Sulfonamide Antimicrobial Agents Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

Activity of prontosil?

A

Inactive in vitro, prodrug in that its metabolites are active

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2
Q

Prontosil used to treat?

A

Candida albicans

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3
Q

What do sulfonamides competitively inhibit?

A

Incorporation of p-aminobenzoic acid into folic acid nucleus via inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

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4
Q

Why do sulfonamides not hurt mammalian cells, but hurts bacterial cells?

A

Mammalian cells utilize preformed folate in the diet while bacterial cells make their own folic acid

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5
Q

Antibiotic activity of sulfonamides can be reversed by what?

A

Adding large quantities of PABA (p-aminobenzoic acid) to diet

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6
Q

Structure of sulfanilamide resembles what

A

PABA

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7
Q

Acidity of PABA vs sulfanilamide?

A

PABA pKa 6.5

Sulfanilamid pKa 10.4

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8
Q

What type of acid is sulfanilamide?

A

Weak acid

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9
Q

What enhanced the potency and acidified the sulfonamide nitrogen of sulfanilamide drug?

A

Attachment of electron withdrawing heteroaromatic rings

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10
Q

Increase in acidity decrease the incidence of what?

A

Crystalluria (Crystallization of the sulfonamide in urine resulting in kidney damage)

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11
Q

What do they recommend be done when taking sulfonamides to reduce crystalluria?

A

Drink large amounts of water

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12
Q

Sulfonamides in general inhibit what?

A

Gram + and Gram -
Nocardia
Chlamydia trachomatis
Protozoa/fungi

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13
Q

How are sulfonamides usually used in treatment?

A

In combination

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14
Q

Why are sulfonamides usually used in combination?

A

Resistance factors are too widespread

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15
Q

Most popular sulfonamide?

A

Sulfisoxazole

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16
Q

What are sulfisoxazole and sulfamethoxazole used to treat>

A

Urinary tract infections

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17
Q

What is used in a 1:1:1 ratio to treat Gardnerella vaginalis?

A

Sulfabenzamide, sulfacetamide, and sulfathiazole

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18
Q

What is sulfasalazine?

A

Prodrug not well absorbed from GI tract

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19
Q

What do bacteria metabolize sulfasalazine to?

A

Sulfapyridine and 5-aminosalicyclic acid

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20
Q

Function of 5-aminosalicyclic acid?

A

Antiinflammatory

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21
Q

What is sulfasalizine used to treat?

A

Ulcerative colitis and Chron’s disease

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22
Q

Why don’t we just administer 5-aminosalicyclic acid directly?

A

Irritating to gastric mucosa

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23
Q

Sulfadoxine and pyrimethamine are used together to prevent what?

A

Malaria

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24
Q

Pyrimethamine is inhibitor of what?

A

Plasmodium falciparum dihydrofolate preductase

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25
First line chemotherapy to treat acute toxoplasmosis?
Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
26
How to sulfonamides and their derivatives interact?
Cross-allergenic
27
Rare skin and mucous membrane rash that is potentially fatal due to sulfonamide interaction?
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
28
Resistance to sulfonamides occurs through what mechanisms?
1) Mutations cause overproduction of PABA 2) Mutations in target enzyme (dihydropteroate synthase) 3) Mutations result in decrease of cell permeability to sulfonamides
29
What has happened with trimethoprim and resistance?
Plasmid borne copy of dihydrofolate reductase gene decreases binding to enzyme
30
How is Trimethoprim cleared?
Inactive metabolites cleared in urine
31
What are sulfonamides metabolized by?
N-4 N-acetylation | N-1 glucuronidation
32
Metabolites of sulfonamides are what when acetylated/glucuronidated?
Inactive
33
Which metabolites of sulfonamides are toxic?
Hydroxylamine and nitroso
34
Human population divided into what types of acetylators?
Rapid or slow
35
First generation Quinolones good against what?
Gram -
36
First generation QL only useful for what?
Lower urinary tract infections
37
How is 2nd generation differ from 1st generation?
Fluorine at C-6 Heterocyclic ring at C-7 Broader spectrum and more potent
38
what do 2nd generation QLs work on?
Gram - Gram + Mycoplasma
39
Most potent fluoroquinolone?
Ciprofloxacin
40
How do 3rd and 4th generation QL differ from 2nd?
Multiple fluorine atoms | Improved activity against Gram + (Strep pneumonia)
41
Are 3rd/4th generation better than Ciprofloxacin for gram -?
No, Cipro still best
42
What QL is known as "drug of last resort"?
Moxifloxacin
43
Why is Moxifloxacin known as drug of last resort?
Sever side effects
44
How many strands of DNA do Topoisomerases cuts?
Topoisomerase 1 cuts 1 and topoisomerase 2 cuts 2
45
How do topoisomerase and gyrases cut DNA>
Nucelophillic attack on phosphodiester link
46
How do QL work?
They inhibit relegation reaction which eventually leads to apoptosis/death
47
Which topoisomerase type has been crystallized and had X-ray structures determined?
Type 2
48
Most common use of QLs?
Urinary tract infections
49
First line treatment of Neisseria Gonorrhoeae due to QL resistance?
Ceftriaxone
50
Increased fluoroquinolone resistance rates correlated with what?
Use
51
Spontaneously occuring point mutations where causes QL resistance?
A-subunit of DNA gyrase
52
What does point mutation of gyrase A-subunit achieve?
Enzyme with altered binding affinity
53
Fluoroquinolone penetration of Gram - bacteria dependent on what?
Diffusion through porin channels
54
Under-dosing runs the risk of whaT?
Selecting for resistant organisms
55
How are fluoroquinolone taken?
Orally, high bioavailability
56
Renal and hepatic clearance are important for all QLs except which?
Oxafloxacin (95% renal)
57
How long until QLs interstitial concentration exceed serum concentrations?
4-24 hours
58
What do you want to avoid mixing with QLs?
Heavy metals/food drugs with heavy metals due to insoluble chelates
59
Major inactive metabolite of QLs?
Glucuronide at 3 carboxyl position
60
Most common adverse side effect of QLs?
Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
61
Who do you not want to give QLs to?
Patients under 18 due to interference with growing cartilage
62
What adverse effect can happen with lomefloxacin?
Photosensitivity
63
Gatifloxacin associated with what?
Hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia in diabetic patients