Supportive Care Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

What are 4 risk factors of TLS? (Left side)?

A
  1. Bulky chemosensitive disease
  2. Blood cancer
  3. Elevated WBC
  4. High serum urate level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are risk factors of TLS? (Right side)

A
  1. Elevated LDH
  2. Volume depletion
  3. Preexisting renal insufficiency
  4. Concentrated acidic urine pH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does cell lysis result in?

A
  1. Hyperkalemia
  2. Hyperuricemia
  3. Hyperphosphatemia
  4. Hypocalcemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the single most important intervention for TLS?

A

Hydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the goal hydration for TLS?

A

2-3 L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When can you add loop diuretics for TLS?

A

After volume has been replaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are 2 hyperuricemic agents that are used in TLS?

A
  1. Allopurinol
  2. Rasburicase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is allopurinol only useful for?

A

Prevention of TLS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does rasburicase break down?

A

Uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What 2 things can hyperkalemia cause?

A
  1. Arrhythmias
  2. Neuromuscular abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What drug can you use for mild hyperkalemia?

A

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should you restrict for hyperphospatemia?

A

Dietary phosphate intake 800-1000 mg/d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Local allergic reactions without pain, usually accompanied by red blotches along the vein

A

Flare reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Agent capable of causing achiness, tightness, and phlebitis at the injection site or along with the vein

A

Irritant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Agent that is known to produce severe tissue damage and/or necrosis when infiltrated

A

Vesicant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Inadvertent administration of a solution or medication into the tissue surrounding and IV catheter

A

Infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Inadvertent administration of a vesicant medication into the surrounding tissues

A

Extravasation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does extravasation cause?

A

Severe and progressive tissue injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What two drug classes have the highest vesicant potential?

A
  1. Anthracyclines
  2. Alkaloids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the treatment for vinca alkaloid extravasation?

A
  1. Apply a warm compress
  2. Hyaluronidase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the treatment for anthracycline extravasation?

A
  1. Apply a cool compress
  2. Dimethyl sulfoxide or Dexrazoxane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dexrazoxane

A

TOTEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 2 MOAs of Dexarazoxane?

A
  1. Topoisomerase inhibitor
  2. Chelating agent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where should you administer totec?

A

Into a large vein or extremity other than the one affected by the extravasation (opposite side of the body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is Zinecard used for?
Protects against anthracycline- induced toxicity
26
What does febrile neutropenia result in?
Myelosuppression
27
When is a patient considered neutropenic?
ANC< 1000
28
When is a patient considered absolutely neutropenic?
ANC< 100
29
What does the level of concern for neutropenia depend on? 3
1. Degree 2. Speed 3. Length
30
Cancer patients have blunted ________ responses.
Inflammatory
31
The most important sign of infection in a neutropenic patient is
FEVER
32
For febrile neutropenia, a single oral temperature of _____ or multiple oral temperatures of _______ persisting over __ hour(s)
> 38.3 C; > 38 C; 1
33
What drugs can hide the fever of febrile neutropenia?
1. Tylenol 2. NSAIDs 3. Steroids
34
What are the only safe meds for neutropenic pain?
Opioids
35
When CSFs are given after chemotherapy, what 3 things do they consistently reduce?
1. Incidence 2. Magnitude 3. Duration of neutropenia
36
What are the 2 available products for CSFs?
1. Filgrastim 2. Pegfilgrastim
37
Filgrastim
Neupogen
38
Pegfilgrastim
NEULASTA
39
When can you use CSFs to prevent febrile neutropenia?
When chemotherapy regimen is associates with > or = to 20% incidence of febrile neutropenia
40
What can be used to treat febrile neutropenia?
Antibiotics
41
When can CSFs be considered in treating febrile neutropenia?
In cases of sepsis or other life-threatening conditions
42
When should CSFs not be given?
During chemotherapy or radiation
43
What are 3 ADRS of CSFs?
1. Bone pain 2. Injection site reactions 3. Fever
44
Mucosal damage occurring in the oral cavity, pharyngeal and laryngeal regions
Mucositis
45
What are 5 risk factors for mucositis?
1. Chemotherapy regimens with alkylating agents or topiosimerase II inhibitors 2. Radiation to head or neck 3. Poor dentition/ bad dentures 4. Tobacco use 5. Alcohol use
46
What are 5 consequences of mucositis?
1. Decreased oral intake/ malnutrition 2. Infection 3. Nausea and or vomiting 4. Pain 5. Dose delays or dose reductions
47
What is the recovery of mucositis closely tied to?
The recovery of neutropenia
48
What 3 things can be used to prevent mucositis?
1. Dental assessment prior to therapy 2. Oral hygiene 3. Oral cryotherapy 30 mins before, during, and after chemo
49
What 3 ways can you treat mucositis?
1. Magic swizzle 2. Opioids 3. TPN or Feeding tube
50
Patients are considered at end of life when they have what electrolyte imbalance?
Hypercalcemia
51
Patients die within how many days when they have hypercalcemia?
30
52
What are the two main hallmark symptoms of hypercalcemia?
1. Polyuria 2. Polydipsia
53
What is the clinical presentation of hypercalcemia?
1. Lethargy, confusion, nausea, constipation, shortened QT interval 2. Renal failure 3. Possible coma
54
What is the corrected calcium equation?
Measured calcium + (0.8 x (4 - albumin level))
55
What is first line treatment for hypercalcemia?
Hydration with normal saline +/- furosemide
56
What are the first and second line medications for hypercalcemia?
First line: 1. IV bisphosphonates 2. RANKL Inhibitor Second line: calcitonin
57
What are the 2 bisphosphonates used for hypercalcemia?
1. Zoledronic Acid 2. Pamidronate
58
What are 2 ADRS of the bisphosphonates?
1. Nephrotoxicity 2. Osteonecrosis of the jaw
59
What is the moa of the bisphosphonates?
Stuns the osteoclasts
60
What RANKL inhibitor is used for hypercalcemia?
Denosumab
61
What is Denosumab role in therapy?
Used for hypercalcemia refractory to bisphosphonates
62
What toxicity does Denosumab have?
Can cause hypocalcemia
63
You should use Denosumab in patients with what?
Severe renal impairment
64
Calcitonin lowers Ca concentration but the response is?
Transient
65
Why is calcitonin limited to the first 48 hours?
Due to tachyphylaxis
66
For hypercalcemia, do you want to return calcium to normal levels?
No, goal is to gain mental functioning
67
If further therapy is desired for hypercalcemia, what should you do?
Aggressively treat the cancer and change the therapy