shingling
149
What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch- spinous process on lateral X-ray?
the spinolaminar junction
150
What is the name given to the lamina- pedicle junction at each region of the spine?
cervical- articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar- pars interarticularis
151
What is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?
cervical- anterolateral; thoracic- posterolateral; lumbar- lateral
152
All non- rib-bearing vertebra of the spine train what equivalent feature?
the costal element
153
What will cause the transverse process/ transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?
cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position
154
What will cause the transverse process/ transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoraces region?
the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward
155
What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?
the zygapophysis
156
What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the inferior articular process/ post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/ pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum
157
What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure
158
What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure
159
What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament
160
What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?
calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/ spinous apophysis and the horizontal plate
161
What is the name given to the normal overlap of the spinous process or spinous apophyses as seen on an X-ray?
imbrication
162
What is the orientation of the spinous processes/spinous apophysis ate each region of the spine?
cervical- slight angle inferiorly
thoracic- noticeably angle inferiorly
lumbar- no inferior angle
163
What is the typical shape/ outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/ vertebral column?
cervical- triangular; thoracic- oval; lumbar- triangular; sacrum- triangular
164
At what vertebral level with the spinal cord typically terminate?
L1
165
At what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?
S2
166
What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?
the vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery
167
What are the segmental arteries of thoracic spine?
the deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery
168
What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?
the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery
169
What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?
the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median (middle) sacral artery
170
What are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?
the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median (middle) sacral artery
171
what segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?
C1-C6
172
What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?
C1-C6
173
What segmental a levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?
C7-T1
174
What segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?
T1, T2
175
What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?
T3-T11
176
What segmental level(s) is/are supplied by the subcostal artery?
T12
177
What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?
L1-L4
178
What segmental levels are supplied by the median (middle) sacral artery?
L5, S1-S5 and coccyx
179
What segmental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?
L5, S1-S5 and coccyx
180
Which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it?
L5
181
What are the segmental arteries for L5?
iliolumbar artery, median (middle) sacral artery, and lateral sacral artery
182
Identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinals)
dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
183
What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?
interstitial fluid
184
Which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?
subdural space- between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
185
What is the name given to the fluid within the subdural space?
serous fluid
186
What is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space?
cerebrospinal fluid
187
What branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paravertebral region?
dorsospinal artery
188
Which artery is primarily observed in the distal part of the intervertebral foramen?
spinal artery
189
Which branch of the dorsospinal arteries will penetrate the meninges to enter the subarachnoid space?
spinal artery
190
What are the branches of the spinal artery?
osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, and posterior radicular
191
What branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?
osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, and posterior spinal canal artery
192
What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?
anterior spinal canal artery & plexus
193
What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?
posterior spinal canal artery & plexus
194
Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?
anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, and posterior radicular
195
Which vessel will supply the ventral/ anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?
anterior radicular artery
196
Which vessel will supply the dorsal/ posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?
posterior radicular artery
197
What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?
a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries
198
What is the generic name oven to the arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?
intramedullary arteries
199
What are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?
pial perforating arteries, central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries
200
What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?
central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries
201
What intramedullary branches supply about one third of the spinal cord?
pial perforating arteries
202
What is the source for the pial perorating arteries?
pial plexus
203
What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?
anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders
